Diagnostic Assessment in Psychology Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Assessment in Psychology provides an in-depth exploration of the principles, procedures, and tools used to evaluate psychological functioning in individuals across the lifespan. The course covers a range of assessment techniques, including structured interviews, psychometric testing, behavioral observations, and projective measures. Emphasis is placed on the selection and ethical application of assessment instruments, the interpretation of test results, and the integration of findings into comprehensive clinical reports. Students will also learn about cultural, developmental, and contextual factors influencing assessment, as well as current issues in the diagnosis and classification of psychological disorders according to major diagnostic systems such as the DSM and ICD.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ introduced "degeneration" theory, which proposed that abnormal functioning was transmitted by hereditary processes.
A) Pinel
B) Cabanis
C) Charles Darwin
D) Cesare Lombroso
E) Benedict Morel
Answer: E
Q2) Teresa of Avila and St. Vincent de Paul influenced the development of a more scientific approach to treating mental illness.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) According to the statistical concept, abnormal behavior is that which occurs relatively infrequently.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cognitive therapy has enjoyed most success with the treatment of A) phobias.
B) eating disorders.
C) anxiety and mood disorders.
D) schizophrenia.
E) personality disorders.
Answer: C
Q2) List the three forms research into the genetic bases of psychiatric disorders typically takes, and explain the basic premise of such studies.
Answer: The three forms are family (or pedigree) studies, twin studies, and adoption studies. The premise is to identify a person with a disorder (called the index case or proband) and examine the other people to see if there is a match for the disorder.
Q3) Freud felt that the ego develops to curb the desires of the id.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discrete classification refers to __________, while continuous classification is also called __________.
A) statistical classification; normative classification
B) categorical classification; dimensional classification
C) critical classification; current classification
D) dimensional classification; categorical classification
E) directional classification; bi-directional classification
Answer: B
Q2) If a measure of substance abuse is able to determine which individuals will be only transient drug users, and which ones will go on to meet criteria for substance dependence or to abuse other drugs with more adverse health consequences, that measure would have
A) concurrent validity.
B) face validity.
C) etiological validity.
D) predictive validity.
E) measurement reliability.
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the five axes of the DSM-IV-TR.
Answer: The DSM-IV Multiaxial
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Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?
A) It is a noninvasive technique.
B) fMRI is a recent modification of the MRI.
C) It reveals both the structure and functioning of the brain.
D) It is slightly dangerous, as it involves the use of high-energy radiation (X-rays).
E) It involves producing a strong magnetic field around the patient's head.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test?
A) The main problem with the test is that it produces many false positives.
B) It consists of a series of nine cards containing lines and shapes, which children are asked to copy and then draw from memory.
C) It is rarely used at present, though it was commonly employed in the past.
D) There are currently no standardized scoring systems for this test.
E) It is very difficult to administer.
Q3) The Mental Status Examination is the most frequently used structured clinical interview.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is random assignment? In what sort of research design is it found?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Panic could be described as a "false alarm."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Worry imagery exposure was primarily developed for the treatment of __________.
A) social phobia
B) generalized anxiety disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) specific phobia
E) panic disorder
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of panic disorder?
A) It afflicts more males than females.
B) People having panic attacks often feel the are having a heart attack.
C) The average age of onset is 25 years.
D) It is often underdiagnosed by heath care professionals.
E) It is often comorbid with other mental disorders.
Q4) Personality disorders are frequently present in more complex and severe cases of PTSD.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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Q1) Patients with hypochondriasis tend to be quite anxious about their symptoms. A)True
B)False
Q2) Depersonalization and derealization symptoms tend to co-occur in the same person and so will be grouped together in DSM-5.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Heather has suddenly left here home and has lost all memory of herself and her past life. She is most likely suffering from A) repression.
B) depersonalization.
C) dissociative amnesia.
D) dissociative fugue.
E) dissociative identity disorder.
Q4) There is no evidence that people with dissociative disorders score higher on measures of hypnotizability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe five patterns of memory loss characteristic of dissociative amnesia.
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since the 1950s deaths due to heart attack and stroke have declined by almost A) 25%.
B) 10%.
C) 70%.
D) 50%.
E) 90%.
Q2) People sometimes mistakenly use the term psychosomatic disorders to refer to illnesses more properly called somatoform disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The stress reactivity paradigm is used
A) to determine the risk of cardiovascular disease as a function of cardiovascular reactivity.
B) to show how cardiovascular disease causes stress.
C) to measure the effects of risk factors such as smoking on cardiovascular disease.
D) to determine the cause of "essential" hypertension.
E) to show how the cardiovascular system can be altered by stressful psychosocial stimuli or events.
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Canadian psychodynamic theorist Sidney Blatt discusses two personality patterns: _____________ and ______________ which have been shown to be predictors of depression in the face of stress.
A) dependency and self-criticism
B) aggression-hostility; obsessionality
C) pessimism; listlessness
D) brooding; critical / blaming
E) gloominess; listlessness
Q2) Approximately _________ percent of the 70 percent of new mothers who experience depression and mood swings after childbirth is diagnosed with mood disorder with postpartum onset.
A) 5-10
B) 10-15
C) 15-20
D) 20-25
Q3) Bipolar disorder is more common than major depression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List, define and distinguish between the two broad categories of mood disorders.
Q5) List and briefly define activity scheduling and behavioural experiments.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lifetime prevalence for schizophrenia in North America and Europe has been found to be about 1%.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In summarizing the research on the frontal lobe deficiency, one could interpret the research of Lara Davidson (2003) as suggesting that
A) frontal brain impairment probably affects some patients with schizophrenia, but the impairment is not a necessary part of the syndrome.
B) frontal brain impairment probably affects very few patients with schizophrenia, but is not a necessary part of the syndrome.
C) frontal brain impairment probably affects all patients with schizophrenia, and is a necessary part of the syndrome.
D) an abnormally working frontal brain does not appear to be related at all to the symptoms presented by patients with schizophrenia.
E) only the positive symptoms of the illness reflect an abnormally working frontal brain.
Q3) Describe the five subtypes of schizophrenia in the DSM-IV-TR.
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11
Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Maudsley approach initially attempts to focus on:
A) disorted body image
B) overcontrolling mothers
C) excessive exercise
D) weight gain and eating
E) binging and purging
Q2) The incidence of a disorder, such as anorexia nervosa, refers to______________ whereas the prevalence refers to the____________________.
A) number of new cases in a given year; number of people who have the condition
B) number of people who have the condition; number of new cases in a given year
C) number of people who are treated for a condition; number of people believed to have the disorder
D) number of people believed to have the disorder; number of people who are treated for a condition
E) number of people treated and cured; number of people afflicted by a disorder
Q3) Compare and contrast the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa.
Q4) Bulimics are typically within the normal weight range.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tolerance is best defined as
A) a need for increased amounts of a substance in order to achieve previous effects.
B) a lack of control over the use of a substance.
C) physiological changes in the body due to use of a substance.
D) being accustomed to a substance due to regular usage.
E) a reversible and temporary condition that results from substance use.
Q2) Alcoholics Anonymous is
A) a religious group that condemns the use of alcohol.
B) one of the best known approaches to the treatment of alcoholism.
C) an intensive, short-term support group for alcoholics.
D) a treatment program based on psychodynamic principles.
E) a treatment group, consisting of alcoholics at different stages, run by a therapist who was a former alcoholic.
Q3) Overall, results of psychological smoking cessation programs have been
A) mixed.
B) promising.
C) lacking.
D) not at all encouraging.
E) very encouraging.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several researchers have reported that the symptoms of antisocial behaviour eventually end, often around the fourth decade of life. This occurrence has been called the __________ factor.
A) responsivity
B) exhaustion
C) aging
D) burnout
E) remittance
Q2) Perhaps the most important general obstacle to providing treatment for personality disorders is that
A) clients often have Axis 1 disorders, which are of primary importance.
B) clients are not upset by their characteristic personality style and do not seek treatment.
C) the window of opportunity to effect change has usually passed for these disorders by the time clients present for treatment.
D) these clients often struggle to focus on the treatment process between sessions.
E) therapy is often court-ordered, which works against the therapeutic alliance.
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Chapter 13: Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sexual behaviors would receive a diagnosis of sexual dysfunction in the DSM-IV-TR?
A) a date rapist
B) a man who occasionally likes to participate in a threesome
C) a woman experiencing pain during intercourse
D) a man who exposed his genitals to women
E) a woman who masturbates excessively
Q2) DSM-5 proposes to replace Gender Identity Disorder with:
A) Gender Dysphoric Disorder
B) Gender Dysphoria in children and in adults
C) Gender Dysphoria in children and adults, with or without a disorder of sex development
D) Gender Dysphoria with or without a disorder of sex development
E) Gender Dissatisfaction Disorder, with or without a disorder of sex development
Q3) Research consistently finds that females report significantly less use of pornography and masturbation than males
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the problems evident in diagnosing sexual disorders.
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Chapter 14: Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inheriting mental retardation through dominant inheritance is common.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List five of the seven "essential daily ingredients" outlined by Ramey and Ramey (1992) for the development of young children.
Q3) The __________ hypothesis of autism focused on family characteristics.
A) psychodynamic B) biological C) medical D) psychogenic
E) social
Q4) Clinical research has shown that autism and childhood schizophrenia are very similar in clinical features.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the effects of phenylketonuria (PKU)? How is it detected and treated?
Q6) In general, biological treatments of autism have not been found to be effective. A)True
B)False
Q7) What is the normalization principle? What has it lead to?
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Chapter 16: Mental Disorders and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Esther has been having problems falling asleep at night, and when she finally manages to fall asleep, she awakens frequently, for apparently no reason. During the day, she feels extremely tired, depressed, and anxious. If you were Esther's psychologist, what would you suspect to be her problem?
A) primary insomnia
B) hypersomnia
C) somnambulism
D) sleep apnea
E) nocturnal myoclonus
Q2) Which of the following statements about suicide and older Canadians is TRUE?
A) Older Canadian women were around 6 times more likely to commit suicide than older Canadian men.
B) Suicide attempts are more common among young Canadians, but attempts by older Canadians are more successful.
C) Older Canadian women were more likely to attempt drug overdose than any other group.
D) Older Canadian men were around 3 times more likely to commit suicide than older Canadian women.
E) Older Canadians are less likely than younger Canadians to commit suicide.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eysenck determined that clients often improve without psychotherapy; there was no evidence that psychotherapy had any demonstrable effect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dr. Smith is employing a psychoanalytic approach to treat her client. During their first session, Dr. Smith encourages her client to say anything that comes to his mind. After the session is done, Dr. Smith analyzes what was said by focusing specifically on slips of the tongue and numerous incidents of forgetfulness. During the second session, Dr. Smith focuses on the fact that her patient is unwilling to discuss certain topics and has a tendency to remain quiet.Which three psychoanalytic techniques were most likely used by Dr. Smith during the two treatment sessions?
A) free association; analysis of transference; and interpretation
B) free association; interpretation; and analysis of transference
C) free association; analysis of resistance; and analysis of transference
D) free association; dream interpretation; and analysis of resistance
E) free association; interpretation; and analysis of resistance
Q3) What types of therapy have been found effective in treating anxiety disorders?
Q4) Describe the side effects of MAOIs, tricyclics, and SSRIs.
Q5) Discuss the use of Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in treating disorders.
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Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prilleltensky (2005) shows that it is helpful to plot the timing of an MHP / prevention program (i.e., universal prevention vs. indicated prevention / early intervention for problems that have already started) against the ecological level of implementation (i.e., micro vs. macro levels), creating four quadrants. Describe these quadrants and identify examples of MHP interventions for each.
Q2) The four key characteristics of mental health promotion, identified by Cowen (1996) are:
A) proactive ; population-focus ; multi-dimensional ; ongoing
B) reactive ; targeted ; multi-dimensional ; ongoing
C) proactive ; targeted ; focused ; ongoing
D) reactive ; population focused ; focused ; ongoing
E) proactive ; population-focus ; bi-dimensional ; appropriately timed
Q3) Traditionally, health and human services have focused on persons' deficits and weaknesses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define the three types of prevention
Q5) Compare and contrast the high-risk vs. the universal approach to promotion/prevention programs.
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Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hadfield case (Rex v. Hadfield, 1820)
A) preceded the passing of the Criminal Lunatics Act.
B) led to the Unfit to Stand Trial (UST) act.
C) marked the end of the "not guilty by reason of insanity" (NGRI) verdict.
D) defined a standard of insanity known as the M'Naghten standard.
E) led to a guilty verdict.
Q2) Describe the "typical" patient who is released by a review panel and discuss available research pertaining to the rate at which he/she faces rehospitalization.
Q3) In common law, the King (or Queen) was not obligated to protect and provide care for those who were incapable of caring for themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Historical factors in the HCR-20 include all of the following EXCEPT A) previous violence.
B) early maladjustment.
C) relationship stability.
D) stress.
E) prior supervision failure.
Q5) What are the important elements of the legal definition of mental disorder?
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