Employee Relations
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Employee Relations explores the dynamic between employers and employees, focusing on the policies, practices, and legislation that govern workplace interactions. This course examines the importance of fostering positive relationships, effective communication, negotiation, conflict resolution, and the role of unions and collective bargaining. Students will analyze case studies to understand dispute resolution mechanisms, legal frameworks regarding workers rights, and strategies organizations use to promote a healthy, productive work environment. The course equips students with practical skills to manage diverse workplace situations, ensuring compliance and promoting organizational success.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 15th Edition by Gary Dessler
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management
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Q1) The evidence used in evidence-based human resource management may come from actual measurements, existing data, or critically evaluated research studies.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Cloud computing basically means using statistical techniques, algorithms, and problem-solving to identify relationships among data for the purpose of solving particular problems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) On-demand workers are freelancers and independent contractors who work when they can, on what they want to work on, and when the company needs them.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Equal Opportunity and the Law
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Q1) Which of the following refers to the overall effect of employer practices that result in significantly higher percentages of members of protected groups being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion?
A)disparate treatment
B)disparate impact
C)adverse impact
D)prima facie
Answer: C
Q2) Uniform guidelines from the EEOC are recommended for employers to use in matters regarding all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)employee selection
B)record keeping
C)sexual harassment
D)psychological testing
Answer: D
Q3) The first step of the EEOC enforcement process is to serve notice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Human Resource Management Strategy and Analysis
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Q1) A company's ________ strategy identifies the portfolio of businesses that comprise a firm and the ways in which these businesses relate to each other.
A)functional
B)business unit
C)corporate-level
D)competitive Answer: C
Q2) Human resource audits and benchmarking are two critical tools used by managers who implement an evidence-based approach to human resource management.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) High-performance companies are less likely than low-performance companies to invest in costly employee training programs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Job Analysis and the Talent Management Process
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Q1) Experts at the ________ performed the earliest form of job analysis and published the Dictionary of Occupational Titles.
A)EEOC
B)DOL
C)BLS
D)DHS
Q2) Janice, a department store manager, is in the process of writing job descriptions using O*NET. Janice has already reviewed the company's business plan, so what should be her next step?
A)interview employees
B)compose a list of job duties
C)develop an organization chart
D)observe employees performing their duties
Q3) The most important consideration when developing an online job analysis is to ________.
A)make questions and the process as clear as possible
B)provide monetary rewards for timely completion
C)limit the number of questions to less than twenty
D)ask open-ended questions to ensure honest responses
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Q4) In a brief essay, compare and contrast job descriptions and job specifications.
Chapter 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting
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Q1) Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. All of the following questions are relevant to Marie's decision to fill top positions at the new hotels with internal candidates EXCEPT:
A)What are the key managerial positions that are available at the new hotels?
B)What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning?
C)What skills, education, and training have been provided to potential candidates?
D)What is the designated procedure for assessing and selecting potential candidates?
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________.
A)listing the job's attributes
B)providing the job's pay rate
C)publicizing the open job to employees
D)indicating the preferred number of applicants
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection
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Q1) Employers concerned about ethical and EEO violations may purchase employment tests that have been validated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
A)valid
B)invalid
C)reliable
D)unreliable
Q3) Applicant tracking systems compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Industrial psychologists often emphasize the "big five" personality dimensions in personnel testing. List and explain the meaning of the big five dimensions. How do personality traits correlate with job performance?
Q5) What is test validity? How are selection tests validated?
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Chapter 7: Interviewing Candidates
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Q1) What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview?
A)rate the job's main duties
B)create interview questions
C)create benchmark answers
D)appoint the interview panel
Q2) In a brief essay, discuss the three main types of questions that are frequently used in structured situational interviews. Explain the purpose of each question type and provide an example of each.
Q3) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a ________ interview.
A)screening
B)selection
C)benchmark
D)background
Q4) What three ways can selection interviews be classified? How does each classification affect an interview?
Q5) How do nonverbal behaviors and impression management affect an interview?
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Chapter 8: Training and Developing Employees
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Q1) All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________.
A)programmed learning
B)understudy method
C)special assignments
D)job rotation
Q2) Which of the following will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training?
A)confirming an employee's claims of skill and experience
B)providing extensive and appropriate training
C)evaluating the effectiveness of the training
D)paying employees for their training time
Q3) On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies, and the structure of the company. In which of the following did Alicia most likely participate?
A)recruitment
B)selection
C)employee orientation
D)employee development
Q4) Describe elements of computer-based training and why it can be effective.
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Chapter 9: Performance Management and Appraisal
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Q1) ________ means making sure that the manager and the subordinate agree on the subordinate's job standards and the appraisal method to be used.
A)SMART goals
B)Organizational development
C)Defining the job
D)Forced distribution
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation?
A)unclear standards
B)halo effects
C)leniency
D)biased
Q3) Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale?
A)chart of paired subordinates ranked in order of performance
B)combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales
C)diary of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work performance
D)list of subordinates from highest to lowest based on specific performance traits
Q4) Describe the four basic types of appraisal interviews.
Q5) What are the essential steps of the performance appraisal process?
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Chapter 10: Employee Retention, Engagement, and Careers
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Q1) Employers benefit from offering career development programs to employees in all of the following ways EXCEPT ________.
A)supporting recruitment efforts
B)boosting employee commitment
C)enhancing employee strengths
D)facilitating performance analysis
Q2) In a career-oriented appraisal, a manager matches an employee's strengths and weaknesses with a feasible career path and developmental needs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the simplest and most often used method for predicting the future performance of a candidate for promotion?
A)prior performance
B)aptitude tests
C)assessment centers
D)psychological exams
Q4) In a brief essay, discuss the four decisions that affect a firm's promotion process.
Q5) What are the characteristics of an effective mentor?
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Chapter 11: Establishing Strategic Pay Plans
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Q1) A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation.
A)wage curve
B)benchmark
C)pay grade
D)class
Q2) Which law makes it illegal to discriminate against any individual with respect to compensation because of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?
A)Fair Labor Standards Act
B)Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
C)Equal Pay Act
D)Taft-Hartley Act
Q3) According to many experts, which of the following would most likely reduce the wage gap between men and women?
A)education
B)union intervention
C)federal legislation
D)competency-based pay
Q4) Explain the equity theory of motivation. What are the four forms of equity?
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Chapter 12: Pay for Performance and Financial Incentives
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Q1) The standard hour plan is like the piece rate plan except instead of getting a rate per piece, the employee gets a premium equal to the percent by which his or her performance exceeds the standard.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of pay plan is being used when workers are paid a sum for each unit they produce?
A)competency-based pay
B)job-based pay
C)piecework
D)bonus
Q3) Employees at GameTime Software participate in a gainsharing plan. Employee bonuses are calculated by dividing payroll expenses by total sales. GameTime Software most likely uses which of the following plans?
A)Lincoln
B)Rucker
C)Improshare
D)Scanlon
Q4) Explain the advantages of employee stock ownership plans.
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Chapter 13: Benefits and Services
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Q1) For individuals born in 1960 or later, the full retirement age for non-discounted Social Security benefits is ________.
A)62
B)65
C)67
D)70
Q2) When an employer makes all of the contributions to the pension plan, the pension plan is classified as ________.
A)qualified
B)non-qualified
C)defined contribution
D)non-contributory
Q3) Social Security offers all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)survivor's benefits for those insured under the Social Security Act
B)disability payments to employees who become totally disabled
C)tax refunds for retirees who are 55 and older
D)Medicare program administration
Q4) What are vested funds? What is the difference between cliff vesting and graded vesting?
Q5) What are the three types of benefits provided by Social Security?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Building Positive Employee Relations
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Q1) Semi-permanent teams that identify and research work processes and develop solutions to work-related problems are called:
A)suggestion teams
B)orientation teams
C)problem-solving teams
D)self-managed teams
Q2) What can you do as an HR manager to ensure that you hire ethical employees?
Q3) Johnson & Johnson has a corporate ethics code that states "We believe our first responsibility is to the doctors, nurses and patients, to mothers and fathers and all others who use our products and services." What is the most likely purpose of Johnson & Johnson's ethics code?
A)establishing disciplinary procedures
B)providing incentives for employees
C)clarifying expectations for employees
D)marketing to potential new customers
Q4) The standards an individual uses to decide what his or her conduct should be are known as social responsibility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining
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Q1) In a brief essay, discuss some of the reasons for declining union membership. Do you think this is good or bad for the U.S. economy and U.S. businesses? Why?
Q2) Ignoring bargaining items is a good strategy for negotiating with labor unions while staying within the limits of good faith bargaining.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes a "yellow dog" contract?
A)As a condition of employment, an employee agrees not to picket.
B)Employers agree to give union members preference in hiring.
C)As a condition of employment, an employee agrees to not join a union.
D)Employers agree to abide by the guidelines of the local labor unions.
Q4) What third-party interventions are available to handle an impasse during collective bargaining? Discuss each type of intervention in a brief essay.
Q5) It is acceptable for an employer to refuse to hire union members even if they are qualified for the position because they might be union salts.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Safety, Health, and Risk Management
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Q1) Data entry specialists and assembly line workers are most susceptible to ________.
A)repetitive motion disorders
B)workplace violence
C)job stress
D)burnout
Q2) David is experiencing significant levels of job stress in his position as vice president of marketing. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a consequence of David's stress?
A)headaches
B)cancer
C)depression
D)heart disease
Q3) According to OSHA, employers must report occupational injuries that result in any of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)first aid treatment
B)loss of consciousness
C)restriction of motion
D)transfer to another job
Q4) What is OSHA and how does it help protect workers?
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Chapter 17: Managing Global Human Resources
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely NOT covered by kidnapping and ransom insurance policies?
A)abductions
B)ransoms
C)crisis teams
D)weapons
Q2) The top driver of employee engagement around the globe is career opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One negative of expatriates is that they can focus too much on short-term results.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the meaning of ethnocentrism, polycentrism, and geocentrism and how those values might affect a multinational company's staffing policy.
Q5) What staffing options do multinational firms have when filling positions in foreign subsidiaries?
Q6) In a brief essay, discuss the economic and labor relations factors that are unique to Europe.
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Chapter 18: Managing Human Resources in Small and Entrepreneurial Firms
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Q1) Which of the following is the most likely result of treating family and non-family employees at a small business differently?
A)communication difficulties
B)benefits discrepancies
C)union involvement
D)poor morale
Q2) All of the following are reasons that firms install human resource information systems EXCEPT ________.
A)worker performance monitoring
B)online self-processing
C)transaction processing
D)system integration
Q3) The Pension Protection Act of 2006 primarily benefits small business employers by
A)allowing them to defer tax payments
B)eliminating fees linked to retirement plans
C)exempting employers from complex pension rules
D)making contributions for employers and employees into IRA plans
Q4) How does HR management differ in small and large firms?
Page 20
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