Earth Science Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Earth Science is an interdisciplinary field that examines the physical constitution and dynamic processes of the Earth. This course explores the four main branches: geology, meteorology, oceanography, and astronomy, providing an integrated understanding of how Earth's systems interact. Students will investigate topics such as plate tectonics, the rock cycle, weather patterns, natural hazards, earth materials, and the impact of human activities on the planet. Through lectures, practical activities, and case studies, the course aims to foster scientific inquiry and awareness of Earths role in shaping the environment and supporting life.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
Sustainability - on the Road to Collapse: What Lessons Can We Learn From a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) What does it mean when an environmental issue is a wicked problem?
A) It is created by people who only care about themselves.
B) It is global in nature.
C) It involves trade-offs that not everyone will be happy with.
D) It is a problem that cannot be solved.
E) None of the above describes wicked problems.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a sustainable ecosystem?
A) It uses renewable energy.
B) It eliminates waste by reusing matter.
C) It contains species that all depend on the same limited resource.
D) It recycles matter.
E) Local biodiversity is present to perform essential ecosystem processes.
Answer: C
Q3) What is environmental science, and what fields of study does it rely on?
Answer: Environmental science is an interdisciplinary field of research that draws on the natural (for example, ecology) and social sciences (for example, anthropology) and the humanities (for example, literature) in order to understand the natural world and our relationship to it.
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) The _______________ was an international treaty, eventually ratified by all countries in 2009, which dealt with the problem of ozone depletion.
A) Quebec Protocol
B) Montréal Protocol
C) CFC Protocol
D) Ozone Plan
E) Global Clean Air Act
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following questions can be solved with empirical evidence?
A) Do ghosts exist?
B) What is the meaning of life?
C) What is my cat thinking?
D) What causes the changing of the seasons?
E) Is the death penalty wrong?
Answer: D
Q3) Is the following a valid hypothesis? Natural disasters around the world are a result of a supernatural deity punishing humanity for our actions.
Page 4
Answer: No. Predictions from the hypothesis are not testable nor are they falsifiable.
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) What is the relationship between persistence and biomagnification?
Answer: The longer a chemical remains in its present toxic state, the more chances an organism has to pick it up. Additionally, it is more likely that it is still toxic when that organism is eaten by another organism. If a chemical has a low persistence, it is more likely to be broken down before it passes too far through the food chain.
Q2) Why is it trickier to determine LD50 and draw dose-response curves for endocrine disruptors?
A) They are never lethal.
B) They are always lethal.
C) They only affect certain ethnic groups.
D) They may be more dangerous at low doses than at high doses.
E) They have so many natural sources.
Answer: D
Q3) What is a toxin?
Answer: A toxin is something that causes damage after exposure. For example, arsenic can leach into ground water and cause cancer and damage the nervous system. Asbestos, another good example, is found in old building materials and affects the lungs after long exposure.
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) What is total fertility rate (TFR)? How do programs such as social security, pension plans, and Medicare affect TFR?
Q2) A less developed country with a high infant mortality and extensive poverty has a total fertility rate (TFR) of 5.7. Very few women receive a secondary education, and most do not work outside the home. What pronatalist pressures can you identify? What strategies can you propose to successfully lower TFR in this country?
Q3) _________ have already undergone the demographic transition.
A) Developing countries
B) Developed countries
C) Countries with high replacement fertility rates
D) Agrarian societies
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q4) An increase in population causes all but which of the following?
A) an increased standard of living due to technology
B) land degradation
C) water supply depletion
D) water pollution
E) an impoverished environment
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Chapter
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) How would your actions of taking the entire prescription of an antibiotic potentially help individuals living on the other side of the world?
Q2) Of the top 10 causes of death in low-income countries in 2012 (Infographic 5.6), how many are likely caused by infectious disease agents like bacteria, viruses, and parasites?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) They are all caused by infectious disease agents.
Q3) Waterborne and _______ diseases are the main infectious disease threats to human health.
A) airborne
B) chemical hazard
C) vector-borne
D) physical hazard
E) biological hazard
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Q4) Why is Guinea worm disease (GWD) not a zoonotic disease?
Q5) Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD) possible?
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Chapter
Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) What is a closed-loop system? How could an automatic car wash become more cyclical in a closed-loop system?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important reason to maintain an intact ecosystem?
A) An intact ecosystem provides numerous ecosystem services.
B) An intact ecosystem can renew and recycle resources.
C) If we use more resources and goods than the ecosystem can replenish, we will not be able to receive these goods and services.
D) Our future health and well-being will be threatened.
E) All of the above are important reasons to maintain intact ecosystems.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 6.1. Approximately, what is the value of services that affect our food supply?
A) $79 billion
B) $1386 billion
C) $417 billion
D) $2100 billion
E) $2807 billion
Q4) What are the internal and external costs associated with producing paper?
Q5) What are assumptions of mainstream economics that fall short?
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Chapter 7: Managing Solid Waste- a Plastic Surf: Are the Oceans Teeming With Trash-
Ecology
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Q1) What are the characteristics of something that is nondegradable?
A) It does not degrade in normal atmospheric conditions.
B) It is mostly synthetic molecules.
C) It is chemically stable.
D) It cannot be broken down by naturally occurring enzymes.
E) All of the above choices are characteristics.
Q2) In the United States, 54% of all garbage is categorized as ___________ waste.
A) recycled paper
B) mining
C) municipal paper
D) agricultural and industrial
E) municipal metal
Q3) Refer to Infographic 7.8. What are the three required steps of recycling? Which step drives the entire process and is therefore most important?
Q4) What is hazardous waste, and why is it considered to be problematic? Discuss two ways the average person can reduce their contribution to the potential problems caused by hazardous waste.
Q5) Refer to Infographic 7.7. Use the infographic to describe an eco-industrial park and the advantages of using such innovations.
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Which of the following choices includes all of the others?
A) community
B) biome
C) biosphere
D) ecosystem
E) population
Q2) Which the following is NOT a main nutrient cycle?
A) carbon cycle
B) nitrogen cycle
C) phosphorous cycle
D) magnesium cycle
E) All of the above are main nutrient cycles.
Q3) The Earth's biomass cannot enter or leave the system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As you hike up a mountain, you observe that the vegetation changes. What are some of the limiting factors that are determining what vegetation you observe on the mountain?
Q5) What is a biome? What are the major factors that distinguish one biome from another? Page 11
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Bacteria that can cause tooth decay undergo boom-and-bust cycles based on the availability of sugars in the mouth for growth. Which of the following is(are) a resistance factor(s) affecting the sugar's carrying capacity?
A) low-sugar food choices
B) brushing teeth
C) flossing teeth
D) dental care
E) all of the above
Q2) How does maintaining the top-down regulation by wolves help in providing for diverse fish and amphibian communities in Yellowstone?
Q3) A population at low density is more likely to _____________.
A) undergo high intraspecific competition
B) lose genetic variability
C) be randomly distributed
D) show rapid rates of disease spread
E) adapt to environmental changes
Q4) Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?
Q5) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?
Page 13
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Chapter 10: Community Ecology- What the Stork Says: a
Bird Species in the Everglades Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) ______________ ecology is the science that deals with the repair of damage or disturbed ecosystems
A) Restoration
B) Remediation
C) Adaptive
D) Landscape
E) Corrective
Q2) A key goal of the Everglades restoration is to increase the amount of water flowing through the Everglades. This should lead to the restoration of the wood stork population, in part through the increase in the availability of nesting trees due to restoring the ____________ relationship between alligators and storks.
A) predator-prey
B) mutualistic
C) parasitic
D) commensal
E) competitive
Q3) Which community do you think would be more resilient to a perturbation: a community with high species richness and low species evenness or one with low species richness and high species evenness? Why?
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Which is likely not an example of coevolution?
A) A moth that has a long tongue reaches the nectar of a flower that is housed in a long tube.
B) A tree trunk growing thicker and stronger prevents breakage from hurricane force winds.
C) A caterpillar develops resistance to a toxin produced by its main plant food source.
D) A mollusk develops a thick shell to avoid predation by a crab with strong pinchers.
E) All answers could be examples of coevolution.
Q2) Protecting biodiversity is a difficult task because ________.
A) the human population is constantly rising and demanding more from the environment
B) it is often valued less than human development
C) there are many species on Earth that we do not even know exist
D) endangered and threatened species do not always rebound, even when efforts are made to protect them
E) All of the above answers are correct.
Q3) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
Q4) Describe how a population evolves by natural selection.
Page 15
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Chapter
Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) An ecosystem with high species richness but low evenness would have:
A) many different species, with each population having similar amounts of individuals in the ecosystem.
B) few species, with one population being overrepresented in the ecosystem.
C) many different species, with one population being overrepresented in the ecosystem.
D) few species, with each population having similar amounts of individuals in the ecosystem.
E) none of the above.
Q2) Which population would be the most likely to survive a disturbance in their ecosystem?
A) one with high genetic diversity
B) one with low genetic diversity
C) one with no genetic diversity
Q3) Habitat fragmentation can lead to the same loss of biodiversity as habitat destruction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast habitat destruction and habitat fragmentation.
Q5) What is the connection between endemic species and endangered species? Page 16
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) How much of Earth's total ocean area is protected to some degree?
A) 1.6%
Q2) Single-species conservation efforts would protect a species whose habitat was under constant threat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refer to Table 13.2. Which conservation method do you think would benefit an endangered species whose habitat is being destroyed?
Q4) Which are global threats to biodiversity?
A) climate change
B) introduction of invasive species
C) habitat destruction and fragmentation
D) overexploitation
E) All of the answers are global threats.
Q5) In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive? Page 18
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Chapter
14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap: a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) An aquifer that is separated by impermeable rock is called a(n) _____________ aquifer.
A) confined
B) unconfirmed
C) confirmed
D) unconfined
E) nonporous
Q2) Desalination, the process that removes ________________ from water, is _______________.
A) bacteria; cheap
B) salt and other minerals; expensive
C) pollution; a biomimicry process
D) sewage; mandated by the federal government
E) organic matter; facilitated by reverse osmosis
Q3) Refer to Infographic 14.2. Explain the steps and processes in the water cycle as water moves from the ocean to the atmosphere to land and back to the ocean.
Q4) Refer to Infographic 14.4. Explain how the deeper well to the larger house affects the water supply to each of the smaller houses.
Q5) Refer to Table 14.1. Explain how using less energy saves water. Page 20
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.
Q2) Why should we care about water pollution?
Q3) Point source pollution describes pollution sources that are always located immediately next to the contaminated water, thus making them easy to identify.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If water flows more slowly through watershed areas, will this increase or decrease the amount of pathogens found in the water that eventually flows into the ending river or lake?
Q5) Air pollution can cause water pollution.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why are point source pollution sources considered easier to "fix" than nonpoint source pollution sources?
Q7) Where can pollutants from a watershed end up?
A) in surface water
B) in groundwater
C) in both A and B
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Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) What was the Green Revolution, and was it successful? Discuss pros and cons of this approach on the environment.
Q2) What is the process of microfertilization?
A) the specific fertilization of microbes that provide nutrients to growing plants
B) the application of a small amount of fertilizer to the area directly around the seed
C) the use of only natural, non-synthetic fertilizers
D) the intentional overuse of fertilizer to prepare the soil for next year's planting
E) the use of GM organic matter that enhances plant growth
Q3) _________ are organisms that have had their genetic information modified in a way that does not occur naturally.
A) HMOs
B) PMOs
C) GMOs
D) AMOs
E) Hybrids
Q4) Why is the decreased biodiversity of high-yield varieties of crops a concern?
Q5) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional
Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) The Irish potato famine was caused by a pathogen that quickly and successfully infected and killed millions of potato plants in Ireland. Based on the speed and ability of the pathogen to infect the plants, what kind of farming technique was likely implemented by the Irish?
A) sustainable
B) organic
C) monoculture
D) CAFOs
E) strip cropping
Q2) Many advantages and disadvantages are associated with sustainable farming techniques, for the environment, the consumer, and the farmer. Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Sustainable farming is more labor intensive than traditional farming.
B) More subsidies are available for farmers who use sustainable techniques.
C) Soil is not degraded as much when sustainable agricultural techniques are used.
D) Usually organic products are more expensive to the consumer.
E) All of these answers are true statements about sustainable farming.
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Q3) Refer to Infographic 17.2. How do industrial agricultural methods lead to eutrophication and "dead zones"?
Chapter
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 18.6. Discuss some of the health affects of mining and using coal to generate electricity.
Q2) How does the use of coal cause acid precipitation?
A) The acid drainage from mining evaporates, which puts the acids into the air.
B) The burning of coal puts out gases like sulfur dioxide, which can combine with water to form acids.
C) Acids, which leach into the soil from the mining process, are transpired by plants that have taken them up.
D) The equipment used for mining releases sulfur and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
E) The transporting of the coal mining releases sulfur and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Q3) Which area of the world has the least amount of coal reserves?
A) North America
B) Africa
C) Europe
D) Australia
E) Asia
Q4) How are mountaintop removal mines typically "reclaimed"?
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Chapter 19: Oil and Natural Gas- the Bakken Oil Boom: Is Our Next Big Fuel Source Our Dirtiest- Air Pollution:
Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which of the following is probably the most compelling reason to use unconventional sources of oil and natural gas here in the United States?
A) We have a lot of them in North America.
B) They are easier to extract than conventional sources.
C) They are cleaner to burn than conventional sources.
D) Their extraction process is more environmentally friendly than conventional extraction.
E) They have a higher EROEI than conventional sources.
Q2) What is energy security, and why is it an important issue for many countries?
Q3) Pollution caused by mining unconventional energy sources can directly affect ecosystems many thousands of miles away from the mining site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which products from Infographic 19.5 can be made with tar sand reserves?
A) petroleum gas
B) gasoline
C) diesel oil
D) waxes
E) materials for roads
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines of Asthma Research
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Q1) Which of the following is a consequence of acid deposition?
A) reduced nutrient uptake by plants
B) acidified lakes
C) dying forests
D) released aluminum from soils
E) all of these answers
Q2) The World Health Organization estimates that indoor air pollution may be responsible for up to ______ or more premature deaths of women and children each year, mostly in developing nations.
A) 500,000
B) 1 million
C) 2 million
D) 3 million
E) 50 million
Q3) Refer to Infographic 20.3. Researchers at Harvard University compared death rates and particulate pollution levels in six U.S. cities. They found there was a link (correlation) between health and small particulate pollution. From this study, why is it only possible to show a correlation between health and small particulate pollution? What type of study is needed in order to show a direct cause-and-effect relationship?
Page 27
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 21.5. Sulfate aerosols are produced mostly from sulfur dioxide which arises from fossil fuel combustion. Because of their impact on air quality, including its role in acid deposition, efforts to reduce emissions, for example by using scrubbers at coal-fired power plants, have succeeded in lowering emissions. Use the infographic to determine what effect these reductions in emissions would have on climate.
Q2) Based on computer modeling of climate change, the current increase in temperatures can be attributed to natural causes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are factors that prevent migrating tree species from thriving in their new, more northerly habitats?
A) proliferation of deer
B) summer water deficits
C) beetle infestation
D) dry conditions which favor intense fires
E) all of these answers
Q4) In terms of temperature, what recent global trends have been observed?
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Q5) Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.
Chapter
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Which of the following is emitted during radioactive decay?
A) gamma radiation
B) heat
C) subatomic particles
D) energy
E) all of these answers
Q2) Radioactive isotopes are important for producing electricity because ___________________.
A) they can be converted directly into electricity
B) electrons from the isotopes are separated and used for electricity
C) the heat from their fission is used to create steam, which is converted to electricity
D) A, B, and C are correct.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q3) Disposal of radioactive waste from the generation of nuclear power is a controversial topic. Given what you know about radioactive decay, why would environmentalists be concerned about the generation of all this waste?
Q4) Discuss the safety of living near a nuclear power plant relative to living near a coal-fired power plant.
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-
Strides
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Q1) What is the most expensive form of energy from an economic standpoint?
A) coal
B) hydropower
C) geothermal energy
D) solar energy
E) wind
Q2) Why are renewable forms of energy so expensive when compared with fossil fuels? What are two cheaper ways to sustainably meet energy needs without such a huge financial input? Refer to Table 23.2 when answering this question.
Q3) A sustainable energy source has which of the following characteristics?
A) It is renewable.
B) It has a low environmental footprint.
C) It is affordable to the consumer.
D) A, B, and C are all correct.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q4) Explain why wind and water energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy.
Page 30
Q5) How is electricity produced in a dry steam geothermal power plant?
Q6) What areas are best suited for geothermal energy production, and why?
Q7) What is the "take-home message" Samsø is sending to other communities?
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Chapter 24: Urbanization- the Ghetto Goes Green: in the Bronx, Building a Better Backyard
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Q1) Which of the following is an unintended consequence of the Clean Development Mechanism?
A) the potential for developing countries to earn carbon-offset credits
B) the use of credit sales to fund renewable energy projects in developing countries
C) the oppressive command and control regulations
D) the purchase of carbon-offset credits by developed nations
E) the overproduction of greenhouse gases in order to maximize profits by destroying them
Q2) A federal highway project is proposed to connect two existing stretches of interstate. What signature feature of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) must be met prior to construction of the highway?
Q3) The findings of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, which influence various international policies regarding climate change, are based on scientific data and observation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?
Page 32
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) All of the following statements are true about the movement of the world's population EXCEPT _________________.
A) more people live in urban areas than in rural areas
B) the rate of population growth has increased since the end of the twentieth century
C) urbanization is occurring in developed, developing, and non-developed countries
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q2) The movement to rejuvenate communities, improve the quality of life, and reduce ecological footprints using such strategies as establishing urban boundaries to preserve open space and directing development toward existing communities is referred to as
A) smart growth
B) urbanization
C) infill development
D) urban flight
E) suburban sprawl
Q3) Refer to Infographic 25.4. What are some of the unwanted consequences of suburban sprawl?
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Q1) Neodymium is a key ingredient in wind turbines and hybrid car batteries because of its:
A) tendency to occur in concentrated deposits.
B) extreme magnetic ability.
C) ability to produce electric currents with very little material.?
D) A, B, and C
E) B and C
Q2) The true cost of minerals takes into account:
A) human health and human rights.
B) fuel, machinery, and labor.
C) environmental impacts.
D) A, B, and C
E) B and C
Q3) Metals are a critical part of nearly all electronic devices, largely because they are easy to shape and form and because of their ability to:
A) emit radioactivity.
B) reflect light.
C) act as insulators.
D) conduct electricity.
E) None of these answers is correct.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) How does overgrazing lead to soil erosion?
Q2) Which area seems to be at threat for major desertification?
A) New Mexico and western Texas
B) New Mexico
C) Mexico and southern Texas
D) Arizona
E) the Great Plains
Q3) Decomposers and detritivores break down organic material to help form topsoil. Which layer of soil contains the decomposers and detritivores that aid this process?
A) A horizon
B) B horizon
C) C horizon
D) R horizon
E) O horizon
Q4) Why is "planned grazing" considered an approach based on biomimicry?
Q5) What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?
Q6) Refer to Infographic 27.3. Discuss some scenarios of how the healthy grass in the first picture might begin to look like the overgrazed grass in the second picture.
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) A temperate forest __________________.
A) is characterized by evergreen species
B) covers vast tracks of land in the higher latitudes and altitudes
C) is found in tropical latitudes
D) contains deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the winter
E) is characterized by low temperatures and precipitation levels
Q2) The correct order of forest layers from the bottom to top of a forest is __________________.
A) forest floor, canopy, understory, emergent layer
B) emergent layer, forest floor, understory, canopy
C) forest floor, understory, emergent layer, canopy
D) forest floor, understory, canopy, emergent layer
E) understory, forest floor, emergent layer, canopy
Q3) The key to the regeneration of Haiti's forests is _______________________.
A) finding alternative sources of energy
B) finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income
C) changing the species used for charcoal production
D) A and B
E) all of these answers
Q4) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) A small change of 0.1 in pH for an ocean ecosystem will not have a large effect on the level of biodiversity found in that ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What benefit do corals get from their mutualistic relationship with zooxanthellae?
A) give coral their color
B) provide coral with food via sugars they make during photosynthesis
C) provide coral with a place to attach to the ocean floor
D) A, B, and C
E) only A and B
Q3) You have been given the task of monitoring the health of a coral reef. Over the years, you have documented a decrease in the biodiversity of life in the reef. What could be some of the reasons why the reef is suffering?
Q4) What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?
Q5) Zooxanthellae live inside coral cells.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the complex relationship that coral have with zooxanthellae ("zooks").
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Chapter 30: Rare Earth Elements: a Bevy of Unfamiliar
Minerals Are Crucial for Our Everyday
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Q1) In terms of energy inputs required for raising beef, compare the industrial model, where cattle are fed grains, with a "grass-fed" model, where animals graze on pastureland. When considering agricultural policy, which method is more sustainable?
Q2) According to Infographic 30.5, the incidence of E. coli foodborne illness in the United States has trended toward the set goal of no more than 0.6 cases per 100,000. What are some preharvest and postharvest strategies used in the beef industry to reduce E. coli contamination?
Q3) ___________ affects diet by increasing the demand for animal food products.
A) Affluence
B) A food recall
C) Eating lower on the food chain
D) Use of antibiotics
E) Poverty
Q4) According to journalist and sustainable-food advocate Michael Pollan, "Cheap food is dishonestly priced. It is, in fact, unconscionably expensive." What does this mean for beef production and consumption in the United States, and what can be done about it?
Q5) Do sustainable animal rearing methods address the disadvantages of CAFOs?
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Q6) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.
Chapter
Soil and Grassland Resources
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 31.3. What can cause a marine food pyramid to look like the one shown in the figure? What effects can it have on the fishing industry and on the ability of top-trophic-level fish to recover?
Q2) The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act is the primary law in the United States that governs marine fisheries. The act and subsequent amendments focus on________.
A) rebuilding overfished fisheries
B) protecting ecosystems
C) reducing bycatch
D) catch share programs
E) all of these answers
Q3) One of the major problems of managing marine fisheries is the amount of illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing. It is estimated that the revenue from these practices is _______ dollars annually.
A) 1 to 5 million
B) 50 to 100 million
C) 1 to 5 billion
D) 4 to 9 billion
E) 20 to 30 billion
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to Recovering the
May Be a Surprising One
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Q1) Globally, food crops are being displaced by biofuel crops. Crops that normally were grown for either human or animal consumption are instead being grown for fuel. This switch has resulted in price increases and food riots. Which of the following crops has caused the most issues when switched from a food crop to a biofuel crop?
A) corn
B) wheat
C) potato
D) rice
E) soybean
Q2) Because of a process called carbon sequestration, switchgrass harvested for biofuel is actually carbon negative.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What unintended consequence(s) could arise from government subsidies, tax breaks, or mandates that support biofuel production?
Q4) What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?
Q5) Explain the outcome of David Tilman's research and what it meant for biofuel crops.
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