Developmental Biology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Developmental Biology explores the molecular, genetic, and cellular mechanisms that guide the growth and formation of organisms from fertilization to adulthood. This course covers key processes such as cell differentiation, morphogenesis, pattern formation, and organogenesis, integrating concepts from genetics, embryology, and molecular biology. Students will examine how regulatory networks control development in model organisms and humans, investigate the causes and consequences of developmental disorders, and evaluate cutting-edge methods and discoveries in the field. Emphasis is placed on experimental approaches, critical analysis of scientific literature, and the implications of developmental biology for medicine and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photosynthesis by plants and certain microbes traps the energy in light and uses it to:
A)reduce glucose into carbon dioxide.
B)synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
C)generate ATP from the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) You discover that you suffer from a deficiency in the amino acid tryptophan.At the pharmacy,you find both d-tryptophan and l-tryptophan supplements.Which do you purchase? Why?
Answer: You should choose l-tryptophan.All amino acids can exist as one of two stereoisomers (d or l)because of asymmetry around the carbon.Proteins consist of the l form of amino acids,and as these stereoisomers possess distinct biological properties and are not readily interconverted,you should choose the form that is normally utilized by cells.
Q3) How do cells maintain a relatively constant pH despite the fact that many metabolic processes produce acids?
Answer: All cells contain buffers such as phosphate ions that can absorb or release protons or hydroxyl ions to stabilize pH changes near neutral pH.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) To see if your polymerase chain reaction was successful and it amplified the right sequence of interest,you electrophorese the products from the reaction on an agarose gel.After staining the gel you find there are two bands of different sizes.Which one of the following is a possible explanation for these results?
A)The PCR induced a frame shift mutation into the DNA sequence.
B)RNA polymerase copied the DNA into two copies of RNA.
C)The primers annealed to two different templates.
D)a and b
Answer: C
Q2) Describe some typical features of a restriction enzyme recognition sequence. Answer: Restriction enzyme recognition sequences are typically 4-8 base pairs in length and are often palindromic,which means that the sequence read in the 5´ to 3´ direction is the same on each DNA strand.For example,the recognition sequence for EcoRI is 5´ GAATTC 3´.The complementary sequence is 3´ CTTAAG 5´,which is the same sequence when read in the 5´ to 3´ direction.
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) Protein kinase A is converted from an inactive state to an active state by binding:
A)ATP.
B)calcium.
C)cAMP.
D)ATP and cAMP.
Answer: C
Q2) For an enzyme-catalyzed reaction,doubling the concentration of enzyme will:
A)double the Vm .
B)halve the Vm .
C)double the Km.
D)halve the Km.
Answer: A
Q3) Protein self-splicing:
A)is autocatalytic.
B)occurs in all eukaryotes.
C)is an ATP-dependent process.
D)is autocatalytic and occurs in all eukaryotes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Q1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum can be separated from smooth endoplasmic reticulum by differential centrifugation.What is the basis for this fractionation?
Q2) The phenomenon in which a chemical absorbs light at one wavelength and emits it at a specific and longer wavelength is called:
A)differential interference contrast.
B)fluorescence.
C)deconvolution.
D)shadowing.
Q3) Fluorescence microscopy of intact organisms or large cells results in the generation of blurred images.Which of the following is NOT a technique that reduces the out-of-focus signal that causes blurring?
A)two-photon excitation microscopy
B)confocal microscopy
C)fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP)
D)deconvolution microscopy
Q4) You are studying lamins and use an antibody method to follow their expression and subcellular localization at the electron microscope level.What process would you use to find these proteins in the bacteria E.coli?
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Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Q1) Why is the enzyme reverse transcriptase found within retroviral virions?
Q2) Which of the following is seen when a single mRNA is simultaneously translated to form multiple copies of a polypeptide chain?
A)phagosome
B)multisome
C)nucleosome
D)polysome
Q3) In humans,the ribosome responsible for translating proteins consists of which of following two subunits?
A)60S and 30S
B)40S and 50S
C)18S and 40S
D)60S and 40S
Q4) The genetic code is said to be "degenerate" because:
A)amino acid sequences are always read in the 3' 5' direction of the mRNA.
B)amino acids are encoded only by DNA sequences found in introns.
C)a particular amino acid can be specified by more than one codon.
D)tryptophan is the first amino acid in all polypeptide chains.
Q5) What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophages?
Q6) What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Q1) What experimental evidence supports the fluid mosaic model of biomembranes?
Q2) There are several enzymes involved in cholesterol biosynthetic pathway.Which of these is subject to feedback regulation? How does this enzyme sense cholesterol levels?
Q3) In immunofluorescence studies you always see the small G-protein Ras in a specific region of the cell and,given its protein sequence along with many other proteins localized to this area,you hypothesize that their C-terminal Cys-Ala-Ala-X (X can be any amino acid)motifs may be responsible for targeting these proteins to this subcellular region.To test this hypothesis,you genetically engineer the sequence encoding this motif onto a cDNA encoding green fluorescent protein.When immunofluorescence is used,where specifically would you expect to see GFP localized in the cell?
A)in the nucleus
B)in the cytoplasm
C)in the Golgi
D)at the plasma membrane
Q4) Describe how you would prepare liposomes from a biological membrane.
Q5) How do animal cells maintain membrane fluidity,and hence membrane function,in response to decreased temperature?
Q6) What are the primary functions of the plasma membrane in all cells?
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give a functional definition of a gene.
Q2) You are studying the regulation of a group of genes and have determined that the full activation of transcription of these genes occurs when histone acetyl transferases have made post-translational modifications specifically to which one of the following amino acids?
A)glycine
B)glutamine
C)lysine
D)proline
Q3) The chicken lysozyme gene is considered to be a solitary gene because A)it contains no introns.
B)it is not present on a chromosome.
C)it is represented only once in the haploid genome.
D)none of the above
Q4) All the following steps are performed by the enzyme transposase during transposition of bacterial insertion sequences except
A)excision of the IS element from the donor DNA molecule.
B)introduction of staggered cuts into the target DNA molecule.
C)ligation of the IS element to the target DNA.
D)synthesis of DNA to fill in the single-stranded gaps.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) Describe how the electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)and the DNase I footprinting techniques are used to identify DNA-protein interactions.
Q2) What is an enhanceosome?
Q3) What is the functional difference between enhancers and promoter proximal elements?
Q4) Which of the following is not a structural motif found in a DNA-binding domain?
A)homeodomain
B)zinc-finger
C)helix-loop-helix
D)random-coil acidic domain
Q5) All of the following events play a role in yeast-mating type switching except A)methylation of the silent-mating-type locus.
B)transcription of the gene at the MAT locus.
C)chromatin condensation at the silent mating type locus.
D)a recombination event known as gene conversion.
Q6) X chromosome inactivation in mammals is mediated by A)micro RNAs (miRNA).
B)long non-coding RNAs (ncRNA).
C)messenger RNA (mRNA).
D)short RNA-directed methylation of histones and DNA.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Q1) microRNAs play a key role in which of the following?
A)translational repression
B)viral RNA degradation
C)RNA interference
D)all of the above
Q2) Which type of RNA participates in nuclear export of mRNA?
A)snRNA
B)hnRNA
C)tRNA
D)rRNA
Q3) Which of the following regarding the P-body is FALSE?
A)it contains decapping enzymes
B)it is a deadenylase complex
C)it has exoribonuclease activity
D)it is the site where polysomes form
Q4) snRNP-dependent splicing of pre-mRNA is thought to have evolved from the self-splicing properties inherent in the sequence of either group I or II introns.Alternative splicing of pre-mRNAs processed by spliceosomes has been demonstrated,whereas this phenomenon does not occur in RNA transcripts that undergo self-splicing.Explain this difference.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small
Molecules
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Q1) Which of the following is true about glucose transporters?
A)GLUT-2 and GLUT-4 are expressed on all cell types.
B)All the members of the GLUT family have the same affinity for glucose.
C)Cells that express GLUT-1 and GLUT-3 display more glucose uptake than cells expressing GLUT-2 at physiological blood concentrations (5 mM).
D)GLUT proteins are specific for glucose molecules and will not transport other sugars.
Q2) Describe in general terms how the muscle Ca² ATPase pumps Ca² ions from the cytosol into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
Q3) ABC superfamily proteins are thought to act as ATP-dependent flippases in transporting:
A)lipophilic drugs out of mammalian cells.
B)Ca² out of mammalian cells.
C)H out of mammalian cells.
D)Na out of mammalian cells,K into mammalian cells.
Q4) Explain why ATP-powered proton pumps cannot by themselves acidify the lumen of the lysosome.
Q5) Describe how aquaporins facilitate the movement of water across the plasma membrane.
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Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Q1) Early investigators thought the oxygen produced by photosynthetic plants came from carbon dioxide.In fact,it comes from:
A)water.
B)air.
C)electrons from NADPH.
D)glucose.
Q2) Based on what you know about the action spectra of photosynthesis,irradiating a leaf with which of the following light types would result in the release of the greatest quantities of oxygen?
A)red and orange light
B)red and blue light
C)green and blue light
D)violet and yellow light
Q3) In the overall reaction for cellular respiration,glucose is:
A)oxidized to CO .
B)reduced to CO .
C)oxidized to O .
D)reduced to O .
Q4) What is photorespiration? How is it related to photosynthesis?
Q5) What is the function of the malate-aspartate shuttle?
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Q1) The nuclear pore complex (NPC)contains_____ structures that form a gel-like matrix that allow small molecules to diffuse through,but require larger proteins to enter via importin or other nuclear chaperones.
A)nuclear localization signals (NLS)
B)nuclear lamina
C)structural nucleoporin
D)FG-nucleoporin
Q2) Post-translational translocation of some secretory proteins in yeast is powered by:
A)ATP hydrolysis by BiP.
B)cAMP hydrolysis by cAMP phosphodiesterase.
C)GTP hydrolysis EF-Tu.
D)phospholipid hydrolysis by phospholipase C.
Q3) Transport of unspliced HIV mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm of host cells is promoted by a virus-encoded protein named:
A)Tat.
B)Rev.
C)nucleoplasmin.
D)Ran.
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Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Soluble and membrane proteins advance through the Golgi complex by:
A)cisternal progression.
B)stable continuities between Golgi cisterna.
C)transient continuities between Golgi cisterna.
D)vesicular transport.
Q2) Which of the following is a forward transport sorting signal acting at the ER?
A)diacidic amino acid motif within the cytosolic domain
B)KDEL (Lys-Asp-Glu-Leu)C-terminal sequence
C)KKXX (Lys-Lys-X-X)within the cytosolic domain
D)NPXY (Asn-Pro-X-Tyr)within the cytosolic domain
Q3) Acidification of endosomes is important in dissociating:
A)cholesterol from LDL.
B)iron from transferrin.
C)transferrin from the transferrin receptor.
D)all of the above
Q4) How can the direction in which vesicles move in a VSV G-based,cell-free system for transport between Golgi compartments be distinguished?
Q5) What is autophagy?
Q6) Describe the types of mutations in the LDL receptor that would cause familial hypercholesterolemia.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Q1) Cholera toxin can make you sick through overactivation of a G s pathway even if your body stops making the ligand associated with activation of the pathway.Knowing this,which of the following CANNOT be true about cholera toxin?
A)It chemically modifies the G s protein.
B)Cholera toxin activates a ligand-activated G protein-coupled receptor.
C)It prevents hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP.
D)It leads to continuous activation of adenylyl cyclase.
Q2) Signal amplification is an important part of GPCR-mediated signaling.Which of the following steps do NOT directly amplify the signal?
A)effector activation
B)binding of second messenger to target protein/ion channel
C)kinase acting on substrates
D)second messenger generation
Q3) Describe the steps in the synthesis of 1,2-diacylglycerol (DAG)and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP )from phosphatidylinositol (PI).
Q4) What experimental approach was used to identify functional domains of G protein-coupled receptors?
Q5) Describe the differences between an agonist and an antagonist.
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Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Q1) Which of the following signaling pathways can be activated by cytokines?
A)JAK/STAT
B)PI-3 kinase
C)Ras/MAP kinase
D)JAK/STAT and PI-3 kinase
E)all of the above
Q2) The EGF receptor is a(n):
A)adapter protein.
B)guanine nucleotide exchange protein.
C)kinase.
D)protease.
E)none of the above
Q3) In the NF-B signaling pathway,which of the following molecules is downstream of I-B kinase?
A)NF-B
B)TAK1
C)TNF-
D)NF-B and TAK1
E)all of the above
Q4) What feature allows TGF signaling molecules to be quickly mobilized?
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Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Q1) During treadmilling,actin subunits add:
A)predominantly to filament (+)ends.
B)predominantly to filament ( )ends.
C)equally to both filament ends.
D)along the length of filaments.
Q2) Actin-binding proteins that generate actin filament bundles:
A)are long and flexible.
B)bind only to the ends of actin filaments.
C)can also bundle microtubules.
D)are short and inflexible.
Q3) What is the function of thymosin ?
Q4) Cofilin:
A)cleaves actin by binding the ATP-actin in the filament.
B)cleaves actin by twisting adjacent F-actin monomers in the filament.
C)recruits G-actin monomers to the elongating F-actin microfilament.
D)promotes exchange of ADP for ATP on G actin.
Q5) Describe the functional properties of the head,neck,and tail domains of myosin.
Page 18
Q6) How do actin filaments appear when viewed by negative stain electron microscopy?
Q7) What cellular components cause some actin filaments to form bundles and others to form networks?
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II: Microtubules
and Intermediate Filaments
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Q1) For kinesin motors,the direction of movement along a microtubule is specified by the motor's:
A)motor (head)domain.
B)neck region.
C)stalk domain.
D)tail domain.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about cilia?
A)All cilia arise from nine sets of outer triplet microtubules (similar to centrioles).
B)Cilia contain the same transport system as flagella,called IFT.
C)All cells with cilia are motile because of the axonemal dynein motor.
D)Primary cilia contain receptors that increase the cell's responsiveness to its environment.
Q3) At MTOCs,microtubule nucleation is facilitated by:
A)centrioles.
B) -tubulin.
C)GDP-tubulin dimers.
D)basal bodies.
Q4) What role do astral microtubules play in spindle elongation?
Q5) What happens to a microtubule that loses its GTP cap?
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Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Q1) Exit from mitosis depends upon the degradation of: A)cohesion.
B)condensin.
C)cyclin B.
D)securin.
Q2) What is a cdc mutant? What protein is encoded by cdc2 in fission yeast?
Q3) Which of the following S.pombe mutants is(are)larger than normal?
A)cdc2
B)cdc25
C)wee1
D)cdc25 and wee1
Q4) Centromeric Rec8 becomes cleaved during:
A)meiosis I.
B)meiosis II.
C)mitosis.
D)none of the above
Q5) What are the biochemical activities of Wee1 and Cdc25 proteins? How do these activities regulate MPF?
Q6) What is the difference between a kinetochore and a centromere?
Q7) How does p53 function as a tumor-suppressor protein?
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Q1) Which one of the following is NOT a property of perlecan?
A)It contains laminin-like LG domains.
B)It is a proteoglycan.
C)It is only found in the basal lamina.
D)It is a glycoprotein.
Q2) Cellular responses to adhesion receptor signaling do NOT include:
A)cell proliferation.
B)cytoskeletal organization.
C)gene transcription.
D)all of the above
Q3) The major families of cell surface adhesion molecules include:
A)cadherins and selectins.
B)integrins.
C)the Ig-superfamily.
D)all of the above
Q4) Describe the importance of extravasation and how leukocytes use this mechanism to fight infection/inflammation.
Q5) What is the function of a gap junction?
Q6) What is a polarized epithelial cell?
Q7) What are the cytoskeletal proteins associated with hemidesmosomes?
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Q1) Describe two ways that stem cells can be induced to divide asymmetrically.
Q2) The mating projection or shmoo in budding yeast cells relies on having:
A)Cdc42 recruited and localized to the region near the highest concentration of mating pheromone.
B)formin proteins to nucleate the assembly of actin filaments.
C)myosin V to move secretory vesicles to the plus (+)ends of microfilaments.
D)all of the above
Q3) Examination of a cell's structure reveals condensed chromatin,a shrunken cytoplasm,but unfragmented DNA and a lack of blebbing.If this cell has been triggered to undergo apoptosis by an extrinsic factor,which of the following events has NOT likely happened yet?
A)activation of a TNF- receptor
B)recruitment of TRADD
C)recruitment of FADD
D)activation of caspases
Q4) Which of the following triggers apoptosis?
A)Fas ligand
B)NGF
C)TNF
D)Fas ligand and TNF
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) The resting potential of a typical neuron is:
A) 60 mV.
B)0 mV.
C)20 mV.
D)50 mV.
Q2) Signaling at synapses is usually terminated by:
A)calcium influx.
B)potassium influx.
C)inhibitory neurotransmitters.
D)degradation or reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Q3) Myelinated axons have the conduction velocity of much larger axons (unmyelinated of course)because of all the following reasons,except:
A)voltage channels are only present at the nodes of Ranvier.
B)saltatory conduction.
C)more ion channels are present in myelinated axons.
D)insulation.
Q4) How does the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor function as a ligand-gated ion channel at nerve-muscle synapses?
Q5) Why do chili peppers seem hot?
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Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a heavy chain isotype?
A)
B)
C)k
D)
Q2) Describe how the heavy chains and light chains are arranged in IgA or IgG antibody molecules.
Q3) Which of the following peaks earliest in the time course of a viral infection?
A)type I interferons
B)NK cells
C)virus-specific CTLs
D)antibody titers
Q4) Which class of immunoglobulins is made first?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q5) Compare the class I and class II pathways of antigen processing and presentation.What kinds of antigens are involved? Which types of T cells recognize the antigen-MHC protein complexes?
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) What are the differences and similarities between the transforming genes of retroviruses and those of DNA tumor viruses?
Q2) Which of the following is(are)a tumor suppressor gene?
A)APC
B)ras
C)Rb
D)APC and Rb
Q3) Burkitt's lymphoma results from the overproduction of: A)Fos.
B)Myc.
C)Ras.
D)Src.
Q4) Which of the following proteins involved in angiogenesis is paired correctly with its function?
A)HIF - tyrosine kinase
B)VEGF - receives a secreted signal to induce blood vessel growth
C)oxygen sensor - transcription factor
D)VEGF receptor - tyrosine kinase
Q5) What renders erbB and her2 oncogenic? What are their normal proto-oncogene counterparts?
26
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