Dental Radiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Radiology is a specialized course that delves into the principles, techniques, and clinical applications of radiographic imaging in dentistry. It covers the fundamental physics of X-ray production, image formation, and safety protocols to minimize radiation exposure. Students learn about various radiographic techniques, including intraoral and extraoral methods, digital imaging, and interpretation of radiographs for diagnostic purposes. The course emphasizes the identification of normal and pathological findings, infection control procedures, and the critical role of radiology in comprehensive dental care and treatment planning.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) If the useful beam is not centered on the film in the patient's mouth, the result will be:
A)foreshortening
B)elongation
C)collimator cutoff
D)overlapping
Answer: C
Q2) The determination of the size and shape of the x-ray beam is called ________. Answer: collimation
Q3) Which of the following is used in the high-voltage circuit?
A)a rectifier
B)a step-up transformer
C)a step-down transformer
D)a fuse
Answer: B
Q4) The amount of heat produced in the x-ray tube is ________ than the amount of radiation produced. Answer: greater
Q5) The quantity of x-ray photons produced is determined by the _________ setting. Answer: milliamperage
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) A radiographic image produced with a kVp setting of approximately 65 will appear as an:
A)image with high-contrast
B)image with short-scale contrast
C)image with mostly black and white areas
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) When the position-indicating device (PID)is positioned 2 inches away from the face and all other factors are equal, the resulting film will be:
A)light
B)dark
C)distorted
D)magnified
Answer: A
Q3) All of the following will keep the penumbra as small as possible EXCEPT:
A)small focal spot
B)small OFD
C)angulation of the target
D)decreased FFD
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) Rare earth intensifying screens differ from calcium tungstate screens in:
A)the cost
B)the amount of light photons generated in the cassette
C)their flexibility
D)the image definition
Q2) The lead foil backing is included in the intraoral film packet:
A)to absorb back-scattered radiation
B)to help keep the film packet light-tight
C)to hold the film in place
D)to protect the film from saliva
Q3) Identify the fastest film speed currently available for intraoral radiography:
A)B
B)C
C)E
D)F
Q4) The main advantage of intensifying screens is:
A)quicker developing
B)less radiation to the patient
C)easier to prepare the cassette
D)better image definition
Page 5
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The quality factor in measuring x-radiation is ___________.
Q2) Which of the following factors affects the response to radiation?
A)dose rate
B)total dose
C)age
D)cell sensitivity
E)all of the above
Q3) The total body radiation dose from a four bitewing examination utilizing E-speed film and rectangular collimation is approximately:
A)1 hour of background radiation
B)12 hours of background radiation
C)2 weeks of background radiation
D)1 month of background radiation
Q4) Radiation damage to somatic cells is ________ passed on to succeeding generations.
Q5) All of the following are traditional units of radiation measurement EXCEPT:
A)roentgen
B)gray
C)radiation absorbed dose
D)roentgen equivalent man
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) It is predicted that the MPD will ________ be reduced in the near future.
Q2) To get the diagnostic benefits from radiographs, optimum film viewing requirements include:
A)use of an illuminating device
B)use of a film mount
C)a darkened room
D)all of the above
Q3) Identify the true statement concerning film badges:
A)film badges are expensive
B)the dental operator's radiation exposure can be easily evaluated
C)dental professionals can wear the film badge at all times, indoor and outdoor as well
D)dental professionals can wear the film badge during medical radiation procedures
Q4) Scatter radiation is a form of:
A)primary radiation
B)secondary radiation
C)both a and b
D)none of the above
Q5) Mechanical timers are usually inaccurate by at least a _________ second.
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Q1) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q2) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q3) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Q1) The typical wattage of a bulb used in safelighting is 60 to 75 watts. The safelight should be placed 3 to 4 feet from the working area.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) Under typical working conditions, the developer and fixer solutions should be changed:
A)at least every other day
B)once each week
C)every 2 to 3 weeks
D)every 2 to 3 months
Q3) The concentrated solution that is added to the processing solutions to compensate for oxidation and loss of solution volume is called:
A)acidifier
B)replenisher
C)hardener
D)oxidizer
Q4) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Q1) The steps of infection control are taken to benefit and protect:
A)ourselves
B)our fellow workers
C)our patients
D)all of the above
Q2) In a practice in which there are many HIV-positive patients, the film rollers in automatic processors should be:
A)scrubbed with an abrasive cleaner every day
B)autoclaved every day
C)disinfected after every use
D)treated in the usual acceptable manner
Q3) Items to consider for infection control with radiographic procedures include:
A)lead apron
B)film packets
C)dental chair
D)all of the above
Q4) Soaps for hand washing in the dental operatory should be _____________.
Q5) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
Q6) HBV and HBC are acronyms for types of the _________ virus.
Page 10
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) In a full-mouth survey:
A)periapical films of edentulous areas are not taken
B)bitewing films of edentulous areas are taken
C)periapical films of edentulous areas are taken
D)opposing teeth for bitewings are not necessary
Q2) Bitewings are usually taken:
A)by the paralleling method
B)by the bisecting method
C)in protrusive relation
D)none of the above
Q3) In the paralleling method, the zygomatic process of the maxilla is:
A)superimposed on the apex of the second maxillary molar
B)not seen
C)not superimposed on the apex of the maxillary molars
D)used as a point of entry
Q4) Using the paralleling technique to evaluate periodontal bone height is essential because the paralleling technique prevents excessive ______________.
Q5) Reversing the film to the x-ray beam will cause ___________.
Q6) An overexposed film will appear similar to a (an)__________ film.
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Q1) The imaginary angle that is bisected with the use of the Bisecting Angle Technique is formed between the long axis of the tooth and:
A)the long axis of the PID
B)the horizontal axis of the film
C)the long axis of the film
D)the horizontal axis of the tube head
Q2) Compared with standard intraoral films, the occlusal film size is approximately:
A)the same
B)twice as large
C)4 times as large
D)8 times as large
Q3) A +75 degree vertical angulation for a maxillary cuspid will produce a (an)________ image.
Q4) Identify a possible patient scenario in which the bisecting angle technique would be used:
A)an adult with a small mouth
B)a child
C)a person with a low palatal vault
D)all of the above
Q5) If the vertical angulation of the PID is insufficient, _______ will result.
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Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Q1) A large radiopacity is seen on the middle of the panoramic film. Identify the cause of this appearance:
A)patient was slouched in the unit
B)patient's lead apron was placed too high
C)patient moved during the exposure
D)patient's chin was tilted up too far
Q2) The plane of the object that is not blurred on the panoramic radiograph is termed:
A)image layer
B)focal trough
C)plane of acceptable detail
D)all of the above
Q3) Patient movement during the taking of a pantomogram is reduced by:
A)a three-point fixation of the patient's head
B)reducing exposure time
C)having the patient rinse with mouthwash
D)taking the film sitting down
Q4) A panoramic unit has a narrowly collimated __________.
Q5) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) The best extraoral projection to detect a fracture of the zygomatic arch is the
Q2) For patients with bilateral mandibular impactions, the right and left lateral oblique techniques have been replaced by:
A)occlusal films
B)posterior anterior projections
C)panoramic films
D)all of the above
Q3) The extraoral projection used in cephalometric analysis is the _________ projection.
Q4) If there is no cassette available, in an emergency a (an)___________ can be used to make a lateral oblique projection of the mandible.
Q5) Identify the projection used to view the sphenoid and ethmoid sinuses:
A)posteroanterior
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q6) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) On the average, the exposure time at 65 kVp and 10 mA for a transcranial projection is:
A)7 to 10 impulses
B)7 to 10 seconds
C)7 to 15 impulses
D)7 to 15 seconds
Q2) _________ enables viewing of an area in three planes.
Q3) Complications may occur with:
A)arthrography
B)MRI
C)CT
D)a panoramic radiograph
Q4) When examining the TMJ, one disadvantage of computed tomography is that this type of scan does not include images of the:
A)external meatus of the ear
B)mandibular condyle
C)articular disc
D)articular eminence
Q5) The ________ projection can be used to view the TMJ from the axial plane.
Page 15
Q6) The major cause of TMJ disorders is the __________.
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) The wireless system that uses a plate and laser beam scanning to produce an image is known as:
A)direct digital radiography with CCD system
B)direct digital radiography with CMOS system
C)storage phosphor system
D)optically scanned digital imaging
Q2) Compared to D-speed film, the reduction of radiation dose to the patient when using digital imaging is approximately:
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)90%
Q3) A digital image is composed of structurally ordered areas called:
A)phosphors
B)signals
C)pixels
D)sensors
Q4) Two types of direct sensors are ________ and ________.
Q5) One of the advantages of digital radiography over film is _________.
Q6) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Page 16
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) ___________ sources of energy are used for CT scanning than for MRI.
Q2) MRI actually measures:
A)electron density
B)proton density
C)neutron density
D)all of the above
Q3) A CT scan taken in the axial plane can be reformatted to the _______ and _________ planes.
Q4) Water makes up approximately:
A)50% of human tissue
B)10% of human tissue
C)70% of human tissue
D)1% of human tissue
Q5) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
Q6) The wavelengths used in MRI are:
A)long
B)cannot cause ionization
C)do not produce a radiation dose to the patient
D)all of the above
Q7) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) The sensors used with direct digital radiography should be covered with barrier sheaths before use to avoid sensor contamination. Phosphor plates used with indirect digital radiography should also be covered with an infection control barrier before use.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q2) To maintain high levels of chairside competence, a successful QA program will employ:
A)self-evaluation programs
B)continuing education courses
C)peer review with other professionals in the office
D)all of the above
Q3) Quality assurance programs include:
A)keeping accurate records
B)maintaining darkroom cleanliness
C)producing acceptable radiographs
D)all of the above
Q4) The powder capable of contaminating intraoral film is approximately ___% lead.
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q2) Two examples of the use of a contrast medium for diagnosis are:
1) arthrography
2) inverse square rule
3) sialography
4) buccal object rule
5) vitality testing
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 5
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3
Q3) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Q4) A film that is dragged across the patient's palate may cause ___________.
Q5) Identify an option(s)for radiographing a patient with trismus:
A)extraoral radiographs
B)intraoral placement with a hemostat
C)panoramic radiographs
D)all of the above
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) All of the following can appear on a radiograph of the mandibular incisors EXCEPT:
A)nutrient canals
B)hamular process
C)genial tubercles
D)lingual foramen
Q2) The nasal septum ends inferiorly at another radiopaque landmark known as the:
A)nasal conchae
B)anterior nasal spine
C)nasal cavity
D)nasopalatine foramen
Q3) The broad radiolucent band seen just below the internal oblique ridge is the __________.
Q4) On a routine full-mouth survey it is not possible to see the:
A)mental foramen
B)incisive foramen
C)lingual foramen
D)mandibular foramen
Q5) Two soft tissue shadows often seen on periapical radiographs are the _______ and the ________.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) In determining a differential diagnosis, identify the radiographs that should be initially considered:
A)full mouth series
B)panoramic radiograph
C)CT scan
D)MRI
Q2) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
Q3) Rapidly growing lesions without distinct borders are usually:
A)cysts
B)benign
C)malignant
D)not cause for concern
Q4) Edentulous areas:
A)cannot be radiographed
B)should be radiographed
C)should not be radiographed
D)may sometimes be radiographed
Q5) ____% of all pathologic conditions seen in the jaws are the result of nonvital teeth and their sequela.
21
Q6) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Caries that radiographically involve the dentin are classified as:
A)early
B)late
C)incipient
D)advanced
Q2) Teeth with short conical roots and bone loss have a very _________ prognosis.
Q3) Interproximal caries is best seen on:
A)periapical films utilizing bisecting angle technique
B)occlusal radiographs
C)bitewing radiographs
D)panoramic radiographs
Q4) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the _______________.
Q5) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
Q6) Caries that has penetrated halfway through the enamel surface is termed:
A)incipient
B)advanced
C)moderate
D)severe
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Q7) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Q2) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
Q3) Periapical cemental osseous dysplasia is a three-stage lesion that is _________ and self-limiting, and for which no treatment is indicated.
Q4) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
Q5) Identify a possible cause(s)for the formation of secondary dentin:
A)pulp capping
B)attrition
C)deep dental caries
D)all of the above
Q6) Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
A)root fracture
B)tooth movement
C)pulpal necrosis
D)all of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) When teeth chip easily and radiographs reveal short roots and early pulp calcification, __________ is present.
Q2) The joining of two or more teeth by cementum is termed:
A)germination
B)fusion
C)concrescence
D)taurodontism
Q3) An S-shaped root condition is referred to as ______________.
Q4) Identify the teeth most commonly impacted:
A)maxillary and mandibular third molars
B)maxillary canines
C)mandibular premolars
D)mandibular canines
Q5) When a tooth has what appears to be two crowns and one root canal, the condition is called ___________.
Q6) Which of the following condition(s)are hereditary disturbances?
A)fusion
B)amelogenesis imperfecta
C)dentinogenesis imperfecta
D)b and c Page 24
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) A malignant lesion will usually have an ____________ border.
Q2) Bitewing projections cannot be used to detect:
A)periapical pathology
B)condensing osteitis
C)root fracture
D)all of the above
Q3) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Q4) A malignant tumor of bone will appear _________ on radiographs.
Q5) Extraction sockets may be radiographically evident:
A)in the bone
B)up to 6 months after surgery
C)initially as radiolucent areas
D)all of the above
Q6) The best projection to visualize a sialolith of the submandibular duct is a:
A)mandibular molar periapical projection
B)lateral oblique projection
C)posterior anterior projection
D)right-angle mandibular occlusal projection
Q7) A slowly growing periapical cyst will have as its borders a ___________.
Q8) Implants will appear _____________ on radiographs.
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Treating a patient without proper radiographs is a breach of the:
A)law of ALARA
B)Inverse Square Law
C)MPD
D)standard of care
Q2) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
Q3) Identify the most regulated discipline within dentistry:
A)radiology
B)periodontics
C)oral surgery
D)endodontics
Q4) Dental radiographs of adult patients should be kept in the office for:
A)2 years
B)4 years
C)6 months
D)7 years
Q5) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
Q6) Radiographs belong to the ___________.
Q7) The third party payers should not request _________ from the dentist.
Q8) A litigious society is one whose members are likely to _____ the dentist.
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