Diagnostic Imaging Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Imaging is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and applications of medical imaging techniques used in the diagnosis and management of diseases. The course covers the physics, instrumentation, and clinical utilization of major imaging modalities such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Emphasis is placed on image interpretation, safety considerations, and the role of diagnostic imaging in patient care. Students will gain an understanding of the indications, contraindications, and limitations of each modality, as well as the ability to correlate imaging findings with clinical scenarios.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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1670 Verified Questions
1670 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to:
A) kVp.
B) dust.
C) collimation.
D) scatter radiation.
Answer: D
Q2) In screen-film radiography, which term is defined as the degree of blackening?
A) Optical density
B) Contrast
C) Recorded detail
D) Distortion
Answer: A
Q3) Each radiology department must write age-specific competencies to meet the standards of the:
A) CDC.
B) ASRT.
C) ARRT.
D) JCAHO.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major advantage of using collimator-mounted compensating filters is:
A) ease of use.
B) can be used for different body areas.
C) provide increased contrast and detail.
D) reduction in radiation exposure to the patient.
Answer: D
Q2) A commonly performed projection that is significantly improved with the use of a compensating filter is the AP:
A) hand.
B) skull.
C) leg.
D) thoracic spine.
Answer: D
Q3) A wedge filter would be ideal for which of the following projections?
A) AP chest
B) AP thoracic spine
C) Lateral C7-T1
D) Lateral hip
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tipping or slanting a body part slightly is termed:
A) extension.
B) eversion.
C) tilting.
D) oblique.
Answer: D
Q2) Bones provide which of the following?
1)Protection of internal organs
2)Production of red and white blood cells
3)Attachment for the skin and fat layers
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
A) AP, acute flexion
B) AP, partial flexion
C) AP oblique, medial rotation
D) AP oblique, lateral rotation
Q2) Flexing the fingers for a PA projection of the wrist causes which of the following?
A) Placement of the carpal bones farther from the IR
B) Placement of the carpal bones closer to the IR
C) Less pain for the patient when the wrist is broken
D) Greater resolution of the carpal interspaces
Q3) How many phalanges are there in the hand?
A) 14
B) 27
C) 30
D) 32
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Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the central ray directed for an inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder joint?
A) 5 degrees horizontally
B) 15 to 30 degrees horizontally
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 15 to 30 degrees cephalad
Q2) Which position of the hand will place the humerus in internal rotation?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Palm against the thigh
D) Back of the hand against the thigh
Q3) Which of the following methods best demonstrates the supraspinatus outlet (coracoacromial arch)?
A) Neer
B) Alexander
C) West Point
D) Stryker notch
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The essential projections of the calcaneus are:
1)axial (plantodorsal).
2)axial (dorsoplantar).
3)lateral (mediolateral).
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The two flat, superior surfaces of the tibia are called the:
A) tubercles.
B) malleoli.
C) condyles.
D) tibial plateaus.
Q3) Where should the central ray be directed for a PA projection of the patella?
A) \(1 / 2\) inch below the patella
B) Midpopliteal area
C) Base of the patella
D) Apex of the patella
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8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the central ray enter the patient for an AP hip?
A) The midsagittal plane (MSP) at the level of the ASIS
B) A sagittal plane 2 inches lateral from MSP at the level of the pubic symphysis
C) 2 \(1 / 2\) inches (6.4 cm) distal on a line drawn perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between ASIS and pubic symphysis
D) A sagittal plane 3 inches medial to the ASIS
Q2) Which of the following describes the direction of the central ray for an axiolateral projection of the hip (Danelius-Miller)?
1)Perpendicular to the IR
2)Perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral neck
3)Perpendicular to the long axis of the femur
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the arms be placed for a lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
A) Over the head
B) Flexed in front of the thorax
C) At right angles to the long axis of the body
D) Variable, depending on body habitus
Q2) The intervertebral foramina of the superior four lumbar vertebrae are situated how many degrees from the midsagittal plane?
A) 90
B) 15 to 20
C) 30 to 50
D) 70 to 75
Q3) How are the lower limbs positioned for the AP axial projection (Ferguson method) of the lumbosacral junction?
A) Extended
B) Flexed
C) Externally rotated
D) Internally rotated
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10
Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribs lie in an oblique plane in the thorax. How are the anterior ends situated in comparison to the posterior ends?
A) 1 inch lower
B) 1 inch higher
C) 3 to 5 inches lower
D) 3 to 5 inches higher
Q2) How is the head positioned for a PA projection of both sternoclavicular articulations?
A) On the left side
B) On the right side
C) With the forehead and nose on the table
D) With the midsagittal plane vertical
Q3) How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the sternoclavicular articulation (body rotation technique)?
A) 10 degrees
B) 20 degrees
C) 10 to 15 degrees
D) 20 to 30 degrees
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11
Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are advantages of using an SID of 72 inches for chest radiography?
1)Decreased magnification of the heart
2)Sharper outlines of the delicate lung structures
3)Greater penetration of the mediastinum
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following will be observed on a supine AP chest radiograph?
1)Clavicles projected higher
2)Lung fields appear shorter
3)All 12 ribs are seen
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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12
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which landmark is used to localize the shoulder joint for upper limb long bone measurement?
A) Superior margin of the humeral head
B) Medial margin of the glenoid fossa
C) 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
D) 2 inches inferior and medial to the superolateral border of the shoulder
Q2) Long bone measurement is most frequently used on the:
A) spine.
B) upper limbs.
C) lower limbs.
D) femora only.
Q3) Which long bone measurement technique requires three separate image receptors?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contrast media may be injected into a joint space for radiography of the menisci, cartilage, bursae, etc.?
1)Air
2)Barium
3)Iodine contrast medium
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
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14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which projection is necessary if the top of T1 and the C7-T1 interspace is not clearly demonstrated on the lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position of the cervical spine?
A) AP projection, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the thoracic spine
D) AP axial C-spine
Q2) Which projection must be evaluated before taking any other images on a trauma patient?
A) AP projection of the atlas and axis, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the C-spine, dorsal decubitus position
D) AP axial C-spine
Q3) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
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Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called:
A) parotitis.
B) angiography.
C) sialography.
D) sialostenosis.
Q2) Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?
A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual
Q3) Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q4) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organ of voice is the:
A) uvula.
B) epiglottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
Q2) Which of the following serves as a passage for both food and air?
A) Pharynx
B) Larynx
C) Trachea
D) Bronchus
Q3) Which is the most common imaging modality for examination of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx?
A) Computed radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to evaluate rotation on a KUB image?
1)Spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae should be in the center of the vertebral body.
2)Alae of the ilia are symmetric.
3)Ischial spines, if visible, are symmetric.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) If a patient is unable to stand for an upright AP abdominal image, which position should be used?
A) Ventral decubitus
B) Dorsal decubitus
C) Left lateral decubitus
D) Tight lateral decubitus
Q3) What is the cavity posterior to the peritoneum?
A) Parietal peritoneum
B) Peritoneal cavity
C) Retroperitoneum
D) Retrogastrium
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following planes is positioned to the center of the grid for the lateral projection of the stomach and duodenum?
A) Midcoronal plane
B) A coronal plane passing 2 inches posterior to the median coronal plane
C) A coronal plane passing 2 inches anterior to the median coronal plane
D) A plane passing midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen
Q2) The central-ray angulation for the AP axial projection of the large intestine is:
A) 10 to 20 degrees caudad.
B) 30 to 40 degrees caudad.
C) 10 to 20 degrees cephalad.
D) 30 to 40 degrees cephalad.
Q3) The spleen is located in the _____ of the abdomen.
A) LUQ
B) RUQ
C) LLQ
D) RLQ
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of motion is used to cleanse the skin before venipuncture?
A) Circular
B) Upward
C) Downward
D) "Up-down"
Q2) How long is the urethra in the female?
A) 1 \(1 / 2\) inch
B) 1 inches
C) 2 inches
D) 2 \(1 / 2\) inches
Q3) Where is the IR centered for the AP oblique projection during a male or female cystourethrogram?
A) Superior border of the pubic symphysis
B) 2 inches above the pubic symphysis
C) 2 inches below the pubic symphysis
D) Variable depending on the penis position
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parts of the male reproductive system include the:
1)testes.
2)seminal vesicle.
3)bulbourethral glands.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Q3) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the central-ray angulation for the SMV projection?
A) 0 degrees
B) 5 degrees caudad
C) 5 degrees cephalad
D) 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
Q2) What is the central-ray angulation for the PA axial projection of the mandibular rami?
A) 15 degrees cephalad
B) 20 degrees cephalad
C) 25 degrees cephalad
D) 20 to 25 degrees cephalad
Q3) At what age are all of the sinuses completely developed?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 14
D) 18
Q4) Which skull type is narrow from side to side?
A) Mesocephalic
B) Dolichocephalic
C) Brachycephalic
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Chapter 21: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the radiographic examination of the breast?
1)Imaging the posterior breast tissue is critical.
2)Use vigorous compression to produce a uniform breast thickness.
3)Perform positioning of the breast consistently so that lesions can be accurately localized.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Since 1989, death rates from breast cancer have been:
A) dramatically increasing.
B) slowly increasing.
C) relatively unchanged.
D) steadily decreasing.
Q3) The method used to image the breasts of women who have had implants is the:
A) Towne.
B) Eklund.
C) Stecher.
D) Lawrence.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord?
A) 14
B) 24
C) 29
D) 31
Q2) Which imaging examination is usually performed immediately after a myelogram?
A) MRI
B) NM
C) US
D) CT
Q3) Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral body to near its original height before injection of the bone cement?
A) Myelography
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Kyphoplasty
D) Discography
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has been identified as a major predictor of increased complication risk from a cardiac catheterization?
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Diabetes
C) Deep vein thrombosis
D) Renal insufficiency
Q2) According to the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association (ACC/AHA), all of the following are relative contraindications for cardiac catheterization except:
A) active gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) severe anemia.
C) diabetes.
D) recent stroke.
Q3) The muscular wall of the heart is called the:
A) myocardium.
B) epicardium.
C) endocardium.
D) pericardium.
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing limb radiography on a pediatric patient, what may not be required to evaluate for fracture?
A) Images showing the relative position of the two ends of the bone
B) The contralateral side
C) Use of large focal spot
D) Soft tissue
Q2) When a radiographer suspects child abuse, what is the required response?
A) Notify the state child welfare office/social services.
B) Call the police.
C) Ask a nurse to look at the child.
D) Notify the radiologist or attending physician.
Q3) How is rotation evaluated on a pediatric chest image?
A) Superimposition of anterior and posterior midline structures
B) Visualization of eight to nine posterior ribs
C) Visualization of the intervertebral disk spaces through the heart
D) Anatomy from the trachea to the costophrenic angles is seen
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) When imaging the upper or lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that:
A) many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort.
B) mobility and flexibility is often decreased.
C) long bones shrink as age increases.
D) scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis.
Q2) A common cause of death in patients with Alzheimer's is:
A) hemorrhagic stroke.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) elder abuse.
D) pneumonia.
Q3) What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than age 65?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Nervous
Q4) The preclinical stage of Alzheimer's disease may be asymptomatic, but evidence of this disease can often be detected on imaging.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) What will result if the grid IR is leaning on a mobile lateral decubitus examination of the chest or abdomen?
A) Increased scatter
B) Distortion
C) The distal anatomy will not be demonstrated
D) The proximal anatomy will not be demonstrated
Q2) During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on: 1)children.
2)exams in which the gonads are near the primary beam.
3)patients of reproductive age.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) During a mobile exposure, the radiographer should be how far from the object being radiographed?
A) 4 feet
B) 5 feet
C) 6 feet
D) 10 feet
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Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by:
A) both sterile and nonsterile team members.
B) only nonsterile team members.
C) only sterile team members.
D) only the surgeon.
Q2) Which of the following surgical procedures require the C-arm to be positioned between the patient's legs?
A) Tibia nailing
B) Operative cholangiography
C) Hip pinning
D) Antegrade femoral nailing
Q3) The sterile field is the:
A) whole surgical room.
B) area around the surgeon.
C) area prepared for the patient.
D) surgical incision.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The most common reporting method of dose reporting on the present scanners is:
A) Multiple Scan Average Dose (MSAD).
B) Computed Tomography Dose Index (CTDI).
C) Dose-length product (DLP).
D) Computed Tomography Dose Index Volume (CTDIvol).
Q2) The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is:
A) detector aperture width.
B) FOV.
C) slice thickness.
D) x-ray beam energy.
Q3) CT detectors are most commonly _____ detectors.
A) ionization (xenon gas)
B) scintillation (solid-state)
C) thermoluminescent
D) phosphorescent
Q4) The CT system's ability to freeze any motion of a scanned object is termed:
A) detector quantum efficiency.
B) temporal resolution.
C) reconstruction algorithm.
D) spatial resolution.
30
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are a variety of magnet types that can be used for MRI. Resistive and superconductive magnets are both:
A) permanent magnets.
B) weak magnets.
C) electromagnets.
D) used at up to 3 tesla.
Q2) Spin lattice relaxation (T1) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
Q3) MRI has been useful for imaging many areas of the body, particularly the brain, because of:
A) the ability to see calcium deposits.
B) differentiation of gray matter from white matter.
C) new motion techniques.
D) fat suppression.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal liver scan should have a _____ echo pattern.
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) homogeneous
D) heterogeneous
Q2) If an echo pattern is similar throughout a structure or mass it is termed:
A) heterogeneous.
B) homogeneous.
C) complex.
D) anechoic.
Q3) The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:
A) 2 to 320 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 100,000 Hz to 1 MHz.
D) 1 to 10 MHz.
Q4) Hertz measures:
A) cycles per second.
B) amplitude of an echo.
C) number of waves.
D) wavelength.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) PET scanners have to be close to the source of positrons because:
A) the positrons cannot travel very far.
B) the nuclides are so unstable.
C) of the examination radioactivity of the nuclides.
D) of the short half-lives of the nuclides.
Q2) The most common device used to produce nuclides for PET scanning is the:
A) high-frequency generator.
B) compact medical cyclotron.
C) linear accelerator.
D) pulse height analyzer.
Q3) The most common radionuclide used in nuclear medicine is:
A) technetium (99mTc).
B) iodine (123I).
C) thallium (201Tl).
D) xenon (133Xe).
Q4) The crystal used in gamma cameras is made of:
A) sodium iodide.
B) cesium-activated iodide.
C) thallium-activated sodium iodide.
D) lithium fluoride.
Page 33
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24127
Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of bone densitometry is to:
A) establish the diagnosis of osteoporosis.
B) assess the response to osteoporosis therapy.
C) measure bone mineral density.
D) do all of the above.
Q2) The Z-score is used to determine:
A) the reference population.
B) fracture risk for the patient.
C) if the measured BMD is reasonable.
D) patient age and bone loss.
Q3) Which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Daily physical activity
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Low body weight
D) Low calcium intake
Q4) The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the:
A) hips.
B) femurs.
C) vertebrae.
D) ankles.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment that is designed to deliver radiation to the exact target volume is called:
A) fractionation.
B) differentiation.
C) palliation.
D) conformal radiation.
Q2) Radiation has more effect on cancer cells because _____ than normal cells.
A) they are more highly differentiated
B) a greater percentage of these cells are undergoing mitosis
C) cancer cells undergo more direct interactions
D) it interacts more readily with cancer cells
Q3) The most common cancers that occur in the United States are: 1)prostate.
2)lymph.
3)lung.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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