Diagnostic Reasoning Test Questions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Reasoning is an essential course that equips students with the foundational skills to systematically collect, interpret, and analyze clinical data in order to make accurate medical diagnoses. The course emphasizes a structured approach to the diagnostic process, teaching students to integrate patient history, physical examination findings, and diagnostic test results. Using case-based learning, students practice formulating differential diagnoses and selecting appropriate investigative strategies while considering factors such as disease prevalence, patient context, and likelihood ratios. Critical thinking, problem-solving, and evidence-based decision-making are highlighted throughout, preparing students to navigate the complexities of clinical uncertainty and deliver high-quality patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: C
Q2) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________.
Answer: idiopathic
Many diseases are idiopathic in nature.
Q3) A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake.This is an example of A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of A) catecholamines.
B) ACTH.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) immune cytokines.
E) TSH.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) Allostasis is best defined as A) steady state.
B) a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism. C) the process by which the body heals following disease.
D) the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
Q2) The phase of cellular metabolism in which energy is released during breakdown of nutrient sources is ________.
Answer: CATABOLISM
Catabolism involves energy release via breakdown of nutrient sources such as glucose to provide ATP to the cell.In contrast, anabolism refers to energy-using processes that result in complex molecules such as fats.
Q3) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except A) ischemic injury from vasoconstriction.
B) peripheral nerve damage from rebound vasodilation.
C) decreased blood viscosity.
D) crystallization of cellular components.
Q2) The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the A) membrane.
B) DNA.
C) RNA.
D) ribosomes.
Q3) Carbon monoxide injures cells by A) destruction of cellular membranes.
B) reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.
C) promotion of free radicals.
D) crystallization of cellular organelles.
Q4) Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.
A) coagulative
B) caseous
C) liquefactive
D) fat
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein synthesis involves
A) direction from mRNA.
B) amino acid movement into the nucleus.
C) nucleotide triplets.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) removal of introns from the DNA template.
Q2) Calcium channel blocker drugs are often used to treat conditions associated with
A) cardiac muscle.
B) smooth muscle.
C) epithelial tissue.
D) nervous tissue.
E) connective tissue.
Q3) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes
A) high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation.
D) mental retardation is inevitable.
Q2) The primary factor associated with risk of Down syndrome is
A) family history of heritable diseases.
B) exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms.
C) maternal alcohol intake.
D) maternal age.
Q3) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is due to the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is a single gene disorder that primarily affects
A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
Q2) Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass.The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is
A) high-fat diet.
B) urban pollutants.
C) stressful lifestyle.
D) cigarette smoking.
Q3) Tumor markers
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method of disease transmission is
A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
Q2) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following?
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic
Q3) The term used to describe fungal infections is
A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active immunity involves
A) injection of preformed human antibodies.
B) injection of human immune globulin.
C) injection with preformed animal antibodies.
D) vaccines with dead or altered organisms.
E) active infections.
Q2) Activation of the complement cascade results in
A) antibody production.
B) inflammation.
C) immunosuppression.
D) autoimmunity.
E) chemotaxis.
Q3) Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection?
A) Increased (band) neutrophils.
B) Elevated temperature.
C) Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
D) Elevated WBC count.
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Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is A) DiGeorge.
B) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
C) Wiskott-Aldrich.
D) selective IgA.
Q2) A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis.This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q3) Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because
A) massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.
B) toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function.
C) anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating.
D) hypoxia due to bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which A) there is a high rejection rate.
B) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor.
C) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin.
D) stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with stage IIA Hodgkin disease.This patient's clinical stage was most likely determined by A) patient history.
B) lymph node biopsy.
C) laparotomy results.
D) CT scan.
E) physical examination.
Q3) The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called
A) bcr-abl.
B) Rb.
C) p53.
D) ARA-c.
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
A) HIV type 1
B) HIV type 2
C) HIV type A
D) HIV type B
Q2) The CDC defines three CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell categories of T cell ranges.Which values are correct?
A) In category 1, the CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell count is greater than or equal to 500/ml.
B) In category 1, the CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell counts range from 200 to 499/ml.
C) In category 2, the CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell counts range from 200 to 499/ml.
D) In category 3, the CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell count is less than 200/ml.
E) In category 3, the CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell count is less than 300/ml.
Q3) Which modes of transmission occur with HIV infection?
A) Sexual transmission
B) Parenteral transmission
C) Fomite transmission to intact skin
D) Perinatal transmission to fetus
E) Inhalant transmission
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hapten mechanisms are found in which medications?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Narcotics
C) Penicillin
D) Cephalosporins
E) Tetracycline
Q2) Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of A) glucose.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) acetyl coenzyme A.
Q3) Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum
A) hemoglobin.
B) methemoglobin.
C) bilirubin.
D) erythropoietin.
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before ____ years of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prothrombin time (PT)and INR (International Normalized Ratio)measure the integrity of
A) platelet function.
B) extrinsic pathway.
C) intrinsic pathway.
D) fibrinolysis.
Q2) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q3) What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators?
A) Factor X
B) Factor XII
C) HMWK
D) Kallikrein
E) Thrombin
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which causes vasoconstriction?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Calcium channel blocker
C) a-Adrenergic antagonist
D) Acetylcholine
Q2) Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
A) Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
Q3) The primary functions of the circulatory system are
A) transport oxygen.
B) transport nutrients.
C) remove metabolic waste.
D) reabsorb leaking fluid.
E) return leukocytes to the circulation.
Q4) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Q5) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Q6) The relationship between blood flow and resistance is a(n)________ one.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors block the A) release of rennin.
B) conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C) conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
D) effect of aldosterone on the kidney.
Q2) Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for A) stroke.
B) cognitive impairment.
C) death.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) urinary retention.
Q3) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q4) Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension. A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q5) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Q6) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In lead II of a normal electrocardiogram (ECG), the Q wave is a downward deflection resulting from ________ depolarization.
A) atrial
B) apical
C) lateral wall
D) septal
Q2) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Q3) A vessel that normally contains desaturated (venous)blood is the
A) bronchial artery.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) pulmonary vein.
D) coronary artery.
Q4) Creatine phosphate is
A) a waste product of cellular metabolism.
B) synthesized when ATP levels are high.
C) enzymatically degraded to form creatine kinase.
D) an indicator of myocardial cell damage.
Q5) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q6) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience A) syncope.
B) hypertension.
C) increased pulse pressure.
D) peripheral edema.
Q2) While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).What is the significance of this finding?
A) Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.
B) Measures to decrease LDL levels in the elderly would be unlikely to affect the progression of this disease.
C) Increased LDL levels are indicative of moderate alcohol intake, and patients should be advised to abstain.
D) Elevated LDL levels are an expected finding in the elderly and therefore are not particularly significant.
Q3) A reduction in _________ production after birth contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in patent ductus arteriosus.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about the incidence of heart failure?
A) Heart failure affects about 2 million Americans.
B) Heart failure is the fastest-growing cardiac disorder.
C) There are more than 400,000 new cases of heart failure diagnosed each year in the United States.
D) The increasing incidence and hospitalization rates of heart failure reflect the aging population in the United States.
E) The incidence of heart failure is 10 per 1000 population after age 65.
Q2) Left-sided heart failure is characterized by
A) pulmonary congestion.
B) decreased systemic vascular resistance.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) peripheral edema.
Q3) Dysrhythmias are significant since they
A) are an indicator of life span.
B) can indicate an underlying disorder.
C) can impair venous return.
D) increase the severity of heart murmurs.
E) can impair cardiac output.
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock?
A) Crystalloids
B) Vasoconstrictor agents
C) Inotropic agents
D) 5% dextrose in water
Q2) A patient experiences anaphylactic shock.The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient?
A) Stupor
B) Hypotension
C) Urticaria
D) Angioedema
E) Wheezing
Q3) _________________ is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
Q4) Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to A) decrease vascular resistance.
B) increase contractility.
C) decrease left ventricular afterload.
D) increase tissue perfusion.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surfactant is a phospholipid that reduces
A) pulmonary vascular capacitance.
B) elastic recoil force.
C) alveolar surface tension.
D) pulmonary capillary fragility.
Q2) Most of the carbon dioxide in blood is transported
A) as bicarbonate.
B) on the hemoglobin molecule.
C) as carbonic acid.
D) dissolved in plasma.
Q3) Autonomic nervous system stimulation effects on the respiratory system include
A) parasympathetic stimulation dilates airways.
B) sympathetic stimulation constricts airways.
C) sympathetic stimulation relaxes pulmonary blood vessels.
D) the autonomic system has no effect on the respiratory system.
Q4) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Croup is characterized by
A) a productive cough.
B) a barking cough.
C) an inability to cough.
D) drooling, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing.
Q2) The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by
A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased expiratory flow rates.
C) increased residual lung volumes.
D) decreased chest wall compliance.
Q3) Which is true about epiglottitis?
A) Is usually caused by H. influenzae type B
B) Can be caused by bacterial infection
C) Usually occurs in children
D) Is characterized by pain with swallowing
E) Generally resolves without intervention
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called
A) tension pneumothorax.
B) open pneumothorax.
C) pleural effusion.
D) empyema.
Q2) Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia due to A) cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
B) upper airway obstruction.
C) accumulation of alveolar exudates.
D) interstitial edema.
Q3) Empyema is defined as an A) exudative bronchitis.
B) infection in the pleural space.
C) infection localized in the lung.
D) infection in the blood.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient
A) takes very large doses of vitamin D to supplement during chemotherapy for breast cancer.
B) has fatty stools from taking an OTC weight loss product that decreases absorption of fat.
C) has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics.
D) experiences anorexia and chronic oliguric renal failure.
Q2) Causes of hypomagnesemia include A) hyperphosphatemia.
B) chronic alcoholism.
C) oliguric renal failure.
D) clinical dehydration.
Q3) An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized)is associated with A) hypokalemia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by A) hypoventilation.
B) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide.
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion.
D) hyperventilation.
Q2) The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is A) hemoglobin.
B) albumin.
C) bicarbonate.
D) phosphate.
Q3) Respiratory acidosis is associated with A) increased carbonic acid.
B) hypokalemia.
C) increased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased pH.
Q4) Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by A) hypernatremia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypokalemia.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level is affected by A) protein intake.
B) fat intake.
C) fluid intake.
D) catabolism.
E) renal function.
Q2) An important sign of glomerular basement membrane dysfunction is A) proteinuria.
B) hematuria.
C) glycosuria.
D) urinary casts.
Q3) The main driving force for glomerular filtration is
A) oncotic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
B) hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries.
C) permeability of the glomerular membrane.
D) solute content of the blood in the glomerular capillaries.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to E.coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is
A) urinary retention and reflux.
B) nephrotic syndrome.
C) respiratory disease.
D) glomerulonephritis.
Q2) The most common direct cause of acute pyelonephritis is
A) urine obstruction.
B) systemic bacteremia.
C) urethral catheterization.
D) infection by E. coli.
Q3) Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Hydroureter
C) Incontinence
D) Polycystic kidney disease
Q4) The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
A) infection of the glomerular capsule secondary to a urinary tract infection.
B) immune system damage to the glomeruli.
C) hydronephrosis resulting from kidney stones.
D) Streptococcus infection that migrates from the bloodstream to the glomerulus.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
A) insufficient filtration of bicarbonate ions at the glomerulus.
B) excessive production of respiratory and metabolic acids.
C) insufficient metabolic acid excretion due to nephron loss.
D) hypoventilation secondary to uremic central nervous system depression.
Q2) A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is
A) decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
B) decreased serum sodium.
C) metabolic alkalosis.
D) increased serum creatinine.
Q3) The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in the United States is
A) hypotension.
B) hypovolemia.
C) renal artery stenosis.
D) sepsis.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
Q5) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urge incontinence is often due to A) aging.
B) bladder infections.
C) obesity.
D) prostate enlargement.
E) diuretics.
Q2) Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called A) mixed incontinence.
B) enuresis.
C) stress incontinence.
D) overflow incontinence.
Q3) A patient has ureteral colic.The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is A) severe flank pain. B) vomiting.
C) pink-tinged urine. D) chills and fever.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
Q2) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q3) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q5) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is
Q2) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q4) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the ________ of the disease.
Q5) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as _______.
Q6) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
Q2) During the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium proliferates under the influence of A) estrogen.
B) testosterone.
C) progesterone.
D) hCG.
Q3) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes, tachycardia, palpitations, and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
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34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom would be manifested in a woman diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Excessive vomiting
B) Proteinuria
C) Peripheral edema
D) Increased arterial pressure
E) Hemorrhage
Q2) It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
A) commonly progresses to breast cancer.
B) may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.
C) is characterized by painless breast lumps.
D) is a contraindication for progesterone birth control pills.
Q3) Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.
A) Papanicolaou.
B) human papillomavirus.
C) gonorrhoeae.
D) vaginal pH.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q2) Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy?
A) Syphilis
B) Nongonococcal cervicitis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Molluscum contagiosum
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
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36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption of glucose and amino acids across the intestinal epithelium occurs by A) endocytosis.
B) ATP-driven transporters.
C) sodium-dependent carriers.
D) passive diffusion.
Q2) The action of bile is to
A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
Q3) How much fluid is secreted from the intestinal glands daily?
A) 1/2 liter
B) 1 liter
C) 2 liters
D) 4 liters
Q4) Older individuals may experience which change in the mouth?
A) Increase in salivation
B) Increase in taste for salt
C) Increase in the number of papillae
D) Increased exposure of dentin
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Q2) A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates A) peritonitis.
B) mechanical bowel obstruction.
C) perforated bowel.
D) functional bowel obstruction.
Q3) What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client's report of dysphagia?
A) Nasal regurgitation
B) Airway obstruction with swallowing
C) Chest pain during meals
D) Coughing when swallowing
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to
A) prevent abdominal distention.
B) remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
C) prevent hyperglycemia associated with loss of insulin secretion.
D) prevent mechanical obstruction of the intestine.
Q2) Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.
A) gangrene
B) infection
C) distention
D) inflammation
Q3) It is true that gallstones are
A) a minimal risk for Native Americans.
B) more common in women.
C) more common in men.
D) at highest risk among Asians.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confusion, subtle behavioral changes, no liver flap
A)Grade 1
B)Grade 2
C)Grade 3
D)Grade 4
Q2) Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA)is
A) hepatitis D.
B) autoimmune hepatitis.
C) hepatitis A.
D) hepatitis B.
Q3) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with
A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that lipid-soluble hormones are
A) transported in a free state in the bloodstream.
B) bound to receptors on the plasma membranes of target cells.
C) diffused through cell membranes to activate intracellular receptors.
D) activated by second-messenger cascades within the target cell.
Q2) Which hormone is highly bound to carrier proteins in the bloodstream?
A) Thyroid hormones
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Parathyroid hormone
Q3) An example of a secondary endocrine disorder is
A) pituitary hyposecretion of TSH.
B) adrenal insufficiency following adrenalectomy.
C) congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
D) pheochromocytoma.
Q4) Oversecretion of ACTH occurs in
A) Cushing disease.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?
A) No change in serum glucocorticoid level
B) An increase in serum glucocorticoid level
C) A decrease in serum glucose level
D) An increase in serum ACTH level
Q2) A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)is
A) hypovolemia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) decreased osmolality.
D) dehydration.
Q3) An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to A) decreased serum osmolality.
B) dehydration.
C) hypervolemia.
D) hyponatremia.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 1 diabetes is A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) lack of insulin receptors.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
Q2) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q3) A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is A) acetone breath.
B) warm, dry skin.
C) tremors.
D) hyperventilation.
Q4) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 2 diabetes is A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) insulin resistance and b-cell dysfunction.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metabolic response to fever is
A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
Q2) The postoperative energy requirement can increase ____ above BMR.
A) 7%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) 15% to 30%.
D) 50%.
Q3) Malnutrition affecting the respiratory system can lead to
A) increased respiratory function.
B) increased surfactant release.
C) increased vital capacity.
D) respiratory failure.
Q4) Which patient is at highest risk for severe negative nitrogen balance?
A) Postsurgical patient
B) Postburn patient
C) Posttrauma patient
D) Postsepsis patient
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The language center in most individuals is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) left hemisphere.
C) right hemisphere
D) limbic area.
Q2) Exocytosis of neurotransmitter in response to depolarization of the presynaptic nerve membrane is mediated by
A) neurotransmitter binding to presynaptic carrier proteins.
B) potassium influx through voltage-gated channels.
C) sodium-potassium ATPase.
D) calcium influx through voltage-gated channels.
Q3) Which are functions of neuroglia?
A) Generation of action potential
B) Modulation of ionic composition of extracellular fluid in the brain
C) Production of CSF
D) Phagocytosis of wastes within the CNS
E) Slowing the rate of conduction to the nerve axons
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45
Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebral aneurysm is most frequently the result of A) embolic stroke.
B) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
C) subdural hemorrhage.
D) meningitis.
Q2) A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 12
D) 15
Q3) Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include A) cortical blindness.
B) right visual field blindness.
C) expressive and receptive aphasia.
D) left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.
Q4) The stroke etiology with the highest morbidity and mortality is A) intracranial hemorrhage.
B) intracranial thrombosis.
C) intracranial embolization.
D) cardiac arrest.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that Bell palsy is a
A) permanent facial paralysis after stroke.
B) painful neuropathic pain affecting the trigeminal nerve.
C) paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
D) herpetic outbreak in a facial dermatome.
Q2) The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including
A) deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.
B) degeneration of basal ganglia.
C) hypertrophy of frontal lobe neurons.
D) significant aluminum deposits in the brain.
Q3) Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy?
A) Birth trauma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Kernicterus
D) Prenatal maternal infection
E) Scoliosis
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
Q2) Opacification of the lens is commonly referred to as A) hyperopia.
B) glaucoma.
C) presbyopia.
D) cataract.
Q3) Myopia is due to an error of light refraction in which A) light rays are scattered as they pass through the cornea.
B) the focal point of an image is behind the retina.
C) far vision is impaired.
D) accommodation is impaired.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
Q2) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
Q3) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers suggest a mediating role between the later development of schizophrenia and
A) prenatal radiation exposure.
B) prenatal influenza exposure.
C) childhood vaccinations.
D) childhood chickenpox.
Q2) Mania and depression are both characterized by
A) high energy and hyperactivity.
B) poor appetite.
C) hopelessness.
D) altered decision-making ability.
Q3) Which manifestation is characteristic of the "positive" symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Social withdrawal
B) Flat affect
C) Lack of speech
D) Hallucinations
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
Q2) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety
Q3) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moderate stretching of a muscle at rest results in a(n)
A) more forceful contraction when stimulated.
B) inefficient use of ATP.
C) more rapid onset of muscle fatigue.
D) reduced force of contraction.
Q2) The neurotransmitter released from the a-motor neuron at the motor end plate is A) norepinephrine.
B) epinephrine.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
Q3) It is true that synovial fluid
A) is found in spinal disks.
B) provides protection.
C) is reduced in volume with injury.
D) becomes thinner with aging.
Q4) A concentric contraction results in A) muscle shortening.
B) no change in muscle length.
C) muscle lengthening.
D) muscle damage.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is A) rickets.
B) osteosarcoma.
C) Paget disease.
D) osteopenia.
Q2) Bone healing may be impaired by A) excessive vitamin C.
B) nicotine use.
C) a high-protein diet.
D) immobilization.
Q3) Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include A) generalized pain.
B) sensitivity to heat.
C) headaches.
D) fatigue.
E) sleep disturbance.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by A) bacterial infection.
B) trauma.
C) autoimmune injury.
D) congenital hypermobility.
Q2) The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called
A) tophaceous gout.
B) gouty arthritis.
C) complicated gout.
D) asymptomatic hyperuricemia.
Q3) Prosthetic joint infection is most often due to A) defective replacement material.
B) injury to the joint.
C) hematogenous transfer.
D) arthritis.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding is characteristic of oral candidiasis?
A) Silvery plaques on the skin
B) Itching, oozing rash
C) Thickened, discolored nails
D) Whitish coating on the tongue
Q2) The difference between chickenpox and measles is that chickenpox
A) is caused by a virus, whereas measles is caused by a bacterium.
B) causes a widespread rash, whereas measles causes a macular rash.
C) is a childhood infection, but measles can evolve into shingles in adults.
D) causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash.
Q3) A 4-year-old is brought to the clinic for evaluation of dry, scaly, itchy patches on the face, antecubital areas, and behind the ears and knees.The skin is dry overall, and there is evidence of scratching.This is likely a case of
A) impetigo.
B) atopic dermatitis
C) psoriasis.
D) scabies.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
Q2) The most common cause of burn injuries in children is
A) house fires.
B) cigarette burns.
C) scalding with hot water.
D) contact with chemical agents.
Q3) It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets
A) promotes comfort.
B) facilitates healing.
C) prevents fluid loss.
D) promotes hypothermia.
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