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Developmental Psychology explores the patterns of growth, change, and stability that occur throughout the human lifespan, from conception to old age. The course examines major theories and research findings related to physical, cognitive, emotional, and social development across various life stages, including infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging. Students will analyze the influence of genetic, environmental, and cultural factors on development, and discuss key developmental issues such as attachment, identity formation, moral reasoning, and the impact of family, peers, and society. The course aims to provide an integrated understanding of human development and its practical applications in education, healthcare, and social policy.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 4th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) Sydney, when faced with a problem, starts with a hypothesis, deduces testable inferences, and isolates and combines variables to see which inferences are confirmed. Sydney is in Piaget's __________ stage of development.
A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational
Answer: D
Q2) The first successful intelligence test was originally constructed to __________.
A) measure individual differences in IQ
B) document age-related improvements in children's intellectual functioning
C) identify children with learning problems for placement in special classes
D) compare the scores of people who varied in gender, ethnicity, and birth order
Answer: C
Q3) Behaviorism and social learning theory __________.
A) overemphasize the plasticity of cognitive development
B) overestimate people's contributions to their own development
C) offer too narrow a view of important environmental influences
D) overemphasize each individual's unique life history
Answer: C
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Q1) Usually, in vitro fertilization __________.
A) is increasingly successful with age.
B) poses less risk to infant survival than natural conception
C) is used to treat women whose fallopian tubes are permanently damaged
D) involves the wealthy as contractors for infants
Answer: C
Q2) Heritability estimates are __________.
A) likely to exaggerate the role of the environment
B) difficult to misapply
C) not useful for studying complex traits, such as intelligence and personality
D) likely to exaggerate the role of heredity
Answer: D
Q3) In the United States, public policies safeguarding __________ lag behind policies for __________.
A) older adults; children and youths
B) children and youths; older adults
C) older adults; extended families
D) school-age children; preschool children
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike adults, newborn babies __________.
A) have a limited sense of smell
B) see nearby objects most clearly
C) prefer unfamiliar voices to familiar ones
D) see unclearly across a wide range of distances
Answer: D
Q2) During her pregnancy, Padma increased her intake of coffee and tea. Her doctor is likely to tell her that high doses of caffeine contained in coffee and tea increase the risk of __________.
A) premature labor
B) limb deformities
C) respiratory distress at birth
D) low birth weight
Answer: D
Q3) __________ is the least-developed of the newborn baby's senses.
A) Taste
B) Sound
C) Vision
D) Touch
Answer: C

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Sample Questions
Q1) During infancy, __________. These sex differences will __________ during adolescence.
A) boys are slightly shorter and lighter than girls; disappear B) girls are slightly taller and heavier than boys; reverse C) girls are slightly shorter and lighter than boys; be greatly magnified D) boys are slightly shorter and lighter than girls; be greatly magnified
Q2) If learning has occurred in classical conditioning, and the neutral stimulus by itself produces a response similar to the reflexive response, the neutral stimulus is then called a __________.
A) neutral response
B) conditioned stimulus
C) conditioned response
D) reinforcer
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a fine-motor skill?
A) grasping
B) crawling
C) walking
D) standing
Q4) Describe how cultural variations in infant-rearing practices affect motor development.
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Q1) Retention of visual events __________.
A) is adultlike at birth
B) improves greatly with age
C) slowly declines throughout childhood
D) decreases from two items at 6 months to one at 12 months
Q2) Follow-up research on Piaget's sensorimotor stage yields broad agreement that __________.
A) the cognitive changes of infancy are stagelike
B) the cognitive changes of infancy are abrupt
C) all aspects of infant cognition develop together
D) various aspects of infant cognition change unevenly
Q3) Baby Kataro frequently experiences joint attention. This means that he will probably __________.
A) have a short attention span
B) be a late talker
C) produce meaningful words earlier
D) comprehend less language
Q4) What are the two main problems that modern researchers have with Piaget's sensorimotor stage? What are his contributions to the field of research on infant cognition?
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Q1) Jaynie is cheerful and upbeat. Alayna is prone to angry outbursts. These descriptions refer to __________.
A) temperament
B) effortful control
C) reactivity
D) self-regulation
Q2) In a social referencing experiment, 18-month-old Joey is asked to share spinach or graham crackers with his mother. Even though Joey prefers graham crackers, he might offer the spinach to his mother if she __________.
A) makes a disgusted face and shakes her head when he offers spinach to her
B) expresses no preference for either spinach or graham crackers
C) uses her voice and facial expressions to convey a preference for the graham crackers
D) uses her voice and facial expressions to convey a preference for the spinach
Q3) Like anger, fear __________.
A) is less intense than sadness
B) decreases in intensity and frequency with age
C) occurs less frequently in the second half of the first year
D) rises from the second half of the first year into the second year
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Q1) Research with the Home Observation for Measurement of the Environment (HOME) early childhood subscales reveals that preschoolers who develop well intellectually have
A) parents who resolve conflicts with punishment
B) parents who stimulate language
C) few educational toys or books
D) low scores in emotional support
Q2) With regard to questions used to elicit children's autobiographical narratives, preschoolers who experience the __________ style recall __________ information about past events.
A) repetitive; more
B) elaborative; less
C) metacognitive; less
D) elaborative; more
Q3) Mounting evidence reveals that children with autism __________.
A) more often use mental state words like believe, think, and feel
B) are impaired in theory of mind
C) are advanced in joint attention and social referencing
D) excel in generating plans and inhibiting irrelevant responses
Q4) Describe the benefits of make-believe play.
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Q1) Describe some of the undesirable consequences of frequent punishment.
Q2) Parents are most likely to use forceful methods of discipline when __________.
A) they want to foster long-term goals
B) very serious transgressions occur
C) immediate obedience is necessary
D) children are verbally aggressive toward others
Q3) Four-year-old Mona's parents use inductive discipline. As a result, Mona is __________ likely to __________.
A) more; display prosocial behavior
B) more; ignore damage after misdeeds
C) less; refrain from wrongdoing
D) less; confess after misdeeds
Q4) __________ fosters a more positive, coherent early self-concept.
A) Permissive parenting
B) A warm, sensitive parent-child relationship
C) Authoritarian parenting
D) Strong identification with an other-sex parent
Q5) Compare and contrast the authoritative and authoritarian child-rearing styles.
Q7) Discuss parental influences on early peer relations. Page 10
Q6) Discuss some ways to reduce gender stereotyping in young children.
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Q1) Parents who patiently point out important features of a task and suggest strategies have children who __________.
A) more often passively approach new tasks
B) less often use cognitive self-regulation skills
C) more often monitor their own performance
D) less often discuss ways to approach problems
Q2) The information-processing perspective __________.
A) examines separate aspects of thinking
B) fails to consider biological influences on cognitive development
C) applies only to children in cultures having formal schooling
D) focuses on overall cognitive change
Q3) Eight-year-old Miles has confidence in his own ability. When he faces a spelling test, he believes that he can practice spelling the words and that he will do well on the test. Miles has developed __________.
A) learned helplessness
B) academic self-efficacy
C) inflated self-esteem
D) interpersonal intelligence
Q4) Discuss the consequences of childhood obesity.
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Q1) Compared to Canadian agemates, Chinese schoolchildren are more likely to rate lying favorably when __________.
A) it is used to cover up antisocial acts
B) it supports the individual at the expense of the group
C) the intention is modesty
D) the intention is self-protection
Q2) Which self-description is 10-year-old Destiny the most likely to use?
A) "I like horses and I'm always good."
B) "I'm smart in certain subjects like math and science."
C) "I never say mean things."
D) "I run fast and always win races."
Q3) Eleven-year-old Leah has developed a sense of competence at a number of useful skills and tasks. She has a positive but realistic self-concept and takes pride in her accomplishments. According to Erikson, Leah has __________.
A) positively resolved the psychological conflict of middle childhood
B) developed an ideal self that guides her behavior
C) not yet encountered the psychological conflict of middle childhood
D) overcome the conflict of role confusion
Q4) What factors foster resilience in middle childhood?
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Q1) Fourteen-year-old Phil experiences muscle growth and notices the growth of body and facial hair. Which hormone is responsible for this change?
A) estrogen
B) testosterone
C) adrenal androgen
D) thyroxine
Q2) Jason, a late-maturing boy, is likely to __________.
A) be viewed by both adults and peers as self-confident
B) report more psychological stress than early-maturing boys
C) experience transient emotional difficulties
D) be involved in more problem behaviors than early-maturing boys
Q3) Fourteen-year-old Myles is certain he will be a professional baseball player. When his mother makes him stay home from practice because he has strep throat, Myles says, "You are ruining my life! You have no idea how hard it is to miss out on something you love to do!" Myles is experiencing a cognitive distortion known as __________.
A) the imaginary audience
B) the personal fable
C) metacognition
D) idealism

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Q1) Both identity __________ and __________ are psychologically healthy routes to mature self-definition.
A) moratorium; foreclosure
B) achievement; diffusion
C) foreclosure; diffusion
D) moratorium; achievement
Q2) Individuals at Kohlberg's postconventional level __________.
A) accept the rules of authority figures and judge actions by their consequences
B) believe that actively maintaining the current social system ensures societal order
C) define morality in terms of abstract principles and values that apply to all societies
D) view behaviors that result in punishment as bad and those that lead to rewards as good
Q3) Which statement about adolescent friendships is true?
A) Close friendships in early adolescence often interfere with identity development.
B) Close friendships provide a foundation for future intimate relationships.
C) Among boys, being in a clique predicts academic and social competence.
D) Among girls, clique membership predicts a decline in academic achievement.
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Q1) Which statement about smoking is true?
A) Compared to tobacco, marijuana use is much more addictive.
B) The largest drop in cigarette use is among women who did not finish high school.
C) Of young people who smoke cigarettes, the overwhelming majority started before age 21.
D) Although college students' marijuana use has decreased, their use of cigarettes has risen.
Q2) Yuri is a musician, Inez is an artist, and Danielle is a scientist. Which statement is probably true?
A) Danielle's creativity will peak later than that of the other two.
B) Inez's creativity will be the last to peak.
C) Yuri will be the last to show a rise in creativity.
D) Creativity will diminish equally among all three of them.
Q3) In longitudinal research, teacher expectations for educational attainment mattered most for __________ students.
A) college-bound
B) low-SES
C) high-SES
D) high-status

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Q1) Adult friends are usually __________.
A) different in sex and age, but similar in SES
B) similar in age, but different in sex and SES
C) different in SES and age, but similar in sex
D) similar in age, sex, and SES
Q2) For most new parents, the arrival of a baby __________.
A) causes a serious decline in marital satisfaction
B) leads to a short-term rise in relationship satisfaction
C) does not cause significant marital strain
D) leads to a sharp increase in overall life satisfaction
Q3) Most divorces occur __________ marriage.
A) within seven years of
B) between 8 and 11 years after
C) between 12 and 15 years after
D) after 18 to 20 years of
Q4) At present, 49 percent of U.S. adults __________.
A) live together as married couples
B) do not want to have children
C) have been married at least once
D) cohabit rather than marry
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Q1) Malcolm is a 45-year-old man and Flora is a 45-year-old woman. Which statement is the most likely to be true?
A) Malcolm is less active than Flora.
B) Flora is experiencing a more rapid age-related decline in muscle mass than Malcolm.
C) Flora, but not Malcolm, is experiencing an increase in body fat and loss of lean body mass.
D) Malcolm, but not Flora, would benefit from weight-bearing exercise.
Q2) Which statement is true about age-related slowing of cognitive processing?
A) According to one approach, aging is accompanied by the hardening of the myelin coating on neural fibers in the cerebral cortex.
B) One approach suggests that older adults experience greater loss of information as it moves through the cognitive system.
C) According to one approach, complex tasks, which have more processing steps, are less affected by information loss.
D) The age-related decline in processing speed is the only major predictor of age-related cognitive changes.
Q3) Discuss the changes that the skin undergoes during the aging process.
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Q1) Burnout is linked to __________.
A) improved memory
B) increased attention
C) on-the-job injuries
D) reasonable workloads
Q2) Which employee is the most likely to be assigned to a prestigious high-level management job?
A) Garrett, a European-American man
B) Nadine, an African-American woman
C) Carlos, a Hispanic man
D) Genevieve, a European-American woman
Q3) Highly generative people appear especially __________.
A) high in anxiety
B) low in autonomy
C) low in self-acceptance
D) well-adjusted
Q4) Describe the four typically cited gratifications of grandparenthood. How do middle-aged adults rate their role as grandparents?
Q5) Describe the sandwich generation.

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Q6) What is the feminization of poverty and how does divorce contribute to it?
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Q1) Low-SES older adults are __________ likely than higher-SES older adults to benefit from medical care because __________.
A) less; they are more likely to rely on holistic medicine
B) less; they are less optimistic that treatment will work
C) more; their medical care is paid for by the government
D) more; they are more trusting of the medical profession in general
Q2) Which statement is true about the types of lifelong learning programs available to older adults?
A) Continuing education programs for older adults primarily cater to those with little education and limited income.
B) The Road Scholar program originated in France and provides Western Europeans with campus-based programs.
C) Osher Lifelong Learning Institutes are located on more than 120 U.S. university campuses.
D) The University of the Third Age attracts nearly 100,000 American and Canadian older adults.
Q3) What are primary and secondary aging? How do they differ?
Q4) Discuss some nondrug protective factors that help reduce the risk of Alzheimer's disease.
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Q1) The more negative a caregiver-recipient relationship, __________.
A) the smaller the risk of financial abuse
B) the greater the risk of elder abuse of all kinds
C) the less vulnerable the older adult is to abuse
D) the smaller the risk of physical neglect
Q2) Describe THE GREEN HOUSEĀ® model. How is it different from traditional nursing home care?
Q3) Which older adult is more likely to be involved in both organized and informal religious activities?
A) Andres, a high-SES European American
B) Melanie, a middle-SES European American
C) Merlene, a high-SES African American
D) Jarrod, a low-SES African American
Q4) Which statement is true about the volunteer activities of aging adults?
A) Men volunteer more often than women.
B) Of those older adults who volunteer, over half give 200 or more hours per year.
C) About 10 percent of older adults in industrialized nations report volunteering.
D) Time spent volunteering usually begins to decline by age 60.
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Q1) The death of a __________ is the most difficult loss an adult can face.
A) spouse
B) parent
C) sibling
D) child
Q2) When Suzanne, Billie Jo's partner of 20 years, was dying, Suzanne's family barred Billie Jo from the hospital. And when Suzanne died, they prevented Billie Jo from attending the funeral. Consequently, Billie Jo may experience __________.
A) anticipatory grieving
B) disenfranchised grief
C) bereavement overload
D) emotional anesthesia
Q3) Which factor is among Oregon patients' most frequently expressed reasons for requesting medical aid-in-dying?
A) inadequate pain control
B) health-care costs
C) family-caregiving burdens
D) loss of autonomy
Q4) What is medical aid-in-dying? Is it legal in the United States?
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