Earth and Space Science Question
Bank
Course Introduction
Earth and Space Science offers a comprehensive exploration of the physical processes that shape our planet and the universe beyond. This course investigates Earth's structure, composition, and dynamic systems, including the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere, and examines how these systems interact to drive phenomena such as weather, climate, and plate tectonics. Additionally, students will study the solar system, stars, galaxies, and cosmology, fostering an understanding of the origin and evolution of celestial bodies. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, evidence-based reasoning, and the interdependence between human activity and Earth's systems, preparing students to evaluate contemporary issues like natural hazards and space exploration.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
2941 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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94 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19903
Sample Questions
Q1) The four extra minutes in the solar day are due to our ________ around the Sun.
Answer: revolution
Q2) If the angular diameter of an object is 15 arc seconds and it is 1.4 billion kilometers away,how big is its physical size? Show how you arrived at your answer.
Answer: Use the equation above Example 3 in More Precisely 1-2 to complete the calculation.15" = 15/60/60 degrees = 1/240 degree (about 0.0042 degrees).Then the diameter = distance × angular size / 57.3 degrees = 1.4 × 10 km × 1/240 / 57.3 100,000 km.
Q3) The place the Sun stops its northward motion along the ecliptic is the:
A) equator.
B) prime meridian.
C) summer solstice.
D) vernal equinox.
E) node of the ecliptic.
Answer: C
Q4) If Sirius transits my local meridian tonight at 6:43 PM,when will it transit tomorrow?
Answer: At 6:39 PM tomorrow night,as the Earth spins once in a sidereal day.
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Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) We are at ________ in January,when we are closest to the Sun in our elliptical orbit. Answer: perihelion
Q2) Newton's Law of Gravity would explain why Saturn,so far from the Sun,moves so slowly across the sky.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Explain how Kepler's laws allow us to use the motion of an asteroid to find its average distance from the Sun.
Answer: By watching it long enough to find its period of revolution around the Sun,we can use Kepler's third law to get the average distance by squaring the period in years,then finding the cube root of this value for the average distance of the asteroid from the Sun in astronomical units.
Q4) Kepler based his theories on the precise planetary observations of Tycho Brahe. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a beam of blue light has a wavelength of 400 nm is emitted by an object moving away from you at 1% of the speed of light,what wavelength would you see from this light?
A) 396 nm
B) 399 nm
C) 400 nm
D) 401 nm
E) 404 nm
Answer: A
Q2) X-ray telescopes are located in orbit around the Earth because:
A) X-ray telescopes on Earth would have to be too big.
B) X-ray telescopes are cheap and easy to launch into space.
C) there are too many X-ray telescopes on Earth, so now they are put in space.
D) X-rays don't reach the surface of Earth.
E) the X-rays that come out of the telescopes are dangerous to humans.
Answer: D
Q3) Why can't we be certain that the Andromeda Galaxy exists today?
Answer: Since it lies 2.5 million light years distant,the most recent image we have is still 2.5 million years out of date,so we cannot prove it is still there.It probably is,though.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe two ways light can be separated out into its component colors in detail for spectroscopic analysis.
Q2) The radial velocity of a star's motion in space can also broaden its spectral lines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these is the classic continuous spectrum?
A) sunlight
B) a rainbow
C) a neon light
D) a fluorescent light
E) a glowing nebula, such as M-42
Q4) Why are molecular lines usually found in infrared and radio regions,not as visible lines?
Q5) The Doppler effect can reveal the rotation speed of a star by the splitting of the spectral lines.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How can Kirchhoff's Laws be used to deduce something about the nature of the light source?
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary purpose of a telescope is to:
A) collect a large amount of light and bring it into focus.
B) magnify distant objects.
C) separate light into its component wavelengths.
D) make distant objects appear nearby.
E) measure the brightness of stars very accurately.
Q2) Why doesn't the Hubble Space Telescope need adaptive optics?
Q3) Galaxies look the same whether viewed in visible or X-ray wavelengths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) CCD detectors gather light 10-20 times faster than the most sensitive photographic film.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The light gathering ability of a telescope is most dependent on the diameter of its primary objective.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ is a measure of the stability of the atmosphere,usually degraded by turbulent currents in the air.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly outline the theory or hypothesis which best explains the origin of the solar system.
Q2) An alternative to the core-accretion theory that explains the formation of the jovian planets is the:
A) differentiation theory.
B) collision theory.
C) gravitational instability theory.
D) Big Bang theory.
E) nebular contraction theory.
Q3) Which spacecraft gave or is giving us our best information about Mercury?
A) Pioneer 10
B) Mariner 10
C) Voyager I
D) Viking 2
E) Messenger
Q4) Accretion occurred sooner in the inner part of the solar system than it did in the outer regions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In terms of ________,all the terrestrials are greater than any of the jovians.
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Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Like other solid bodies in the solar system,Earth's surface was kept molten by:
A) radioactivity.
B) differentiation.
C) convection.
D) bombardment by small bodies.
E) the solar nebula.
Q2) Name two consequences of the Earth's magnetic field detected from space.
Q3) Earth's magnetic field:
A) prevents charged particles in the solar wind from reaching the surface.
B) is a remnant of the solar nebula's magnetic field.
C) is weakening the Van Allen radiation belts.
D) is the force behind plate tectonics.
E) lines intersect the atmosphere at the equator.
Q4) When strong solar winds are displaced poleward by our magnetic fields,we get:
A) the Van Allen radiation belts.
B) intense auroral displays.
C) sunspots.
D) hurricanes in the tropics.
E) droughts and dust bowls in the American West.
Q5) The auroral displays occur in our ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major surprise from space exploration is that ________ exists at the poles of both Mercury and our Moon.
Q2) Ice is widely observed in the dark floors of many craters all over the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is it so difficult to observe the planet Mercury from Earth?
Q4) The scarps on Mercury are extremely similar to the cratered lunar highlands in appearance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The composition of Mercury's crust is:
A) deficient in volatile compounds that contain elements such as sulfur and potassium. B) consistent with material from the solar wind, indicating that Mercury has collected material over the last few billion years.
C) similar to the crust of the other terrestrial planets.
D) nearly identical to Mercury's mantle material.
Q6) Why was the discovery of a substantial magnetic field around Mercury a surprise? How was it detected?
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atmosphere of Venus is about 95% ________.
Q2) What is thought to have caused the craters on Venus?
A) Most are volcanic in origin; some are due to meteoritic impacts.
B) As in the case of Mercury, all the craters are due to meteorite impacts.
C) Because meteorites cannot survive passing through the atmosphere of Venus, all craters must be volcanic.
D) Venus has very few craters and their origin is not known.
E) Venus' craters originated during differentiation.
Q3) Various observations suggest there may be recent or even continuing volcanic activity on Venus.Which of the following has NOT been observed?
A) bursts of radio energy, similar to those produced by lightning discharges occurring in the plumes of erupting volcanoes on Earth
B) spacecraft detection over a period of days of flowing lava on Venus
C) fluctuations in the level of sulfur dioxide in the planet's atmosphere
D) surface features resembling rift valleys on Earth
E) larger shield volcanoes than Hawaii
Q4) Venus can be seen during daytime when it is near greatest brilliancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The polar caps and dust storms of Mars can be seen with Earth-based amateur telescopes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare the days,seasons,and years of Mars and Earth.
Q3) Seasonal changes in the darker surface features of Mars are due to ________.
Q4) How is the Mars Rover mission different from Global Surveyor mapping mission?
Q5) Mars' magnetic field is so weak because:
A) it spins much slower than Earth does.
B) it core may no longer be molten.
C) its core contains less iron than our own.
D) Both B and C are probable.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q6) Our Moon and Mars both have very different hemispheres.Compare them and explain why this occurred in each case.
Q7) While the red color of the Martian surface testifies to the presence of lots of iron,the weak magnetic field suggests it may not have a molten core anymore.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Jupiter were about 80 times more massive than it is,nuclear fusion should have been possible,making it a small star.What might have been the most likely effect on the Earth?
A) The gravitational pull might have prevented the Earth settling into a stable orbit, which would have prevented the development of life on Earth.
B) Jupiter's moons would have been likely to develop life, which would have competed with life on Earth.
C) The extra radiation from a second star in the solar system would have prevented life forming on Earth.
D) Jupiter's magnetic field would have been much larger, disrupting Earth's magnetic field.
E) Nothing because Jupiter is so much further from the Earth than the Sun is.
Q2) Some of Jupiter's smaller outer moons have retrograde orbits,indicating capture occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the seasons of Jupiter.
Q4) What material makes up most of Jupiter's volume,and why is it not found here?
Q5) What is the origin of Io's volcanism?
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saturn's cloud layer is over twice as thick as Jupiter's cloud layer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reason the rings of Saturn exist is because:
A) the ring material lies within the Roche limit of Saturn.
B) the gravitational influence of Titan confines them to those orbits.
C) the eruptions of Mimas' volcanoes are keeping them supplied with ice.
D) there has not been sufficient time for the ring particles to form a moon.
E) Saturn's rapid rotation is spinning material away from its equator, out into space.
Q3) Contrast the orbital eccentricity and axial tilt of Jupiter and Saturn.
Q4) What makes Mimas a distinct moon?
A) It suffered a huge meteorite impact that must have nearly shattered it.
B) It helps maintain a wide apparent gap in Saturn's rings, known as Encke's Division.
C) It has a rich atmosphere that may resemble that of the early Earth.
D) It is the largest of Saturn's moons.
E) The leading hemisphere is very dark, while the back side is bright ice.
Q5) Describe the consequences of orbital resonances between the moons of Saturn and the particles that make up that planet's ring system.
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Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) On what basis did Herschel think he had found a comet?
A) The object appeared as a small greenish disk in his telescope.
B) It appeared to be moving slightly night by night.
C) No star appeared in that position on his charts.
D) It was not a point of light, like a star should appear.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Compared with the other jovian planets,Neptune is:
A) much larger and featureless.
B) small with features similar to Jupiter.
C) small and featureless.
D) much larger with features similar to Saturn.
E) average, but featureless.
Q3) The time between equinoxes on Uranus is about:
A) 7 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 21 years.
D) 42 years.
E) 84 years.
Q4) Unlike Jupiter and Saturn,at Uranus and Neptune the ________ rotates the slowest.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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Sample Questions
Q1) On its way to Jupiter,Galileo also gave us close-ups of:
A) Mars and Venus.
B) Ceres and Vesta.
C) Gaspra and Ida.
D) Mathilde and Eros.
E) Mercury and Venus.
Q2) The Amor asteroids have orbits that:
A) stay closer to the Sun, on average, than we do.
B) stay out beyond Neptune.
C) stay sixty degrees ahead of or behind Jupiter.
D) cross the orbit of Mars, but not Earth, at perihelion.
E) cross the orbit of Earth at perihelion.
Q3) Which of the following is definitely NOT a dwarf planet?
A) Pluto
B) Makemake
C) Pallas
D) Haumea
E) Ceres
Q4) Why were the mass and density of Pluto unknown until Charon was found?
Q5) Most meteor showers occur ________,as we again intersect the comet's orbit.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT a consequence of resonance?
A) the Moon's periods of rotation and revolution are equal
B) the orbital periods of Neptune and Pluto
C) the Kirkwood Gaps in the asteroid belt
D) Venus' cloud and surface rotation rates
E) Mercury's rotation and revolution around the Sun
Q2) When looking for the radial velocity changes or "wobbles" detected due to Doppler shifts,which mass combination is most likely to be detected?
A) high mass star, high mass planet
B) high mass star, low mass planet
C) low mass star, high mass planet
D) low mass star, low mass planet
E) a high mass planet; the mass of the star is irrelevant
Q3) Most hot Jupiters are thought to have formed in the orbits they have been discovered.
A)True
B)False
Q4) None of the other stars yet studied has more than one planet orbiting it.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sun is a fairly normal star.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The vibrations of the Sun reveal information about:
A) the temperature of the core of the Sun.
B) the structure of the atmosphere of the Sun.
C) the interior structure of the Sun.
D) the production of energy in the Sun.
E) the magnetic field of the Sun.
Q3) From inside out,which is in the correct order for the structure of the Sun?
A) core, convective zone, radiative zone
B) photosphere, radiative zone, corona
C) radiative zone, convective zone, chromosphere
D) core, chromosphere, photosphere
E) convective zone, radiative zone, granulation
Q4) Granulation is the most obvious proof of solar convective energy transport.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is energy transfer from the solar interior to surface similar to a process in Earth's atmosphere?
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Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main Sequence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Star A has an absolute magnitude of 2.5 and star B has an apparent magnitude of 2.5,but star A is a main sequence star and star B is a red giant.Which statement below is correct?
A) Star A appears brighter than star B, but actually star B and star A are the same brightness.
B) Star B appears brighter than star A, but actually star B and star A are the same brightness.
C) Star A and star B appear to have the same brightness, but actually star B is brighter than star A.
D) Star A and star B appear to have the same brightness, but actually star A is brighter than star B.
E) It is impossible to determine how bright these stars are or appear to be relative to one another, given the information above.
Q2) In a large sampling of stars,the largest group represented in the H-R diagram will be the main sequence stars.Why are they so common?
Q3) The Sun's complete classification is G2V.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of electromagnetic radiation least blocked by a dark nebula is ________.
Q2) When an electron in H changes its spin from the same to the opposite direction as the proton,it:
A) emits an X-ray photon.
B) absorbs a radio wave photon.
C) emits a radio wave photon.
D) absorbs a visible light photon.
E) neither emits nor absorbs a photon.
Q3) Interstellar gas is composed of:
A) only hydrogen.
B) 90% hydrogen, 9% helium by weight.
C) 10% hydrogen, 90% helium by numbers of atoms.
D) some hydrogen, but mainly carbon dioxide.
E) ammonia, methane, and water vapor.
Q4) Explain the colors of emission nebulae.
Q5) What does the polarization of starlight tell us about the dust grains and the Galaxy?
Q6) Why can radio waves get through the dust clouds,but light is blocked?
Q7) If dark nebulae are really dark,how do we know they are there?
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Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the key factor that determines the temperature,density,radius,luminosity,and pace of evolution of a protostellar object?
A) composition of the nebula
B) rotation of the nebula
C) mass of the nebula
D) temperature of the nebula
E) magnetism of the nebula
Q2) In terms of Jupiter masses,what is the range of brown dwarfs? What are objects above and below this range called?
Q3) Stars form from a collapsing cloud that fragments into smaller and smaller pieces.This process takes about:
A) 10,000 years.
B) 25,000 years.
C) 100,000 years.
D) a few million years.
E) 100 million years.
Q4) What are thought to be some possible causes of triggering the contraction of an interstellar cloud?
Q5) What are some sources of the shock waves that initiate star formation?
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the figure above.What is the name of the path between the points labeled 13 and 14?
A) planetary nebula
B) red giant branch
C) horizontal branch
D) asymptotic giant branch
E) white dwarf
Q2) The region in the H-R Diagram where evolved,low mass stars are converting helium to carbon in their cores is the ________.
Q3) While none yet exist,in the very distant future,black dwarfs will comprise the majority of the "normal matter" of the universe.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Virtually all the carbon-rich dust in the plane of the galaxy originated in:
A) low-mass stars.
B) high-mass stars.
C) planetary nebulae.
D) white dwarfs.
E) brown dwarfs.
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Chapter 21: Stellar Explosions: Novae,Supernovae,and the
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Novae are more closely related to type II than to type I supernovae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a stellar iron core collapses,large numbers of neutrinos are formed,and then:
A) they form the neutron star.
B) they are absorbed by electrons to produce positrons.
C) they are captured to form heavy elements.
D) they are captured to form light elements.
E) they immediately pass through the core and escape to space.
Q3) Unlike supernovae,novae can explode more than once,increasing their luminosity by thousands of times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the only element in your body that was formed during the Big Bang,and not in cores of stars? Explain how you know this.
Q5) Will our Sun become a supernova? Why?
Q6) What role does the main sequence mass of the star play in the formation of heavy elements in the giant stage?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) An observer on a planet sees a spaceship approaching at 0.5c.A beam of light projected by the ship would be measured by this observer to travel at:
A) 0.25c.
B) 0.5c.
C) c.
D) 1.5c.
E) 2.5c.
Q2) Not all neutron stars can be observed as pulsars.Explain.
Q3) Very rapid time variations help establish the tiny size of many X-ray sources,showing they must be collapsed objects of some kind.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To which of these phenomena are X-ray busters most similar?
A) novae
B) planetary nebulae
C) type I supernovae
D) type II supernovae
E) hypernovae
Q5) How is the Schwartzschild radius calculated?
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why were globular clusters so vital to Harlow Shapley's success?
Q2) Harlow Shapley found the Milky Way was: A) centered on the Earth.
B) much smaller than previously thought.
C) rapidly expanding.
D) much larger than previously thought.
E) uniformly spherical in shape.
Q3) Spiral arms are regions of star formation,which accounts for their blue color. A)True
B)False
Q4) Spiral arms are thought to be sites of ________,based on the observations of red HII regions and blue-white OB associations in and around these features.
Q5) The period-luminosity relation for Cepheid variables was discovered in 1908 by: A) William Herschel. B) Henrietta Leavitt. C) Harlow Shapley. D) Heber Curtiss. E) Edwin Hubble.
Q6) We can estimate the mass of the Galaxy from observations of its ________ curve.
Q7) Why do we believe there is dark matter?
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Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) In color photos,spirals typically have ________ arms with pink H II regions.
Q2) Type I supernovae can be used to determine distances to galaxies much better than type II supernovae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Tully-Fisher relation exists between the galaxy's luminosity and its:
A) color.
B) age.
C) rotation.
D) mass.
E) size.
Q4) What type of galaxy are the two Magellanic Clouds? How do we know this visually?
Q5) Quasar's spectral lines are:
A) emission lines with large redshifts.
B) a continuum from the synchrotron radiation.
C) fuzzy absorption lines from the merged light of the billions of stars.
D) too complex for any interpretation.
E) nonexistent, the gas so hot as to be totally ionized, so no lines are seen.
Q6) What lines of evidence show that the Milky Way Galaxy is indeed a spiral galaxy?
Q7) Briefly describe how Hubble classified the galaxies visually.
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of radio galaxy that reveals its motion through the intergalactic medium is called a:
A) quasar.
B) dual lobe.
C) bi-polar jet.
D) head-tail.
E) Seyfert.
Q2) Compared to the Milky Way,how many stars are contained in the most massive galaxies?
A) two to three times as many
B) tens of times as many
C) hundreds of times as many
D) thousands of times as many
E) millions of times as many
Q3) Distant galaxies tend to be much bluer than those nearby.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On average,elliptical galaxies are much older than large spiral galaxies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The low density universe is an open one,with expansion continuing forever. A)True
B)False
Q2) Olber's Paradox is solved in part by the fact that the universe is neither infinitely large nor infinitely old.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the meaning of a "closed" universe?
A) The universe will expand forever.
B) The universe will someday stop expanding and start to collapse.
C) The universe will stop expanding in an infinite amount of time.
D) The universe is in a steady-state.
E) The universe will disappear into a white hole in time.
Q4) On the surface of a sphere the shortest distance between two points is:
A) an arc on a great circle.
B) a straight line.
C) a circle.
D) a triangle.
E) a curvy line.
Q5) What is the study of cosmology?
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19929
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe what occurred during the period of decoupling.
Q2) The universe was two minutes old when ________ started to form from deuterium fusion.
Q3) What key event took place during the atomic epoch?
A) The universe expanded and cooled enough to allow the first particles to appear.
B) The universe expanded and cooled enough for electrons to orbit protons.
C) The neutrinos were created.
D) Atoms in the universe collected to form stars and galaxies.
E) The universe underwent a brief period of rapid expansion.
Q4) Describe the separation of the superforce and the effect it had on the Universe.
Q5) Why were elements heavier than helium not produced during the Big Bang?
Q6) When new particle pairs are being created as fast as they annihilate,it is:
A) hydrostatic equilibrium.
B) thermal equilibrium.
C) the threshold equilibrium.
D) the cosmological constant.
E) the critical density.
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Q7) The ________ epoch has dominated the last ten billion years of universal evolution.
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Chapter
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19930
Sample Questions
Q1) What unusual discovery was made about the Murchison Meteorite?
A) It is from Mars.
B) It contains iron.
C) It contains living cells.
D) It contains amino acids.
E) It is the largest known meteorite.
Q2) The ________ habitable zone is set by the activity of the nucleus on the inside,and the rate of star formation and proper chemistry on the outside.
Q3) Most SETI searches are done at:
A) X-ray wavelengths.
B) infrared wavelengths.
C) visual wavelengths.
D) radio wavelengths.
E) gamma wavelengths.
Q4) The last step in cosmic evolution is:
A) particulate evolution.
B) stellar evolution.
C) chemical evolution.
D) biological evolution.
E) cultural evolution.
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