Developmental Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Developmental Biology explores the processes by which organisms grow and develop, from fertilization through maturity. This course investigates the genetic, molecular, and cellular mechanisms underlying embryonic development, morphogenesis, differentiation, and organogenesis in various model organisms. Emphasis is placed on the regulation of gene expression, cell signaling pathways, pattern formation, stem cells, and the evolutionary perspectives of development. Students also examine current research techniques and the implications of developmental biology in medicine and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics From Genes to Genomes 5th Edition by Leland H. Hartwell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Genetics: The Study of Biological Information
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Q1) New genes are thought to arise by which mechanism?
A)Duplication followed by mutation of one of the copies.
B)Mating of two highly related species.
C)Duplication without mutation of any of the copies.
D)Mating of two species that are not related.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the difference between the function of DNA and the function of proteins?
A)DNA acts as the effector molecule while proteins store information.
B)Both molecules store information DNA in the order of its nucleetoides and proteins in the order of amino acids
C)DNA acts to store information while proteins are the effector molecules.
D)DNA provides structure to the cell while proteins act as enzymes
Answer: C
Q3) A genome can be best described as
A)a segment of DNA that codes for a protein.
B)DNA associated with proteins
C)an A-T or G-C nucleotide pair.
D)all the genes in a cell
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Mendels Principles of Heredity
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Q1) The dominant trait, Huntington disease causes severe neural/brain damage at approximately age 40.A female whose mother has Huntington disease marries a male whose parents are normal.It is not known if the female has the disease.What is the probability that their firstborn will inherit the gene that causes Huntington disease?
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
E)0%
Answer: A
Q2) Identify the mode of inheritance of the trait.
A)Dominant
B)Recessive
C)Either dominant or recessive
D)Cannot be determined
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Extensions to Mendels Laws
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Q1) The phenotypic ratio 9:7 may indicate
A)complete dominance.
B)codominance.
C)epistasis.
D)recessive lethal.
E)complementary gene action.
Answer: E
Q2) Predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the F<sub>1</sub> progeny of a cross between two colorless plants, one homozygous for A and the other homozygous for B.
A)AAbb, colorless
B)aaBB, colorless
C)AaBb, colored
D)AaBb, colorless
E)aabb, colored
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
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Q1) You examine cells with a microscope and detect that there are two Barr bodies present in each cell.What is the most likely genotype of the cells?
A)XX
B)XY
C)XO
D)XXY
E)XXX
Q2) Suppose you discovered a new mutation in mice that causes a curved spine.You noticed that this mutation is seen only in females.When curved-spine females are crossed with normal males, the progeny are always recovered in the ratio: 1/3 curved-spine females, 1/3 normal females, 1/3 normal males.Explain the genetic basis for this ratio.
A)Lethal autosomal allele
B)Lethal sex-linked allele
C)Recessive sex-linked allele
D)Recessive autosomal allele
E)Dominant sex-linked allele
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Chapter 5: Linkage, Recombination, and the Mapping of
Genes on Chromosomes
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Q1) Which statement(s) below apply to the concept of gene linkage?
A.The different alleles of two or more genes that are on a chromosome are inherited in an manner inconsistent with Mendel's Second law
B.Recombination between homologous chromosomes during meiosis results in different combinations of alleles for different genes
C.Recombination between sister chromatids during meiosis results in different combinations of alleles for different genes
A)A only
B)B only
C)C only
D)A and B
E)A, B, and C
Q2) What is the genotype of the tall, red, wide-leaved parent?
A)Tt Rr Ww
B)Tt Rr WW
C)TT RR WW
D)TT Rr Ww
E)TT RR Ww
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure, Replication, and Recombination
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Q1) Which one of the following is not an element found in DNA?
A)oxygen
B)sulfur
C)nitrogen
D)phosphorous
E)hydrogen
Q2) The ratio of _____ is 1:1.
A)guanine to adenine
B)adenine to thymine
C)cytosine to adenine
D)uracil to cytosine
Q3) How many origins of replication does the E.coli chromosome contain?
A)None
B)1
C)2
D)Several
E)Many
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8
Chapter 7: Anatomy and Function of a Gene: Dissection
Through Mutation
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Q1) The consequence to a bacterial cell of a mutation that inactivated the enzyme that methylates the A of the sequence GATC in newly made DNA would be
A)failure to carry out replication
B)failure to correct thymine dimers.
C)failure to distinguish old and new DNA during mismatch repair.
D)inactivation of certain metabolic genes.
E)decrease in the mutation rate
Q2) Excision repair corrects DNA by
A)removing a double-stranded fragment of damaged DNA.
B)detecting, removing, and replacing damaged or incorrect nucleotides in a single strand of DNA.
C)excising the incorrect base from a nucleotide
D)removing extraneous groups such as methyl or oxygen added by mutagens.
E)correcting A=T to C=G transitions.
Q3) Choose the condition below that does not involve a defect in an enzyme pathway.
A)Alkaptonuria
B)albinism
C)sickle cell anemia
D)Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gene Expression: The Flow of Information From
DNA to RNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription occurs in the ________ and translation occurs in the __________ of prokaryotic cells.
A)nucleus, cytoplasm
B)cytoplasm, nucleus
C)nucleus, nucleus
D)cytoplasm, cytoplasm
Q2) The enzyme that makes RNA from a DNA template is
A)RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
B)DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
C)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D)RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Q3) A codon is a three-base sequence of
A)mRNA that codes for an amino acid.
B)rRNA that codes for an amino acid.
C)tRNA that codes for an amino acid.
D)DNA that codes for an amino acid.
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10
Chapter 9: Digital Analysis of Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In gel electrophoresis of DNA, fragments move at different rates because they have different
A)charge densities.
B)sizes.
C)base sequences.
D)amino acid compositions.
E)electrical strengths.
Q2) What is one difference between using restriction endonucleases and mechanical shearing of DNA?
A)Restriction endonucleases digest at known specific sites while shearing occurs at random sites.
B)Restriction endonucleases digest at random sites while shearing occurs at known specific sites.
C)Restriction enzymes are a mechanical process while shearing occurs using proteins.
D)Restriction enzymes produce larger fragments on average than shearing.
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11
Chapter 10: Analyzing Genomic Information
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Q1) What techniques can be used to focus on a limited number of genes as being involved in a disease?
A)Comparison of genome sequence between variant databases.
B)Microarrays for mRNA expression analysis.
C)Analysis of all SSRs
D)Selection for those variants that result in silent mutations.
Q2) Positional cloning requires knowledge about the
A)function of a gene.
B)expression pattern of a gene.
C)map location of a gene.
D)sequence of a gene.
Q3) Deletions and duplications are most often caused by
A)ultraviolet light.
B)chemical damage.
C)unequal crossing over.
D)spontaneous errors in DNA replication.
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Chapter 11: The Eukaryotic Chromosome
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Q1) Histones and DNA have a strong attraction for each other because
A)DNA is positively charged and histones are negatively charged.
B)both DNA and proteins are hydrophobic.
C)DNA is negatively charged and histones are positively charged.
D)like substances share common charges.
Q2) You are studying a histone complex that contains an unusually high level of modification with acetyl groups.What can you conclude about the DNA bound to this histone complex?
A)It contains actively transcribed genes.
B)It is most likely heterochromatin.
C)It is most likely telomeric.
D)It is most likely derived from a condensed Barr body.
Q3) Which of the following predictions could you make about a cell in which the HP1 protein were disabled?
A)Methylation of DNA would increase.
B)The entirely of the cell's chromosomes would be condensed into heterochromatin.
C)Histone methyltransferase would bind to chromatin more easily.
D)Heterochromatin would not be formed.
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Rearrangements and Changes
in Chromosome Number
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Q1) Down syndrome can result from
A)three copies of chromosome 21.
B)a translocation of a part of chromosome 9.
C)a reciprocal translocation between any two autosomes.
D)trisomy X
Q2) Which of the following molecular techniques could a scientist use to help locate genes on cloned fragments of DNA with deletion mutants?
A)in situ hybridization and cross over analysis
B)crossover and Southern blot analysis
C)Southern blot , crossover analysis and in situ hybridization
D)in situ hybridization and Southern blot analysis
Q3) When a crossover occurs within the inversion loop of a pericentric inversion each recombinant chromatid will have
A)a dicentric bridge.
B)no duplications.
C)a deletion of some genes in the inverted region.
D)no mutations
Q4) Any DNA segment that moves about in the genome
Q5) An enzyme that catalyzes a transposition event
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) Metagenomics may be useful because
A)it could be used to detect diseases..
B)It will allow for the sequencing of entire bacterial species genomes.
C)Metagenomes do not change rapidly.
D)Metagenomes are not responsive to environmental canges.
Q2) A strain of N.gonorrhoeae is isolated that does not have a plasmid.If a lysate is made from the bacterium it cannot degrade penecillin in an in vitro assay.When a cuture of this strain is grown in a solution that contains radioactive penicillin the amount of penecilllin found within cells is less than the amount found in a non-resistant strain.Sequence of the porin gene from the resitant strain does not have any mutations.What is the most likely mechanism of resistnace in this strain?
A)MtR mutation that results in inactivation or inhiition of MtR activity.
B)penA nonsense mutation.
C)penA missense mutation.
D)Genome carries pen<sup>r</sup> gene.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Organellar Inheritance
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Q1) Maternal-chloroplast inherited
Q2) Comparison of mitochondrial RNA with the genome sequence of mitochondria demonstrated that
A)at least some of the RNA had insertions and deletions of uracil residues
B)there are no differences in the sequences of the RNA compared to the genomic DNA from which it was transcribed.
C)the proteins necessary for translation are coded for in the mitochondrial genome.
D)translation is initiated in mitochondria using only the AUG codon.
Q3) Which of the following has been associated with aging in humans?
A)Increase in the number of mitochondria
B)No change in the sequence of the mitochondrial genomes
C)Decrease in mitochondrail function.
D)Increase in mitochondrial function.
Q4) Oocyte transfer could be used to
A)allow women with mitochondrial diseases to have normal offspring.
B)allow women with any genetic disease to have normal offspring.
C)enhance the ability of parents to improve the gene content of their children.
D)creation of embryos for stem cell therapy.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Prokaryotes
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Q1) V.fischeri senses the desity of V.fisheri cells in the environment by A)secretion of a molecule that can then internalized and bound to a receptor in the cytoplasm.
B)cell surface receptors that interact with other cell surface receptors on other cells.
C)a cell surface receptor that binds to a molecule secreted by other cells present in the external environment.
D)a cytoplasmic receptor that binds to the lux C protein.
Q2) Transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria but not eukaryotes since
A)there is no nuclear membrane in prokaryotes.
B)there is no nuclear membrane in eukaryotes.
C)the bacterial DNA is in the nucleoid
D)eukaryotic chromosomes are found in nucleoids.
Q3) What is one possible advantage for targeting quorum sensing mechanisms for antibiotic delveopment?
A)There is no selective advantage for cells lacking quorum sensing mechanisms
B)There is a selective advantage to those cells lacking a quorum sensing system.
C)Quorum sensing mechanisms are found in all pathogenic bacteria.
D)Quorum sensing mechanisms are only found in human pathogens.
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In generating a reporter construct to study gene regulation, the reporter gene introduced replaces A)\(\beta\)-galactosidase.
B)a random region of DNA.
C)the cis-acting regulatory DNA sequence.
D)X-gal.
E)the coding region of the gene being studied.
Q2) In Drosophila females, Sxl protein associates with RNA alters the splicng pattern of the transcripts from which gene?
A)sax
B)max
C)sxl
D)myc
E)SIR
Q3) What does RNA polymerase I synthesize?
A)dsRNA
B)mRNA
C)tRNA
D)snRNA
E)rRNA
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Chapter 17: Manipulating the Genomes of Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is one problem associated with using retroviruses as human gene therapy vectors?
A)Their random integration into the host chromosome may result in detrimental mutations.
B)They need to integrate through an RNA intermediate.
C)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very low.
D)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very high.
Q2) What is the purpose of the P element in the creation of trasngenic Drosophila?
A)Efficiently transfer DNA into Drosophila chromosomes
B)Transfer DNA into a specific site in the host chromosome.
C)Transfer DNA only into the nuclei of somatic cells.
D)Transfer DNA only into primitive eye cells.
Q3) A unique trait of embryonic stem cells that make them useful for generating knockout animals is that they
A)are totipotent.
B)can be grown in culture.
C)have been isolated from mice.
D)are extremely well characterized at the molecular level.
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Chapter 18: The Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) Mutations that disrupt the earliest stages of human development almost always cause
A)no effect.
B)polydactyly.
C)spontaneous abortion.
D)disruption of the segmented body plan.
Q2) What is the order in development for the different types of genes?
A)Maternal effect, gap rule, pair rule, segment polarity
B)Maternal effect, gap rule, segment polarity, pair rule
C)Maternal effect, pair rule, segment polarity, gap rule
D)Maternal effect, segment polarity, gap rule, pair rule
Q3) What technique would be used to best study a phenocopy?
A)RNAi
B)transgene
C)isolation of mutations
D)QTL mapping analysis
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Chapter 19: The Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) The ability of a cell to move to other parts of the body is known as A)metastasis
B)contact inhibition
C)vascularization
D)angiogenesis.
Q2) What is the term for a mutated gene that can act dominantly to predispose a cell to a cancerous phenotype?
A)Polymerases
B)Oncogenes
C)Activators
D)Tumor suppressors
Q3) What is a characteristic that is typical of a cancer cell but not of a normal cell?
A)Cell division is inhibited when they contact neighboring cells
B)Lack of an S phase in the cell cycle.
C)Ability to invade surrounding tissue.
D)Limited number of divisions before the cell dies.
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21
Chapter 20: Variation and Selection in Populations
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Q1) What evidence supports the hypothesis that humans originated in Africa?
A)H.spaiens genomes contain some Neaderthal DNA sequences.
B)A Y chromosomal mutation is common in 1 in 1,000 males in Asia.
C)Mt sequence variation is least in African populations.
D)Mt sequence variation is highest in African populations.
Q2) The loss of allelic variation due to an event that decreases the size of the entire population is called
A)gene flow.
B)genetic drift.
C)founder effect.
D)population bottleneck.
E)selection.
Q3) Why do the alleles that confer insecticide resistance in mosquitoes become less frequent in the population when insecticide application is disconintued?
A)The mosquiotes experienced a bottle neck effect
B)The alleles were linked to a color variation that allowed for the mosquitoes that were resistant to have a higher rate of predation.
C)The population experienced genetic drift
D)The alleles for resistance had a negative fitness cost.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genetics of Complex Traits
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Q1) The total phenotype variance (V<sub>P</sub>) is A)the sum of genetic variance (V<sub>G</sub>) and environmental variance (V<sub>E</sub>).
B)the difference between V<sub>G</sub> and V<sub>E</sub>.
C)not dependent on V<sub>G</sub>.
D)not dependent on V<sub>E</sub>.
E)always constant.
Q2) The response to selection, R, is equal to
A)the heritability (h<sup>2</sup>) of a trait.
B)the strength (S) of selection.
C)the difference between h<sup>2</sup> and S.
D)S/h<sup>2</sup>.
E)h<sup>2</sup>S.
Q3) Which of the following is not true about monozygotic twins?
A)They share all alleles at all loci.
B)They have a genetic relatedness of 0.5.
C)They have a genetic relatedness of 1.0.
D)They come from the joining of a single egg with a single sperm cell.
E)They are the result of a split of the zygote after fertilization.
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