Dental Ethics and Law Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Dental Ethics and Law is a foundational course that introduces students to the ethical principles and legal regulations governing the practice of dentistry. The course explores topics such as patient autonomy, confidentiality, informed consent, professional responsibility, and the dentist-patient relationship, alongside legal aspects including malpractice, dental record-keeping, licensure, and regulatory compliance. Through case studies and real-world scenarios, students will develop critical thinking skills and ethical reasoning, preparing them to navigate complex moral dilemmas and legal challenges in their future dental practice.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygienist must be _____ in the jurisdiction in which they practice.
A) licensed
B) certified
C) accredited
D) educated
Answer: A
Q2) What is the collaborative practice conceptual model?
A) Dentist and dental hygienist work together as colleagues, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public
B) Model describing the best methods of dentist and dental hygienist to work as a team
C) Model showing how collaboration produces better work
D) Dental hygienists and other healthcare professionals work together as colleagues, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23020
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a human need deficit in the need for a biologically sound dentition?
A) Gingival bleeding
B) No dental examination in the last 2 years
C) Vital signs outside of normal limits
D) Mucogingival problems
E) Concern about confidentiality
Answer: B
Q2) Protection from health risks is the need to avoid medical contraindications related to dental hygiene care and to be free from harm or danger involving the integrity of the body structure and environment around the person. With advances in thermoplastic material, boil and bite mouth guard have good retention and cover all posterior teeth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23021
Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of evidence-based decision-making (EBDM) is to:
A) emphasize new research findings.
B) close the gap between research and practice.
C) defer to clients' wishes.
D) use expert opinions.
E) do none of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) The first step in the EBDM process is:
A) finding the best evidence.
B) applying the results to client care.
C) asking a good clinical question.
D) evaluating the results.
E) critically appraising the evidence.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23022
Sample Questions
Q1) Enhancing people's capacity to cope with an ever-changing environment is a challenge of which healthcare movement?
A) Health promotion
B) Disease treatment
C) Treatment intervention
D) Disease prevention
E) Tertiary prevention
Q2) The process of educating decision makers about a policy for mandatory mouth guards for all players is referred to as:
A) active listening.
B) client advocacy.
C) community mobilization.
D) policy review.
E) officiating change.
Q3) Client health promotion has a perspective that:
A) singularly identifies each client's needs.
B) focuses on individual behavior.
C) considers individual behavior and the social environment.
D) attributes disease to environmental influences.
E) lessens the role of the oral health professional in healthcare.
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Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23023
Sample Questions
Q1) Interpersonal communication is the process by which a person sends a message to another person with the intention of evoking a response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interpersonal communication is never _________________ but rather is a ________________, ongoing process.
Q3) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q4) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q5) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The most important aspects of verbal communication are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q7) The Zones of touch are _________________ and _______________________.
Page 7
Q8) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
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Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23024
Sample Questions
Q1) At the first oral care visit, the culturally sensitive oral health professional should:
A) first assess the core values of the group to which the client belongs.
B) base his or her judgment on the characteristics of the specific culture to which the client belongs.
C) assesses the core cultural values for each client individually rather than focusing on the group to which the client belongs.
D) apply stereotyping as a tool to determine the possible core values of the client.
Q2) Nonverbal communication is important in a culturally sensitive environment. The clinician should be sensitive to:
A) gestures.
B) eye contact.
C) personal space.
D) all of the above.
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8
Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23025
Sample Questions
Q1) All references cited in a dental hygiene portfolio must be formatted according to the National Library of Medicine Style Guide. It is not necessary to reference sources obtained from the Internet if they are open access.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Which of the terms do not belong in the four "Rs" model for reflective thinking and writing?
A) Revisit
B) React
C) Relate
D) Reply
Q3) A portfolio required by a state licensing board would most likely be a:
A) working portfolio.
B) best work portfolio.
C) professional development portfolio.
D) curriculum vitae.
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Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23026
Sample Questions
Q1) Automatic processors with a daylight loader require a dark room and a safelight 4 feet away.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
Q2) The dental laboratory should be accessible to the treatment area but out of sight and hearing range of clients.
A) Both parts of the statements are true.
B) Both parts of the statements are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
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10
Chapter 9: Infection Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23027
Sample Questions
Q1) Transmission-based precautions may be necessary to prevent the spread of:
A) varicella.
B) hepatitis B.
C) hepatitis C.
D) HIV.
Q2) Which of the following is not usually worn as personal protective equipment when anticipating spatter of blood or body fluids?
A) Barrier attire (e.g., coat or gown with long sleeves)
B) Gloves
C) Head covering
D) Protective eyewear or face shield
E) Face mask
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a work practice control intended to prevent accidental exposure to blood or OPIM?
A) Safety needle
B) Sharps container
C) Finger positioning when retracting tissue
D) Wearing eye protection and a mask
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11
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23028
Sample Questions
Q1) Preparation of all dental personnel in the office for management of medical emergencies should include training and current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS), practice in medical emergency drills, and an annual refresher course in emergency medicine. All office personnel should have emergency numbers memorized for use when needed.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) A medical consultation is performed by a dental professional after the client's medical and dental history is completed because legal liability is then the responsibility of the physician.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23029
Sample Questions
Q1) List three chairside preventive measures to minimize the occurrence of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Q2) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Q3) One environmental factor to consider to reduce the occurrence of repetitive stress injuries is the temperature of the workplace; this is because a cold room temperature is related to less-relaxed, less-flexible muscles and tendons.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
Q4) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Q6) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23030
Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence based protocols used in the dental office can protect the office if litigation occurs following a decision made for clinical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Direct observation is a component of the medical history assessment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The 2009 information statement from the AAOS regarding the guideline for antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent prosthetic joint infection is an evidence-based guideline.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following conditions requires antibiotic prophylaxis before oral procedures?
A) Heart murmur
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Prior infective endocarditis
D) Heart transplant
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23031
Sample Questions
Q1) The client's blood pressure is in the hypertensive range. All of the following could be attributed to the high blood pressure except:
A) anxiety.
B) recent tobacco use.
C) white coat syndrome.
D) running to the appointment.
E) presyncope.
Q2) An abnormally elevated heart rate is known as:
A) Bradypnea
B) Bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Hypertension
Q3) The Korotkoff sounds are associated with which vital sign?
A) Pulse
B) Respiration
C) Temperature
D) Blood pressure
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23032
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances are glycoproteins that provide lubrication to protect the oral mucous membranes from injury, ulceration, and toxins?
A) Mucins
B) Urea
C) Immunoglobulin A
D) Lactoferrin
Q2) All of the following are common preexisting conditions that may limit the use of certain medications except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Enlarged prostate
B) Hypertension
C) Duodenal ulcer
D) Thyroid disease
Q3) All of the following medications cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B) Nifedipine (Procardia)
C) Cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
D) Propranolol (Inderal)
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16
Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23033
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests can be used in the dental office setting for early evaluation of oral cancer and consists of spreading sample cells on a slide?
A) Oral cytology
B) Transepithelial test
C) Toluidine blue dye
D) Tissue reflectance and autofluorescence tests
Q2) Which of the following tissue types is limited to the dorsum of the tongue?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Masticatory mucosa
D) Specialized mucosa
Q3) A typical high-risk profile in America for oral cancer is:
A) chewing betel nut.
B) female.
C) under age 40.
D) excessive sun exposure.
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23034
Sample Questions
Q1) How is the term dilaceration defined?
A) Is a result of a disturbance of the ameloblasts during matrix formation
B) A large tooth resulting from the splitting of a single tooth germ
C) Abnormal distortion of a crown or root caused by trauma during formation
D) Tooth within a tooth, caused by invagination of the enamel during formation
Q2) There are several ways clients may lose tooth structure. Which of the following describes the term abfraction?
A) Loss due to chemical agents from acid reflux disease
B) Loss as a result of tooth-to-tooth wear through bruxism
C) Loss caused by a foreign substance such as traumatic toothbrushing
D) Loss as a result of cervical stress at the cementoenamel junction
Q3) Which term is used when there is an absence of one or more teeth?
A) Hyperdontia
B) Mesiodens
C) Hypodontia
D) Microdontia
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18
Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23035
Sample Questions
Q1) The best time to apply a disclosant is:
A) after the periodontal assessment.
B) after the oral prophylaxis.
C) before the oral assessment.
D) before the client sees the oral findings.
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is not associated with a healthy periodontium?
A) Streptococcus oralis
B) Actinomyces sp.
C) Treponema
D) Streptococcus mitis
Q3) There is a need for knowledge about effective control of oral biofilm because a high percentage of the population exhibits some type of periodontal disease.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23036
Sample Questions
Q1) Two or more applications of fluoride varnish per year are effective in preventing caries in high-risk populations. Applying fluoride varnish every 6 months is effective in preventing caries in children and adolescents.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) For high-risk and extremely high-risk individuals, chlorhexidine is recommended because it can be more effective than fluoride when there is high bacterial challenge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23037
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the PDL fiber that extends obliquely from the cementum just beneath the junctional epithelium and functions to prevent horizontal movement of teeth?
A) Alveolar crest
B) Oblique
C) Horizontal
D) Sharpey
Q2) The term periodontal disease includes both gingivitis and periodontitis. Gingivitis is characterized by inflammation with no loss of attachment.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first sentence is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) When the junctional epithelium has migrated below the cementoenamel junction (CEJ), but remains above the crest of alveolar bone, what type of defect is present?
A) Furcation
B) Intrabony pocket
C) Gingival dehiscence
D) Suprabony pocket
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23038
Sample Questions
Q1) Aspiration pneumonias occur most often in persons that:
A) have impaired gag and swallowing reflexes.
B) reside in nursing homes.
C) have dysphagia from a stroke, Parkinson's disease, or other neurologic problems.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) The presence of bleeding gums suggests that the epithelial lining of the pocket wall is:
A) thin and ulcerated.
B) thick and keratinized.
C) swollen and lacerated.
D) avascular and abraded.
E) ischemic and dehydrated.
Q3) Preterm birth and low-birthweight babies are associated with which of the following?
A) Bacterial endotoxins associated with periodontitis in the blood that stimulate production of inflammatory mediators that induce labor
B) Convulsions and coma during labor
C) Lack of appropriate periodontal therapy during pregnancy
D) All of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23039
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are unmet human needs for the client except:
A) freedom from pain.
B) freedom from fear and stress.
C) biologically sound and functional dentition.
D) conceptualization and problem solving.
Q2) Which of the following should accompany a dental hygiene diagnosis?
A) Signs noted by the dental hygienist
B) Symptoms reported by the client
C) Risk problems (cause)
D) All of the above
Q3) When the diagnoses for this client are completed, which unmet human need should be addressed first?
A) Freedom from fear and stress
B) Freedom from pain
C) Biologically sound and functional dentition
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck
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23
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23040
Sample Questions
Q1) A well-defined client-centered goal will reflect the evidence of the diagnosed unmet human need. Which component of the dental hygiene diagnosis are the client-centered goals defined?
A) Statement of the problem
B) Statement of cause/etiology
C) Statement of signs and symptoms
D) Statement of chief complaint
Q2) Select three items that occur during the planning phase of the dental hygiene process of care.
A) Dental hygiene diagnosis is defined.
B) Diagnosed client needs are prioritized.
C) Client goals and evaluative measures are established.
D) Intervention strategies are determined.
E) Prognosis of care is proposed.
Q3) Which component of the dental hygiene care plan defines the client's desired outcome of care?
A) Dental hygiene diagnosis
B) Client-centered goals
C) Dental hygiene intervention strategies
D) Appointment schedule
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Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23041
Sample Questions
Q1) Bass method of toothbrushing is the most effective method for plaque removal because it emphasizes sulcular cleaning.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) Toothbrushes can be a mode of indirect transmission for pathogenic organisms. Solid rather than hollow designs and toothbrush caps reduce toothbrush contamination.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) What is the recommended duration of toothbrushing?
A) 1 minute
B) 1 1/2 minutes
C) 2 minutes
D) 2 1/2 minutes
E) 3 minutes
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23042
Sample Questions
Q1) Tongue cleaners are most useful in improving which of the following oral conditions?
A) Caries
B) Gingivitis
C) Malodor
D) Bleeding
Q2) Which of the following devices is contraindicated for type I embrasures?
A) Power flosser
B) Floss holder
C) Floss threader
D) Tufted dental floss
Q3) The benefit of daily interdental cleaning such as flossing is the reduction or prevention of inflammation caused by the immune response to the toxins produced by interdental plaque biofilm. Evidence from a comprehensive systematic review indicated that flossing in addition to toothbrushing reduces gingivitis in comparison with toothbrushing alone.
A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23043
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements ensures that a dentifrice is recognized?
A) Advertising
B) Its packaging has the ADA seal of acceptance
C) Its recommendation by a dental professional
D) Its cost
Q2) Dissolution of organic and inorganic tooth structure as a result of chemical agents is
A) abrasion
B) abfracation
C) erosion
D) attrition
Q3) For a client with an abundant amount of biofilm, one should choose a dentifrice:
A) which tastes good.
B) with a higher level of abrasiveness.
C) which contains antitartar.
D) which contains a desensitizing agent.
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23044
Sample Questions
Q1) A "basketweave" of strokes can be defined as which of the following?
A) A series of wavy pattern pull strokes
B) Combination of multidirectional strokes
C) Alternating push and pull strokes
D) Nonoverlapping strokes
Q2) Which treatment instrument will roughen and crush the calculus along these apical regions for easier access?
A) Hirschfeld files
B) Area-specific curet
C) Diamond files
D) Chisel scaler
Q3) The smaller the angle and the fewer the number of shank bends, the more suitable for use on anterior teeth. The more acute the angle and the greater the number of shank bends, the more suitable for use on posterior teeth.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23045
Sample Questions
Q1) Power-driven instrumentation produces all of the following modes of action except:
A) cavitation.
B) transduction.
C) mechanical action.
D) acoustic microstreaming.
E) atomization.
Q2) When a thin insert is used for ultrasonic periodontal debridement, what tuning is recommended?
A) Out of phase
B) In phase
C) Neither of the above
D) Both out of phase and in phase tuning are routinely used
Q3) What actually causes the working end of an ultrasonic insert or tip to vibrate?
A) The voltage in the generator
B) The transducer contracting and expanding
C) The cavitation
D) Acoustic microstreaming
E) The wireless or wired foot pedal
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23046
Sample Questions
Q1) Dentinal hypersensitivity may occur as a result of the removal of cementum during root instrumentation. The goal of root instrumentation is to remove all cementum.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) What term is used specifically for the bone between the roots of a molar?
A) Furcal
B) Interradicular
C) Interseptal
D) Alveolar
Q3) If a tooth with one root lost one-third of its attachment length, its loss of attachment surface would be greater than one-third because the root is larger in the cervical one-third of the tooth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23047
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are contraindicated when teeth are polished with a rubber cup and prophylaxis paste except:
A) rapid speed.
B) coarse paste.
C) air-polishing agents.
D) heavy pressure.
E) wet field.
Q2) Specially developed prophylaxis paste marketed to restore the original luster to veneer, composite, gold, and porcelain restorations contains which key abrasive agent?
A) Microfine arginine bicarbonate particles
B) Microfine calcium phosphate particles
C) Microfine diamond particles
D) Microfine white sapphire particles
Q3) The primary objective of tooth polishing is to do which of the following?
A) Prepare teeth for the maximum uptake of fluoride.
B) Eliminate oral biofilm so the client can experience smooth enamel.
C) Loosen all soft calculus remaining after scaling.
D) Remove the extrinsic stain remaining after scaling.
E) Help the patient maintain good oral biofilm control.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first stage of periodontal therapy?
A) Supportive periodontal therapy
B) Active therapy
C) Nonsurgical periodontal therapy (NSPT)
D) Surgical periodontal therapy
E) Periodontal assessment
Q2) Which of the following is the first clinical feature of inflammatory periodontal disease?
A) Tooth mobility
B) Drifting of the anterior teeth
C) Periodontal pocket formation
D) Bleeding on probing
E) Edema
Q3) What phase of the dental hygiene process includes the delivery of the preventive and therapeutic procedures to meet the client's human needs?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
E) Reevaluation
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) The two dimensions of oral chemotherapeutics are the active ingredient and the delivery system. The delivery system can be either locally or systemically applied.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) All of the following are true regarding the active ingredient within an oral chemotherapeutic except:
A) responsible for reducing or altering the microbial pathogens.
B) equally effective across various delivery systems.
C) can be bactericidal or bacteriostatic.
D) oral antiseptics have received the most research attention.
Q3) All of the following statements are true regarding the systemic delivery of antibiotics except:
A) ingested and then delivered via the bloodstream.
B) access the subgingival microflora via gingival crevicular fluid.
C) demonstrated efficacy on periodontal parameters.
D) delivers high concentrations to periodontitis sites compared with locally delivered methods.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs and symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A) The ulcers have red, elevated, "halolike" margin with depressed yellow or gray central area
B) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms
C) The most commonly affected teeth are incisors
D) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of chronic periodontal abscess?
A) Overgrowth of pathogenic organisms in a periodontal pocket that drains inflammatory exudates.
B) An abscess that is confined to the marginal gingiva and often occurs in previously Healthy gingival areas
C) No tooth mobility
Q3) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) Pathologic risk factors are factors that improve the chance that a person will not develop caries. Protective risk factors are factors that contribute to the chance that a person will develop caries.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Acidulated fluorides are fluoride products that contain hydrofluoric acid and have a pH of approximately 4. Acidulated fluorides enhance the uptake of fluoride into the hydroxyapatite of tooth structure.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23052
Sample Questions
Q1) When placing sealants on the maxillary teeth, the most effective device other than a rubber dam to reduce saliva contamination from the Stensen's duct is (are):
A) cotton rolls.
B) cotton rolls with a holder.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) high volume evacuation (HVE) only.
Q2) Criteria for selecting teeth for sealant placement is based on which of the following?
A) Deep occlusal fissure; fossa or lingual pit
B) Large occlusal restoration
C) Should be placed on adult teeth where there is evidence of caries susceptibility
D) Both a and c
Q3) When sealant materials were first introduced, which of the following problems were the most pronounced?
A) Retention
B) Lack of strength
C) Material difficult to manipulate
D) Irritation to tooth structure
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36
Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium in a healthy young adult diet?
A) 500 mg
B) 800 mg
C) 1000 mg
D) 1300 mg
Q2) Which of the following would be wise food choices for the dental hygienist to recommend as snacks for young children because of their noncariogenicity?
A) Low-fat yogurt, apples, carrots, string cheese, and skim milk
B) Popcorn, oranges, saltine crackers, sports drinks, and dry unsweetened cereal
C) Peanut butter crackers and noncarbonated fruit drink
D) Fruit flavored tea and tortilla chips
Q3) Development of a comprehensive meal plan to meet individual needs of dental patients can only be provided by which of the following?
A) U.S. dietary guidelines
B) MyPlate
C) Registered dietitian
D) Registered dental hygienist
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Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are contraindications of using the nicotine patch as an over-the-counter (OTC) pharmacotherapy except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Recent myocardial infarction
B) Severe or worsening angina
C) Stomach ulcer
D) Lactation
E) Psoriasis
F) Headaches
Q2) Withdrawal symptoms of tobacco cessation peak within:
A) 12 to 24 hours
B) 24 to 48 hours
C) 48 to 72 hours
D) 1 to 2 weeks
E) 2 to 4 weeks
Q3) All of the following are OTC pharmacotherapies except nicotine:
A) gum.
B) lozenge.
C) patch.
D) inhaler.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) may lose water due to imbibition.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 1
Q2) The dental hygienist suggested a preliminary diagnosis of night-time clenching/grinding. This diagnosis was based on all of the following factors except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Pain in her jaw upon waking
B) Significant bilateral linea alba
C) Wear facets
D) Anterior crowding
Q3) Removable oral appliances are trays or devices used for a variety of dental procedures; these appliances are used for the delivery of materials and protection and movement of the teeth.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) A Tofflemire retainer and metal matrix band would most likely be used to place what class of restoration?
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
Q2) In a normally spaced dentition, how much space should be left between the punched holes in the rubber dam material?
A) 1 to 2 mm
B) 3 to 4 mm
C) 5 to 6 mm
D) 7 to 8 mm
Q3) Burrs incorporated with abrasives are commonly used to finish and polish composite restorations. It is recommended to start with a fine-grit abrasive and progress to course-grit abrasives.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) What age range is considered the peak for dentinal hypersensitivity?
A) 10 to 20 years of age
B) 20 to 40 years of age
C) 40 to 60 years of age
D) 60 to 80 years of age
E) none of the above
Q2) What term is used to refer to sites of tooth structure wear commonly found on the incisal or occlusal surfaces of teeth as a result of masticatory forces?
A) Abrasion
B) Erosion
C) Attrition
D) Abfraction
Q3) All of the following interventions could be provided in the dental setting to treat this client's areas of dentinal hypersensitivity except which one?
A) Use of a 5% sodium fluoride varnish
B) Placement of Class V restorations
C) Use of a desensitizing agent such as potassium nitrate
D) In-office oral irrigation with 0.12% chlorhexidine
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) The client is scheduled for scaling and root planing of the upper right quadrant. You have administered the ASA, MSA, GP, and NP using a short 27-gauge needle and now are preparing to do the PS a. Before administering the PSA, you draw the needle across a piece of sterile gauze and it becomes caught on the gauze. You should clear the needle from the gauze and:
A) proceed with the injection.
B) take the opportunity to change to a long 27-gauge needle.
C) replace it with a new short 30-gauge needle so that the larger lumen decreases the difficulty for aspiration.
D) replace it with a new short 25-gauge needle because of the high risk of aspiration in this area of the mouth.
Q2) The trigeminal nerve is the seventh and largest of the 12 cranial nerves. It has three divisions that include the ophthalmic (V ), maxillary (V ), and mandible (V ).
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23059
Sample Questions
Q1) Oversedation with nitrous oxide may be manifested by which of the following?
A) Loss of consciousness
B) Allergic reaction
C) Tingling sensation
D) A slight heaviness in the client's chest
E) Both a and b
Q2) Nausea after nitrous oxide exposure may occur as a result of which of the following?
A) Titrating the levels of nitrous oxide delivered
B) Overoxygenating at the end of the appointment
C) Seesawing the nitrous oxide delivery
D) Turning off the nitrous oxide too quickly
E) All of the above
Q3) The proportion of oxygen the client in question 11 is receiving is which of the following?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 50%
E) 60%
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) An impaired client who is unable to hold a toothbrush in the hand would benefit from a(n):
A) universal cuff.
B) irrigation device.
C) powered toothbrush.
D) handle that is wide and bulky.
Q2) To assess a client's grip strength, the dental hygienist should have the client grasp:
A) a golf ball.
B) a tennis ball.
C) a softball.
D) various sizes of foam cylinders.
Q3) What kind of custom-made oral self-care device is needed by an impaired person with a limited range of arm and hand motion?
A) Powered toothbrush
B) An oral self-care device with a thick, built-up handle
C) An oral self-care device with an extended handle
D) An oral self-care device that has a bent handle
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44
Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertension is a persistent elevation of the systolic and diastolic blood pressure levels at or above _____ mm Hg.
A) 130/85
B) 135/90
C) 140/90
D) 150/95
Q2) Clients with sustained elevation of blood pressure are at risk for:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) cerebrovascular accident.
C) kidney failure.
D) none of the above.
Q3) An increase in blood pressure may be related to obesity and stress. Control of associated risk factors may alleviate the client's condition without taking medications.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) Neuropathy, xerostomia, and candidiasis in the person with diabetes may lead to which of the following?
A) Dental caries
B) Severe periodontal disease
C) Tongue changes
D) Hyperglycemia
Q2) All of the following are drug therapies for people with diabetes. Which one stimulates the pancreas to secrete more insulin?
A) Exenatide (Byetta)
B) Sulfonylureas
C) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (Precose)
D) Thiazolidinedione (Avandia)
Q3) What emergency care should be given to a conscious client with hypoglycemia?
A) Spirits of ammonia
B) Epinephrine
C) Hard candy
D) Glucagon
Q4) A person with prediabetes can prevent the onset of diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) The following are risk factors for oral squamous cell carcinoma except:
A) denture irritation.
B) tobacco.
C) alcohol.
D) old age.
Q2) Alteration of taste occurs because of which of the following cancer therapies?
A) Chemotherapy
B) Radiation therapy
C) Hormone therapy
D) Blood stem cell transplantation therapy
Q3) The incidence rate of oral cancer has increased since 1980. Oral cancer screening remains a very important component of dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the role of CD4+ T cells in HIV?
A) CD4+ T cells have cytotoxic properties, which is important in cell-mediated immunity.
B) CD4+ T cells are one of the main cells infected by the HIV virion.
C) Depletion of CD4+ T cells via HIV infection places the patient at risk for opportunistic infections, such as tuberculosis, oropharyngeal candidiasis, and hairy leukoplakia.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Both b and c are correct.
F) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Why should immunocompromised patients avoid hydrogen peroxide rinses?
A) It causes accelerated tissue breakdown.
B) It is associated with oral candidiasis.
C) It is associated with oral herpes.
D) It is associated with worsening necrotizing periodontal disease.
E) It is associated with halitosis.
Q3) Power scaling devices generate an aerosol, which has been implicated in HIV transmission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about Parkinson's disease except which one?
A) It is a chronic progressive disorder of the motor system.
B) Common onset is in the fourth decade.
C) The incidence is higher among whites than among African Americans.
D) Bradykinesia is common in patients.
E) Patients exhibit a soft, barely audible voice and monotony of speech.
Q2) All of the following are risk factors for cerebrovascular accidents except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Drug abuse
D) Cerebral palsy
E) Cigarette smoking
Q3) The symptoms of multiple sclerosis are related to:
A) age of disease onset.
B) specific cause of demyelination.
C) site of lesions in the central nervous system.
D) site of lesions in the peripheral nervous system.
E) site of deposition of immune complexes.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Which autoimmune disease is associated with high levels of viral infection?
A) Chronic fatigue syndrome
B) Fibromyalgia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Scleroderma
Q2) Which type of medications blocks the synthesis of prostaglandins and reduces inflammation?
A) DMARDs
B) NSAIDs
C) Penicillamine
D) Cyclosporine
E) Antimalarials
Q3) All of the following are goals of pharmacotherapy for clients with autoimmune disease except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Reduce pain.
B) Improve function.
C) Slow disease progression rate.
D) Limit tissue destruction.
E) Improve sense of well-being.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary hyperparathyroidism is treated with any of the following except which one?
A) Dietary modifications with regard to phosphorus
B) Active vitamin D
C) Phosphorus binders
D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Q2) Peritoneal dialysis is a method of dialysis treatment in which the client's:
A) peritoneum is cleansed.
B) blood is cleansed through the peritoneal cavity.
C) blood is cleansed a few ounces at a time through a special filter.
D) blood is replaced with transfused donated blood.
Q3) All of the following reflect examples of The National Kidney Foundation Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (K/DOQI) Guidelines that address chronic kidney disease (CKD) and other possible medical and related conditions except which one?
A) Anemia and chronic kidney disease
B) Diabetes in chronic kidney disease
C) Oral health and chronic kidney disease
D) Cardiovascular disease in hemodialysis patients
E) Nutrition
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is associated with tuberculosis?
A) Blue bloater
B) Barrel chest
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Cavitation
Q2) Under what conditions should a client with active tuberculosis be treated?
A) Using nitrous-oxide sedation in a dental office for routine procedures
B) Using strict infection-control procedures in a dental office especially equipped for clients with tuberculosis
C) In a dental office using universal precautions
D) In a hospital setting for emergency dental care only
Q3) Bacteria associated with periodontal disease may be directly related to the potential for respiratory infection. These bacteria, along with epithelial changes in lung tissue associated with the inflammatory process, may increase the patient's susceptibility to a lower respiratory infection.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23069
Sample Questions
Q1) Prevalence of periodontal disease in the intellectual disability (ID) population is attributed to:
A) lack of professional care.
B) lack of funds to support care.
C) increased susceptibility.
D) poor oral hygiene.
E) all of the above.
Q2) Effective communication leads to a trusting relationship, which in turn allows the oral healthcare experience to be successful for both client and clinician. Frequently caregivers are able to suggest behavioral guidance to achieve a pleasant dental experience.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true
Q3) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:
A) facial expressions.
B) eye contact.
C) nonverbal communication.
D) all of the above.
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) Localized gingival and alveolar necrosis adjacent to maxillary premolars is a sign of _____ use.
A) marijuana
B) cocaine
C) PCP
D) alcohol
Q2) Substances that slow down the central nervous system (CNS) include:
A) alcohol, codeine, nicotine, and methamphetamine.
B) Adderall, PCP, and LSD.
C) benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and alcohol.
D) nitrous oxide, alcohol, and cocaine.
Q3) Select all intraoral signs of marijuana use.
A) Extrinsic green stain
B) Halitosis
C) Bloodshot eyes
D) Slurred speech
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23071
Sample Questions
Q1) Binge eating disorder is characterized by which of following?
A) Restriction following a purge
B) Binging without purging
C) Restricting eating to nighttime only
D) Excessive exercise before a purge
E) Laxative use following a binge
Q2) The use of study models for a client with an eating disorder serves the assessment and evaluation of which of the following oral concerns related to bulimia nervosa?
A) Temporomandibular joint positioning
B) Perimylolysis or dental erosion
C) Clinical attachment loss
D) Palatal tissue trauma
E) Abfraction
Q3) Anorexia nervosa may be comorbid with which one of the following conditions?
A) Sociopathology
B) Substance abuse
C) Autism
D) Alcoholism
E) Brain injury
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is in her third trimester and is positioned toward a right-handed clinician so that the mandibular linguals may be seen with direct vision. Suddenly, the client begins sweating and reports feeling weak and nauseated. The clinician takes her blood pressure and finds that it is very low. What could be happening and what should the clinician do?
A) Postural hypotension; place the client on her right side and in a semisupine position.
B) Postural hypotension; place the client on her left side and in a supine or semisupine position.
C) Postural hypotension; place the client on her left side with her head elevated.
D) Hypotensive syndrome; place the client on her left side with her head elevated.
Q2) What antiresorptive therapy is given orally or parenterally to clients who exhibit increased bone resorption?
A) Antibiotics
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Bisphosphonates
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Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23073
Sample Questions
Q1) Routine assessment of salivary glands in older adults is accomplished by (select all that apply):
A) visual assessment of salivary gland ducts on mucosa opposite teeth No. 2 and No. 15.
B) evaluation of symmetry of cheeks.
C) palpation of salivary glands in floor of mouth.
D) collection and assessment of stimulated saliva.
E) microbiologic testing of saliva.
F) verbal report of client about comfort in chewing and speaking with sufficient saliva.
Q2) Oral cancer accounts for approximately what percentage of new cancers diagnosed each year?
A) 1%
B) 2.5%
C) 5%
D) 10%
Q3) The edentulous rate among older adults is expected to rise to 40% by the year 2030.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can contribute to a person's edentulous status?
A) Dental caries
B) Periodontal diseases
C) Low socioeconomic status
D) Inadequate access to professional oral care
E) All of the above
Q2) The most effective and safe way to maintain denture hygiene for a physically capable person is:
A) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and mild liquid soap and water.
B) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and toothpaste.
C) overnight soaking in a weak sodium hypochlorite solution.
D) immersion in a chemical cleanser.
Q3) Dentures should be assessed annually and replaced every _____ years.
A) 1 to 4
B) 4 to 8
C) 8 to 12
D) 12 to 16
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23075
Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical treatment of a fractured jaw that involves wiring the mandibular and maxillary arches usually lasts _____ week(s).
A) less than 1
B) 1 to 3
C) 4 to 8
D) 9 to 11
Q2) The most commonly fractured facial bone is the:
A) nasal bone.
B) mandible.
C) maxilla.
D) zygoma.
Q3) Orofacial clefts are one of the most common craniofacial congenital defects. The presence of an orofacial cleft most likely indicates the presence of a syndrome.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the dental implant is a metal device that is inserted within the bone tissues of the mandibular or the maxillary arch and frequently coated with a synthetic material that acts as a biocompatible interface to enhance bone formation?
A) Abutment
B) Anchor
C) Pontic
D) Implant
Q2) All of the following are good to use for the daily cleaning and home care of a dental implant except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Plastic nylon-coated interdental brush
B) Disclosing agents
C) Metal instruments
D) Power toothbrushes
Q3) Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of dental implants?
A) poor diet
B) obesity
C) a history of head and neck radiation therapy
D) pregnancy
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two principles important to growth modification therapy are which of the following?
A) Growth modification must be initiated after growth is completed to fully control the outcome of the case, and it must be conducted only in clients willing to attend more numerous orthodontic appointments than required for traditional orthodontic therapy.
B) Growth modification can be completed in clients of any age, and traditional orthodontic treatment after its completion will be less involved.
C) Growth modification must be completed in children at a very young age to correct skeletal discrepancies before they occur, and plaque control is even more critical during growth modification than in traditional orthodontics.
D) Growth modification must be carried out in clients who are actively growing, and it must continue until skeletal growth is complete.
Q2) The age of eruption is more important than the sequence of eruption of the permanent teeth.
A) True
B) False
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Q1) Which of the following maltreatment types comprise the greatest percentage of victims among children and elderly adults?
A) Physical abuse
B) Sexual abuse
C) Neglect
D) Emotional abuse
E) Verbal abuse
Q2) Human trafficking is:
A) experienced in only certain countries.
B) the second largest criminal industry in the world.
C) a problem of modern day slavery where victims are subjected to force, fraud, or coercion, for the purpose of sexual exploitation or forced labor.
D) all of the above.
E) both b and c.
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding perpetrators of domestic violence?
A) They are often strangers to the victim.
B) They are often intimate partners of the victim.
C) They are often driven by the power and control they hold over the victim.
D) They are likely to repeat the abuse if the victim stays in the household.
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Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) The physical and psychologic needs of patients in palliative care are continually changing. Proper evaluation of palliative oral care is based on whether the goals are met, partially met, or unmet.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Appliances with metal clasps need to be soaked in chlorhexidine solution, because sodium hypochlorite corrodes the metal clasps.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) A mouth free of discomfort and bad odors helps with all of the following except:
A) ensuring self-esteem.
B) aiding in social communication.
C) maintaining nutritional status.
D) preventing further decline in overall health.
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) Positive client motivation is achieved when the provider:
A) builds upon the client's already existing knowledge.
B) uses criticism to gain treatment acceptance.
C) educates clients using scare tactics.
D) fails to recommend preventive treatment.
Q2) To effectively establish a positive relationship with the client, the provider should understand _____ needs.
A) physical
B) psychologic
C) spiritual
D) emotional
E) None of the above are correct.
F) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Client information should be posted in the client's chart:
A) before starting treatment on the client.
B) right after treating the client.
C) at the end of the day.
D) at the end of the week.
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64
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) One option for job employment involves two or more people sharing one full-time job position. What type of employment is this termed?
A) Full-time
B) Part-time
C) Job sharing
D) Probationary
E) Temporary
Q2) What is a curriculum vitae?
A) Comprehensive résumé that is used when seeking an academic position
B) Condensed résumé
C) Cover letter format
D) Electronic portfolio
E) All of the above
Q3) When should a follow-up thank you letter be sent to a potential employer?
A) One week following an interview
B) One day following an interview
C) Two weeks postinterview, if the applicant has not received a job offer
D) Two weeks postinterview, if the applicant has received a job offer
E) Two to 4 weeks following an interview
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) As part of the assessment phase of care, the dental hygienist repeatedly tries to convince the client to agree to have radiographs taken. The client declines the recommendation. The risk management method used to document the client's decision to decline recommended treatment is which of the following?
A) Informed consent
B) Informed refusal
C) Verbal refusal
D) None of the above
Q2) During dental hygiene care, the client consistently makes inappropriate comments of a personal and sexual nature to the dental hygienist. The dental hygienist has repeatedly asked the client to stop the behaviors because they make the dental hygienist feel very uncomfortable. The dental hygienist reports the incident to her employer. Which of the following types of sexual harassment may be occurring in this situation?
A) Quid pro quo
B) Hostile environment
C) Gender inequity
D) None of the above
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