Disorders of Articulation and Phonology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the nature, assessment, and treatment of articulation and phonological disorders in children and adults. It covers typical versus atypical speech sound development, classification and characteristics of speech sound disorders, and relevant theoretical models. Students will learn about etiological factors, diagnostic procedures, and evidence-based intervention strategies, emphasizing both traditional and phonological approaches. The course also incorporates case studies and practical activities to develop clinical decision-making skills for effective management of individuals with articulation and phonological difficulties.
Recommended Textbook Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann
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24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the Passavant's ridge located?
A)Hard palate
B)Posterior pharyngeal wall
C)Nose
D)Tongue
E)Upper lip
Answer: B
Q2) What structure supports the nasal tip?
A)Ala
B)Nasion
C)Nasal root
D)Nasal tip
E)Columella
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle is primarily affected by a complete cleft of the lip?
A)Superior constrictor
B)Myohyoid
C)Geniohyoid
D)Obicularis oris
E)Levator muscle
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes a Simonart's Band?
A)A partial or arrested form of a cleft lip
B)A bilateral incomplete cleft of the lip
C)A strand of soft tissue in the area of the cleft palate
D)The philtral tissue segment that is isolated due to the bilateral cleft
E)A band of placental tissue that disrupts embryological development
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
Q2) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results in Down syndrome?
A)Monosomy 22
B)Trisomy 21
C)Trisomy 23
D)Trisomy 13
E)Trisomy 16
Q2) What is the recurrence risk for parents of a child with nonsyndromic cleft lip and/or palate with their next pregnancy?
A)3% to 5%
B)25% to 50%
C)30% to 45%
D)10% to 15%
E)5% to 10%
Q3) What term is used to describe having two different alleles of a gene for a particular trait?
A)Homozygous
B)Phenotypic
C)Autosomal dominant
D)Heterozygous
E)Multifactorial
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Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When feeding an infant, a general rule of thumb to follow is that the infant should be burped after how many ounces of intake?
A)1/2 ounce
B)1 ounce
C)2 ounces
D)3 ounces
E)4 ounces
Q2) Which of the following facilitates early suckling?
A)The tongue rests in a more anterior position
B)The tongue tip protrudes past the alveolar ridge and maintains contact with the lower lip
C)The temporomandibular joint does not allow for much movement, causing the mouth opening to be small
D)a and c
E)a, b, and c
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a big factor for normal language and cognitive development?
A)Intelligence
B)Attending skills
C)Vision
D)Education of the parents
E)Hearing
Q2) Which of the following is not true about children with palate only?
A)They are more likely to have deficits in prelanguage skills than their peers.
B)They tend to have the same scores in verbal performance as in nonverbal performance on standardized tests.
C)They may receive more early stimulation than their unaffected peers.
D)They are at increased risk for syndromes.
E)They often have language and learning problems.
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cause of velopharyngeal dysfunction cannot be corrected or improved with surgery?
A)Dysarthria
B)Status post adenoidectomy
C)Cranial nerve damage
D)Hypotonia
E)Apraxia
Q2) Nasal emission is never audible on which of the following types of speech sounds?
A)Affricates
B)Vowels
C)Fricatives
D)Plosives
Q3) Maxillary advancement may improve which of the following?
A)Cul-de-sac resonance
B)Hypernasality
C)Hyponasality
D)Mixed resonance
E)Nasal emission
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When there is maxillary retrusion, what kinds of the sounds are unlikely to be affected?
A)Sibilants
B)Lingual-alveolar sounds
C)Labiodentals
D)Bilabial sounds
E)Velars
Q2) What muscle is responsible for middle ear function?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Musculus uvulae
C)Palatopharyngeous
D)Tensor veli palatini
E)Palatatoglossus
F)Superior constrictor
Q3) A deviated septum is most likely to cause which type of resonance?
A)Cul?de?sac resonance
B)Hypernasality
C)Hyponasality
D)Mixed resonance
E)Nasal emission
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Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs when one or more maxillary teeth fail to occlude with the opposing mandibular teeth?
A)Protruding maxilla
B)Crossbite
C)Posterior Crossbite
D)Open Bite
E)Ectopic Teeth
Q2) What is the term for the horizontal relationship of the upper to the lower incisors?
A)Labioversion
B)UnderJet
C)OverJet
D)Overbite
E)Diastema
Q3) During which stage of dental development would palatal orthopedics be done?
A)Infant stage 0 to 12 months)
B)Primary dentition 1 to 6 years)
C)Early mixed dentition 6 to 9 years)
D)Late mixed dentition 9 to 12 years)
E)Adolescent dentition 12 to 18 years)
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Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the birth of a child with a craniofacial anomaly more stressful than the birth of an unaffected baby?
A)There are many extra demands on parents because of medical appointments and feeding difficulties.
B)There are unspoken parental fears that the baby may die.
C)There is a higher incidence of psychiatric disorders among parents of affected children.
D)There is a resulting change in the parents' plans for future reproduction.
E)All of the above
Q2) Which syndrome is not typically associated with intellectual impairment relative to unaffected peers?
A)Apert's syndrome
B)Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Velocardofacial syndrome
E)Fetal alcohol syndrome
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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you use the nasal cul-de-sac test and you hear a difference on production of a vowel, this confirms the diagnosis of which of the following?
A)Hypernasality
B)Hyponasality
C)Cul-de-sac resonance
D)Nasal emission
E)Normal resonance
Q2) Which series of numbers is best to use when testing for hyponasality?
A)50s
B)60s
C)70s
D)80s
E)90s
Q3) What speech production can cause phoneme-specific nasal emission?
A)Glottal stop
B)Pharyngeal fricative
C)Palatal-dorsal production
D)Pharyngeal plosive
E)Velar fricative
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bilateral lip pits is indicative of what syndrome?
A)Apert syndrome
B)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
C)Van der Woude syndrome
D)Treacher Collins syndrome
E)Crouzon syndrome
Q2) The absence of a velar dimple is related to structural variation of which of the following muscles?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Superior constrictor muscles
C)Palatoglossus
D)Palatopharyngeus
E)Musculus uvulae
Q3) If you see evidence of food e.g., chocolate milk or red sauce) around the nostril area, this is an indication of which of the following?
A)Nasolabial fistula
B)Bilateral lip pit
C)Palpebral fissure
D)Oropharyngeal fistula
E)Hypertelorism
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Chapter 14: Nasometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important statistic that is obtained through nasometry?
A)Threshold percentage
B)Maximum percentage
C)Mean nasalance score
D)Fundamental frequency
E)Range
Q2) In normal speech, what is the primary determinant of the nasalance score?
A)Type of the vowels in the passage
B)Type of oral consonants in the passage
C)Percentage of high- versus low-pressure sounds in the passage
D)Person's dialect
E)Person's volume
Q3) Which of the following tests allows the assessment of nasalance by type of speech sound?
A)Zoo Passage
B)Nasal Sentences
C)SNAP test
D)Rainbow Passage
E)Turtle Passage
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Page 15
Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a pneumotachograph measure?
A)Volume of airflow
B)Rate of airflow
C)Air pressure
D)Nasal air resistance
E)Acoustics of airflow
Q2) Which of the following causes the rapid displacement of the vocal folds during speech?
A)Hypopharyngeal airflow
B)Subglottic air pressure
C)Vocal fold vibration
D)Decrease in air pressure
E)Phonation
Q3) The pressure-flow technique is ideally suited to determine the magnitude of which of the following during speech?
A)Air pressure from the lungs
B)Air pressure from nasal emission
C)Intraoral air pressure and nasal air emission
D)Subglottic air pressure
E)All of the above
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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which view shows tongue movement during speech?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
Q2) When there is greater attenuation during radiography, which of the following is true?
A)The image is near the black end of the spectrum
B)More radiation particles will reach the film
C)Fewer radiation particles will reach the image
D)There is more exposure
E)b and d
Q3) Simultaneous audio recording of speech is done with which of the following?
A)Cephalometric X-ray
B)MRI
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Ultrasound
E)c and d
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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following suggests the presence of a small velopharyngeal opening?
A)Bubbling of secretions
B)Irregularity of the posterior part of the velum
C)Irregular adenoid tissue
D)A small black circle
E)Visible airflow through the valve
Q2) Why should the morphology of the posterior pharyngeal wall be carefully examined in patients with velocardiofacial syndrome?
A)They often have very irregular adenoids, which can affect velopharyngeal closure
B)The carotid arteries can be medially displaced in the pharyngeal wall
C)They usually have a Passavant's ridge
D)They often have hypoplasia of the pharyngeal wall
E)They often have hyperplasia and irregularity of the posterior pharyngeal wall
Q3) What is the typical diameter of a pediatric scope?
A)0.5 mm
B)1 mm
C)1.7 mm
D)2.2 mm
E)3.2 mm
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Page 18
Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence
VPI
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about VPI?
A)It is a surgical disorder.
B)It can be corrected with speech therapy.
C)It requires both speech therapy and surgery.
D)It can be corrected with speech therapy if it is mild.
E)It sometimes gets better without treatment.
Q2) With regard to the timing of cleft lip repair, the "rule of 10s" includes which of the following?
A)10 months old and 10 pounds
B)10 weeks of age and 10 pounds
C)10 grams of hemoglobin
D)b and c
E)a and b
Q3) Patients with a history of cleft palate and surgical repair often demonstrate which of the following?
A)Midface retrusion
B)Class III malocclusion
C)Class II malocclusion
D)a and b
E)a and c
Page 19
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following typically causes a cant to the maxilla?
A)Crouzon syndrome
B)Apert syndrome
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Hemifacial microsomia
E)Stickler's syndrome
Q2) What is the procedure to correct an alveolar cleft?
A)Distraction
B)Corticotomy
C)Taping
D)Bone graft
E)Le Fort I
Q3) Orthognathic surgery of the maxilla cannot be performed until which of the following is well developed?
A)Maxilla
B)Maxillary sinus
C)Dentition
D)Mandible
E)Palatal arch
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most appropriate prosthetic choice for the patient who has had ablative surgery for oral cancer?
A)Palatal lift
B)Head gear
C)Speech bulb obturator
D)Quad helix device
E)Dentures
Q2) In which situations is it most appropriate to consider the use a speech appliance?
A)When there is severe velopharyngeal insufficiency
B)When the patient has primarily obligatory speech distortions
C)When the child is not stimulable for a reduction in nasality with a change in placement
D)When surgical correction is not an option
E)When the cleft of the palate is very wide
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21
Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be corrected with speech therapy when there is VPI?
A)Short utterance length
B)Placement errors
C)Nasal grimace
D)Hypernasality
E)Weak consonants
Q2) Which of the following is true about obligatory distortions?
A)They commonly occur with structural anomalies in the vocal tract.
B)They can be corrected with speech therapy.
C)Manner is maintained, but placement is altered.
D)One type of obligatory distortion is the glottal stop.
E)They always cause nasal emission.
Q3) Which of the following can be treated by starting with a /t/ sound?
A)Pharyngeal fricatives for /s/ and /z/
B)Pharyngeal plosive for velars
C)Glottal stop for plosives
D)Nasal snort for /s/ blends
E)Stopping of sibilants
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Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
Q2) Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?
A)Plastic surgeon, ENT, pedodontist
B)Surgeon, dental professional, speech-language pathologist
C)Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist
D)Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist
E)Dental professional, orthodontist, plastic surgeon
Q3) One standard requirement for meeting the ACPA standards is that each Cleft Palate Team must have which of the following:
A)Coordinator
B)Geneticist
C)Psychologist
D)Pulmonologist
E)Medical records specialist
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Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.
B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.
C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.
D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.
E)c and d
Q2) What is the primary role of the speech-language pathologist on a cleft palate surgical mission?
A)To evaluate patients for VPI
B)To determine which patients are appropriate for palate repair
C)To work with the dental professional to develop speech appliances
D)To provide speech therapy
E)To counsel the family and teach others
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Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nasal emission is most audible on which of the following sounds?
A)Nasal sounds
B)Voiceless consonants
C)Vowels
D)Voiced continuents
E)Voiced plosives
Q2) Pierre Robin sequence typically includes which of the following characteristics at birth?
A)Cleft palate, micrognathia, airway obstruction
B)Cleft palate, prognathia, glossoptosis
C)Cleft palate, ankyloglossia, airway obstruction
D)Micrognathia, glossoptosis, ankyloglossia
E)Cleft lip and palate, micrognathia, glossoptosis
Q3) What procedure is best for identifying an occult submucous cleft?
A)A visual inspection of the velum
B)Palpation of the velum
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Nasopharyngoscopy
E)Nasometry
Page 25
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