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Developmental Psychology explores the patterns of growth, change, and stability that occur throughout the human lifespan, from conception to old age. This course examines major theories and research findings related to physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development. Students will analyze how biological and environmental factors influence developmental processes and consider key topics such as attachment, language acquisition, identity formation, and aging. Practical applications and contemporary issues in developmental psychology will also be discussed, providing a comprehensive understanding of human development across different life stages.
Recommended Textbook Infants and Children Prenatal Through Middle Childhood 8th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) One advantage of the sequential design is that
A) researchers can find out whether cohort effects are operating by comparing participants of the same age who were born in different years.
B) it permits cause-and-effect inferences by studying groups of people differing in age at the same point in time.
C) it presents participants with a novel task and follows their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.
D) it is especially useful for studying the strategies children use to acquire new knowledge in reading and science.
Answer: A
Q2) In Bronfenbrenner's ecological systems theory, the __________ consists of activities and interaction patterns in the child's immediate surroundings.
A) microsystem
B) mesosystem
C) exosystem
D) macrosystem
Answer: A
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Q1) When Aziz was born, his parents were told he had the most common chromosomal disorder, occurring in 1 out of every 700 live births. Aziz has __________ syndrome.
A) XYY
B) Klinefelter
C) Turner
D) Down
Answer: D
Q2) Identical twins Jada and Olivia were very similar in personality throughout childhood. After high school, Jada majored in music and became an elementary school teacher, while Olivia earned a medical degree and joined Doctors Without Borders, traveling to countries gripped by war and epidemics. Later in life, Olivia was more prone to risk-taking than Jada. This difference in personality is a result of A) niche-picking.
B) alterations to Olivia's chromosome-5 gene.
C) mutations in Olivia's DD genetic makeup.
D) methylation.
Answer: D
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Q1) A survey of over 5,000 U.S. adults of childbearing age revealed that more than 90 percent
A) do not want to have any children.
B) have negative views about the idea of parenthood.
C) have two or more children.
D) already have children or are planning to have them.
Answer: D
Q2) Danica is a healthy 35-year-old woman who is pregnant with her first child. Danica is
A) more likely than a younger woman to have a baby with low birth weight.
B) likely to have a longer and more difficult labor than a younger woman.
C) more likely to have prenatal complications than a woman in her twenties.
D) as likely as a younger woman to have no prenatal or birth complications.
Answer: D
Q3) During the second month of pregnancy, the
A) embryo reacts to light.
B) embryo kicks and bends its arms.
C) heart begins to pump blood.
D) heart develops separate chambers.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the breech position is true?
A) Cesarean delivery is never justified when the baby is in the breech position.
B) The breech position decreases the chance of squeezing of the umbilical cord.
C) Certain breech babies fare just as well with a normal delivery as with a cesarean.
D) The breech position decreases the chances of head injuries during delivery.
Q2) Describe the signs that indicate that labor is near.
Q3) Brianna was born seven weeks premature. She has respiratory distress syndrome. Her parents can expect the hospital to use
A) a head-cooling device.
B) whole-body cooling.
C) a mechanical respirator.
D) "kangaroo care."
Q4) The most fleeting state of arousal is
A) NREM sleep.
B) REM sleep.
C) drowsiness.
D) quiet alertness.
Q5) Describe preterm and small-for-date infants. How are they different?
Q6) Describe the Apgar Scale, and explain how it is used.
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Q1) The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises
A) exclusive breastfeeding for the first 2 years.
B) exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months.
C) inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least 1 year.
D) weaning from breast milk by age 6 months.
Q2) Eleanor and James Gibson describe their theory as __________ because over time a baby detects finer and finer invariant features among stimuli.
A) differentiation
B) discontinuous
C) dynamic
D) bidirectional
Q3) In classical conditioning, if learning occurs, the neutral stimulus is then called a(n)
A) unconditioned response.
B) neutral response.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) conditioned response.
Q4) Using examples from the text, explain how cultural variations in infant-rearing practices affect motor development.
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Q1) Laboratory research reveals that __________ is present at 6 weeks of age.
A) object permanence
B) deferred imitation
C) rational imitation
D) analogical problem solving
Q2) Follow-up research on Piaget's sensorimotor stage yields broad agreement on which of the following issues?
A) Many cognitive changes of infancy are stagelike.
B) Most aspects of infant cognition develop together.
C) Many cognitive changes of infancy are gradual and continuous.
D) Most aspects of infant cognition develop abruptly.
Q3) After 2- to 6-month olds forget an operant response,
A) it takes months for them to reinstate the memory.
B) they need only a brief prompt to reinstate the memory.
C) they reinstate the memory after a few days.
D) they are unable to remember it without extensive training.
Q4) Define and describe recognition and recall. Discuss the development of recall memory.
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Q5) Describe signs of high-quality child care for infants and toddlers, based on standards for developmentally appropriate practice.
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Q1) In the early months, infants
A) have only a limited capacity to regulate their emotional stress.
B) are unable to regulate any form of emotional stress.
C) are not very easily overwhelmed.
D) rely primarily on self-soothing for distraction and reorientation of attention.
Q2) Studies of adopted children who spent their first year or more in deprived Eastern European orphanages indicate that
A) late adoptees, placed in homes after age 4, have more difficulty bonding with their adoptive parents.
B) adoptees do not typically show social or emotional problems if adopted before the age of 6.
C) fully normal emotional development depends on establishing a close tie with a caregiver early in life.
D) adoptees' delays and impairments tend to disappear in middle childhood.
Q3) Describe Bowlby's four phases of attachment.
Q4) Discuss the involvement of fathers as it relates to attachment security. How do mothers and fathers differ in their caregiving?
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Q1) Harvey, age 3, can probably
A) gallop and skip with one foot.
B) copy some numbers and simple words.
C) zip and unzip large zippers.
D) ride a tricycle rapidly and steer smoothly.
Q2) Which of the following U.S. children is most likely to get his or her permanent teeth first?
A) Brooke, an obese girl
B) Malik, an undernourished boy
C) Jack, a well-nourished boy of average weight
D) Sasha, an undernourished girl
Q3) When young children with psychosocial dwarfism are removed from their emotionally inadequate environments,
A) their dwarfism is permanent, even with immediate treatment.
B) they rarely exhibit catch-up growth.
C) they must be given high levels of iron to prevent anemia.
D) their growth hormone (GH) levels quickly return to normal and they grow rapidly.
Q4) Discuss sex differences in motor skills in early childhood.
Q5) Describe the development of drawing in children in Western nations.
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Q1) Which of the following changes occurs in children's autobiographical memories with age?
A) Older children begin to use more generic, nondescript reports.
B) With age, preschoolers increasingly include subjective information.
C) Older children are able to remain objective when recounting the details of an event.
D) Younger children are more likely to explain an event's personal significance.
Q2) Kyle pretends to drink from a toy cup. Kyle's sister, Anna, takes the same cup and tells him, "This is a hat." Kyle refuses to place the cup on his head to pretend that it is a hat. Kyle is probably
A) younger than 2 years of age.
B) at least 4 years old.
C) less than 1 year of age.
D) at least 6 years old.
Q3) Between ages 4 and 8, children's magical beliefs decline as they
A) gain familiarity with physical events and principles.
B) understand that television characters are not real.
C) begin to ascribe supernatural causes only to events they can explain.
D) become less likely to confuse fiction with reality.
Q4) What are scripts? How do they contribute to young children's memory development?
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Q1) Twins Jillian and Wesley, 11 months old, play near each other with similar materials. However, they do not try to direct each other's activities. They are engaged in
A) parallel play.
B) cooperative play.
C) associative play.
D) nonsocial activity.
Q2) Define self-concept and self-esteem. In what ways might parents foster these aspects of self-understanding in young children?
Q3) Children who get along well with agemates tend to
A) request an explanation when they do not understand a peer's behavior.
B) attend selectively to social cues.
C) hover around peers' activities.
D) barge into play groups without asking.
Q4) Androgynous children and adults
A) are less adaptable than those with traditional gender identities.
B) score low on both "masculine" and "feminine" personality characteristics.
C) are less able to show "feminine" sensitivity than "masculine" individuals.
D) have higher self-esteem than "feminine" individuals.
Q5) Describe authoritative child rearing, and explain what makes it effective.
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Q1) A common way to treat malocclusion is by
A) requiring regular teeth cleaning.
B) filling all cavities promptly.
C) putting braces on the teeth.
D) flossing at least three times per week.
Q2) _________ increases by only 10 percent during middle childhood and adolescence.
A) White matter
B) The weight of the brain
C) Gray matter
D) The number of synapses
Q3) Akna is short and stocky. She probably lives in a
A) cold, Arctic area.
B) disease-ridden region.
C) wealthy nation.
D) tropical locale.
Q4) __________ and __________ play vital roles in improved motor performance.
A) Body growth; more efficient information processing
B) Environmental factors; increases in brain function
C) Increases in muscle control; parental encouragement
D) Heredity; opportunities for athletic training
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Q1) Which type of child-teacher relationship is most likely to lead to a negative self-fulfilling prophecy?
A) a quiet, withdrawn student with a teacher in a constructivist classroom
B) a low-achieving student with a teacher who publicly compares children
C) a high-achieving student with a teacher in a traditional classroom
D) a low-achieving student with a teacher in a constructivist classroom
Q2) Mrs. Hartley asked her second graders to draw a map of the school using their memory. The students' cognitive maps will probably
A) have an accurate arrangement.
B) include landmarks.
C) incorporate map symbols and a key.
D) depict an organized route of travel.
Q3) Reciprocal teaching focuses on which four cognitive strategies?
A) discussion, practice, segment, and reading
B) elaboration, rehearsal, chunking, and repetition
C) challenging, digesting, comparing, and evaluating
D) questioning, summarizing, clarifying, and predicting
Q4) Describe Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of successful intelligence.
Q5) Explain the educational benefits of a small class size in early elementary school.
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Q1) The overriding factor in positive adjustment after divorce is
A) the gender of the child.
B) effective parenting.
C) the custody arrangements.
D) the temperament of the child.
Q2) Alicia, a fourth grader, regularly looks after herself for two to three hours after she gets home from school and before her mother gets home from work. Alicia is a(n)
A) home-based child.
B) neglected child.
C) self-care child.
D) average child.
Q3) Compared with preschoolers, school-age children who give eyewitness testimony are
A) better at correctly inferring other's motives and intentions.
B) less resistant to misleading questions.
C) less likely to give detailed narrative accounts.
D) less able to recall recent events accurately.
Q4) Describe personal and situational factors that affect the extent to which children hold racial and ethnic biases.
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