Critical Care Concepts for Nurses Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of essential concepts in critical care nursing, equipping students with the knowledge and skills necessary to care for acutely ill patients in intensive care settings. The curriculum covers the pathophysiology of critical illnesses, advanced assessment techniques, hemodynamic monitoring, ventilator management, pharmacologic interventions, and the application of evidence-based practices. Emphasis is placed on rapid decision-making, multidisciplinary teamwork, ethical considerations, and communication with patients families. Through case studies and simulated scenarios, nurses develop the confidence and competence required to effectively manage life-threatening situations and deliver high-quality patient care in critical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Critical Care Nursing Diagnosis and Management 8th Edition by Linda D. Urden
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41 Chapters
1210 Verified Questions
1210 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Critical Care Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41299
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of therapy is an option to conventional treatment?
A) Alternative
B) Holistic
C) Complementary
D) Individualized
Answer: A
Q2) According to American Association of Critical-Care Nurses,what are the responsibilities of a critical care nurse?
A) Respecting the values, beliefs, and rights of the patient
B) Intervening when the best interest of the patient is in question
C) Helping the patient obtain necessary care
D) Making decisions for the patient and patient's family
E) Monitoring and safeguarding the quality of care the patient receives
F) Acting as a gatekeeper for the patient, the patient's family, and other health care professionals
Answer: A,B,C,E
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3
Chapter 2: Ethical Issues
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A practitioner is suggesting treatments to a patient that are contrary to the patient's preferences.What is this practice called?
A) Invaluable deficiency
B) Physiologic uselessness
C) Ethical futility
D) Situational insufficiency
Answer: C
Q2) Which action best reflects the concept of beneficence within the critical care setting?
A) Advocating for equitable health care
B) Promoting for safe patient care
C) Ensuring equal access for those with the same condition or diagnosis
D) Confirming technologic advances are available to all in a given community
Answer: B
Q3) What is the first step of the ethical decision-making process?
A) Consulting with an authority
B) Identifying the health problem
C) Delineating the ethical problem from other types of problems
D) Identifying the patient as the primary decision maker
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Legal Issues
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation would be considered a failure of proper implementation?
A) Not identifying and analyzing symptoms appropriately
B) Not documenting the patient's response to pain medication
C) Not recognizing a malfunctioning chest tube
D) Not asking the patient about code or no code wishes
Answer: B
Q2) What element of malpractice is based on the existence of a nurse-patient relationship?
A) Duty
B) Breach
C) Damages
D) Harm caused by the breach
Answer: A
Q3) Why is restraining a competent patient against his or her wishes considered an intentional tort?
A) The nurse did not document the patient's need for restraints.
B) The nurse failed to get a physician's order for restraints.
C) The nurse touched the patient in an unauthorized manner.
D) The nurse do not inform the patient that the restraints were needed.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genetic Issues
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is placed under general anesthesia for a carotid endarterectomy.During the surgery,the patient develops muscle contracture with skeletal muscle rigidity,acidosis,and elevated temperature.What is a possible cause for malignant hyperthermia?
A) Polymorphism in RYR1 at chromosome 19q13.1
B) Variant in the VKOR1 gene
C) Variant in the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP2C9 gene
D) Halothane overdose
Q2) To achieve a consistent distance across the width of the DNA strand,the nucleotide base guanine (G)can only be paired with what other genetic material?
A) Adenine (A)
B) Thymine (T)
C) Cytosine (C)
D) Sex chromosome X
Q3) What was the goal of the Human Genome Project?
A) Identifying haplotype tags
B) Exposing untaggable SNPs and recombination hot spots
C) Producing a catalog of human genome variation
D) Mapping all the human genes
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Patient and Family Education
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What topic should be included in the education of a patient's family members during their first visit?
A) When to call the practitioner
B) Availability of support groups
C) Expectations about self-care
D) What the patient may look like
Q2) A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with the onset of tuberculosis.He was diagnosed with HIV/AIDS 1 year ago.When talking to the patient about preventing the spread of tuberculosis,the patient tells the nurse that he has not followed precautions regarding tuberculosis for patients with HIV.Which educational objective is BEST stated for this patient?
A) Patient will know at least two ways to prevent the spread of tuberculosis within 1 week.
B) Patient will understand how HIV is spread within 3 days.
C) Patient will realize that improper precautions will spread his disease to others.
D) Patient will verbalize two methods of transmission for tuberculosis within 2 days.
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Chapter 6: Psychosocial and Spiritual Alterations and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted complaining of pain from a femur fracture and is anxious and agitated.The patient is receiving steroids and theophylline for exacerbation of asthma.What disorder should the nurse suspect the patient may be experiencing?
A) Anxiety
B) Low self-esteem
C) Regression
D) Suicidal ideations
Q2) Which therapeutic technique may be used to enhance coping in the critical care environment?
A) Encourage the patient to let the staff have total control of the patient's care
B) Encourage the patient to deny the presence of the illness
C) Inform the patient that everything will be all right
D) Foster trust in the interprofessional health care team
Q3) Which medications are commonly used for alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
A) Chlordiazepoxide and folic acid
B) Chlordiazepoxide and lorazepam
C) Lorazepam and promethazine
D) Promethazine and thiamine
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Chapter 7: Nutrition Alterations and Management
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one effect of malnutrition on respiratory system function?
A) Decreased surfactant production
B) Increased vital capacity
C) Decreased carbon dioxide production
D) Increased respiratory rate
Q2) Which of the following nutritional interventions is a priority for the patient with renal disease who is receiving dialysis?
A) Increase fluids to replace losses.
B) Encourage potassium-rich foods to replace losses.
C) Ensure an adequate amount of protein to prevent catabolism.
D) Limit all nutrients to account for altered renal excretion.
Q3) A tracheostomy patient is experiencing regurgitation of tube feeding formula.What should be the nurse's first priority?
A) Checking to make sure the tracheostomy cuff is inflated during tube feedings
B) Placing the patient in the right lateral decubitus position to promote gastric emptying
C) Discussing the use of metoclopramide to facilitate gastric motility with the practitioner
D) Placing the patient in prone position to improve draining from mouth
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Chapter 8: Pain and Pain Management
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relaxation,distraction,guided imagery,and music therapy are all examples what type of pain management?
A) Physical techniques
B) Cognitive-behavioral techniques
C) Nonopioid analgesia
D) Equianalgesia
Q2) A patient underwent a thoracotomy 12 hours ago and has continuous epidural analgesia with morphine.In addition to respiratory depression,the patient should be monitored for which complications?
A) Urinary retention, undue somnolence, itching, nausea, and vomiting
B) Urinary incontinence, photophobia, headache, and skin rash
C) Apprehension, anxiety, restlessness, sadness, anger, and myoclonus
D) Gastric bleeding, nasal discharge, cerebrospinal fluid leak, and calf pain
Q3) Which of the following patients is MOST likely to be experiencing a life-threatening opioid side effect?
A) Patient with respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min who is breathing deeply
B) Patient with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min who is snoring
C) Patient with blood pressure of 150/75 mm Hg and heart rate of 102 beats/min
D) Patient with a temperature of 100.5° F who is asleep but easily roused
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sedation,Agitation,and Delirium Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted unit with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).The patient has been intubated and is mechanically ventilated.The patient is becoming increasingly agitated,and the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator has been frequently triggered.What action should be the nurse take first?
A) Administer midazolam 5 mg by intravenous push immediately.
B) Assess the patient to see if a physiologic reason exists for his agitation.
C) Obtain an arterial blood gas level to ensure the patient is not hypoxemic.
D) Apply soft wrist restraints to keep him from pulling out the endotracheal tube.
Q2) A patient has been taking benzodiazepines and suddenly develops respiratory depression and hypotension.After careful assessment,the nurse determines that the patient is experiencing benzodiazepine overdose.What is the nurse's next action?
A) Decrease benzodiazepines to half the prescribed dose.
B) Increase IV fluids to 500 cc/h for 2 hours.
C) Administer flumazenil (Romazicon).
D) Discontinue benzodiazepine and start propofol.
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11
Chapter 10: End-Of-Life Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted several weeks ago with an acute myocardial infarction and subsequently underwent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery.Since a cardiac arrest 5 days ago,the patient has been unresponsive.An electroencephalogram shows no meaningful brain activity.The decision is made to remove the patient from the ventilator.Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) The cardiac monitor should be left on so everyone will know when the patient has died.
B) Opioids, sedatives, and neuromuscular blocking agents should be discontinued just before removing the ventilator.
C) The family and health care team should decide the best method for removing the ventilator terminal wean versus immediate extubation.
D) If terminal weaning is selected, the family should be sent to the waiting room until the ventilator has actually been removed.
Q2) What is the most common complaint heard from families of dying patients?
A) Poor nursing care
B) Inadequate communication
C) Lack of consistent plan of care
D) Confusion among health care team members
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors influence stroke volume?
A) Afterload
B) Cardiac output
C) Contractility
D) Heart rate
E) Preload
Q2) A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.The monitor pattern reveals bradycardia.Occlusion of which coronary artery most likely resulted in bradycardia from sinoatrial node ischemia?
A) Right
B) Left anterior descending
C) Circumflex
D) Dominant
Q3) Which statement regarding the autonomic nervous system's role in the regulation of heart rate is true?
A) Parasympathetic influences increase heart rate.
B) Sympathetic influences are predominantly present.
C) Parasympathetic influences are only compensatory.
D) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic influences are normally active.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Clinical Assessment
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's blood pressure is 90/72 mm Hg.What is the patient's pulse pressure?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 25 mm Hg
C) 18 mm Hg
D) 12 mm Hg
Q2) A nurse palpates the descending aorta and feels a strong,bounding pulse.The nurse reports the findings to the physician because this result is suggestive of what disorder?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increased cardiac output
C) An aneurysm
D) Aortic insufficiency
Q3) The nurse assesses the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses as weak and thready.What should the nurse document for the pulse volume?
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 3+
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Diagnostic Procedures
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is obtaining the history of a patient who reveals that he had an myocardial infarction (MI)5 years ago.When the admission 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)is reviewed,Q waves are noted in leads V3 and V4 only.Which conclusion is most consistent with this situation?
A) The patient may have had a posterior wall MI.
B) The patient must have had a right ventricular MI.
C) The admission 12-lead ECG was done incorrectly.
D) The patient may have had an anterior MI.
Q2) A physician orders removal of the central venous catheter (CVC)line.The patient has a diagnosis of heart failure with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.The nurse would place the patient in what position for this procedure?
A) Supine in bed
B) Supine in a chair
C) Flat in bed
D) Reverse Trendelenburg position
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted for palliative care for end-stage heart failure.What is the nurse's primary goal when caring for this patient?
A) To reverse heart failure with the use of diuretics
B) To increase activity tolerance
C) To manage symptoms and relieve pain
D) To increase cardiac output related to alteration of contractility
Q2) In the acute phase after ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI),fibrinolytic therapy is used in combination with heparin to recanalize the coronary artery.What dosage is the initial heparin bolus?
A) 60 units/kg maximum 5000 units
B) 30 units/kg maximum 3000 units
C) 25 units/kg maximum of 2500 units
D) 12 units/kg maximum of 1000 units
Q3) Why do women have higher mortality rates from acute myocardial infarction (MI)than men?
A) Women wait longer to seek medical care.
B) Women have more risk factors for coronary artery disease than men.
C) Women have a higher risk of coronary spasm than men.
D) Women have smaller hearts than men.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Cardiovascular Therapeutic Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient suddenly develops a wide QRS complex tachycardia.The patient's heart rate is 220 beats/min and regular; blood pressure is 96/40 mm Hg; and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min,and the patient is awake without complaint except for palpitations.Which of the following interventions would be best to try first?
A) Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push
B) Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV push
C) Verapamil 5 mg IV push
D) Digoxin 0.5 mg IV push
Q2) What is the rationale for administrating a fibrinolytic agent to a patient experiencing acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?
A) Dilation of the blocked coronary artery
B) Anticoagulation to prevent formation of new emboli
C) Dissolution of atherosclerotic plaque at the site of blockage
D) Restoration of blood flow via lysis of the thrombus
Q3) What is the preferred initial treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?
A) Fibrinolytic therapy
B) Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
C) Coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG)
D) Implanted Cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What substance do Alveolar type II cells secrete?
A) Trypsin
B) Chyme
C) Amylase
D) Surfactant
Q2) Which part of the pulmonary anatomy does most of the work of breathing?
A) Pleura
B) Intercostal muscles
C) Diaphragm
D) Sternocleidomastoid
Q3) Which pulmonary alteration increases the work of breathing in the patient with emphysema?
A) Decreased lung recoil
B) Decreased chest wall compliance
C) Increased lung compliance
D) Increased airway resistance
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18
Chapter 17: Pulmonary Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with acute lung failure secondary to emphysema.Percussion of the lung fields will predictably exhibit which tone?
A) Resonance
B) Hyperresonance
C) Tympany
D) Dullness
Q2) Which lung sounds would be most likely heard in a patient experiencing an asthma attack?
A) Coarse rales
B) Pleural friction rub
C) Fine crackles
D) Expiratory wheezes
Q3) The nurse is observing a new graduate listen to a patient's lungs.Which action by the new graduate indicates a need to review auscultation skills?
A) The nurse starts at the apices and moves to the bases.
B) The nurse compares breath sounds from side to side.
C) The nurse listens during inspiration.
D) The nurse listens posteriorly, laterally, and anteriorly.
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19
Chapter 18: Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with the following arterial blood gas (ABG)values: pH,7.20; PaO ,106 mm Hg; PaCO ,35 mm Hg; andHCO ¯ ,11 mEq/L.What is the interpretation of the patient's ABG?
A) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
C) Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
D) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Q2) Which arterial blood gas (ABG)values represent uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
A) pH, 7.29; PaCO , 57 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 22 mEq/L
B) pH, 7.36; PaCO , 33 mm Hg;HCO ¯, 18 mEq/L
C) pH, 7.22; PaCO , 42 mm Hg;HCO ¯, 18 mEq/L
D) pH, 7.52; PaCO , 38 mm Hg;HCO ¯ , 29 mEq/L
Q3) A patient is admitted with signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolus (PE).What diagnostic test most conclusive to determine this diagnosis?
A) ABG
B) Bronchoscopy
C) Pulmonary function test
D) V/Q scan
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pulmonary Disorders
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two pathogens are most frequently associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia?
A) Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Escherichia coli and Haemophilus influenzae
C) Acinetobacter baumannii and Haemophilus influenzae
D) Klebsiella spp. and Enterobacter spp.
Q2) A patient was admitted following an aspiration event on the medical-surgical floor.The patient is receiving 40% oxygen via a simple facemask.The patient has become increasingly agitated and confused.The patient's oxygen saturation has dropped from 92% to 84%.The nurse notifies the practitioner about the change in the patient's condition.What interventions should the nurse anticipate?
A) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
B) Change in antibiotics orders
C) Suction and reposition the patient
D) Orders for a sedative
Q3) Which finding confirms the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A) Low-probability ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
B) Negative pulmonary angiogram
C) High-probability V/Q scan
D) Absence of vascular markings on the chest radiograph
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are complications of endotracheal tubes?
A) Tracheoesophageal fistula
B) Cricoid abscess
C) Tracheal stenosis
D) Tube obstruction
E) Hemorrhage
Q2) A patient was admitted to the critical care unit with acute respiratory failure.The patient has been on a ventilator for 3 days and is being considered for weaning.Which criteria would indicate that the patient is not tolerating weaning?
A) A decrease in heart rate from 92 to 80 beats/min
B) An SpO of 92%
C) An increase in respiratory rate from 22 to 38 breaths/min
D) Spontaneous tidal volumes of 300 to 350 mL
Q3) What is the therapeutic blood level for theophylline (Xanthines)?
A) 5 to 10 mg/dL
B) 10 to 20 mg/dL
C) 20 to 30 mg/dL
D) 35 to 45 mg/dL
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22
Chapter 21: Neurologic Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary functions of which lobe are hearing,speech,behavior,and memory?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Parietal lobe
Q2) Which area of the ventricular system is usually cannulated for intracranial pressure monitoring?
A) Frontal horn of the lateral ventricle
B) Aqueduct of Sylvius
C) Foramen of Monro
D) Fourth ventricle
Q3) Which neurologic structure carries nerve impulses from the central nervous system (CNS)to the periphery to produce a response such as contraction of the skeletal muscles?
A) Efferent fibers
B) Afferent fibers
C) Sensory fibers
D) Neurotransmitters
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23
Chapter 22: Neurologic Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic
Procedures
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49 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained a traumatic head injury.The practitioner has asked the nurse to test the patient's oculocephalic reflex.What must the nurse verity prior to performing the test?
A) The absence of cervical injury
B) The depth and rate of respiration
C) The patient's ability to swallow
D) The patient's ability to follow a verbal command
Q2) The nurses are admitting a neurologically impaired patient.The patient's family is present.How comprehensive should the initial history be?
A) It should be limited to the chief complaint and personal habits.
B) It should be all-inclusive, including events preceding hospitalization.
C) It should be confined to current medications and family history.
D) It should be restricted to only information that the patient can provide.
Q3) Which patient may need sedation before having a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)scan?
A) Claustrophobic patient
B) Comatose patient
C) Elderly patient
D) Patient with a spinal cord injury
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Neurologic Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding in a patient in coma 10 to 12 hours after cardiopulmonary arrest is indicative of unlikely survival?
A) Decorticate posturing
B) Absent pupillary light reflexes
C) Decerebrate posturing
D) Central hyperventilation
Q2) Which nursing intervention will help prevent spikes in intracranial pressure in the post-neurosurgical patient?
A) Keep the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees.
B) Administer an antiemetic to prevent vomiting.
C) Provide fluid restriction.
D) Help with turn, cough, and deep breathe exercises.
Q3) Which diuretic is the most effective in the reduction of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Mannitol
B) Furosemide
C) Urea
D) Glycerol
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Chapter 24: Kidney Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When renin eventually stimulates angiotensin II,the adrenal glands then secrete what hormone?
A) Aldosterone
B) Adrenal stimulating hormone
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Vasopressin
Q2) Maintaining a normal range of serum potassium is important for what physiologic process?
A) Fluid regulation
B) Acid-base buffering
C) Nervous impulse conduction
D) Triggering antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release
Q3) A patient has been admitted with acute kidney injury.Which serum laboratory values would the nurse expect to be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Sodium and potassium
B) Creatinine and calcium
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatine
D) Potassium and magnesium
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Chapter 25: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Percussion of kidneys is usually done to assess what parameter?
A) Size and shape of the kidneys
B) Presence of pain in the renal area
C) Presence of a fluid wave
D) Patient's overall fluid status
Q2) A patient is admitted in acute heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency.The patient reports that over the past few weeks,his urine output has decreased,and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites.The nurse suspects the main cause of ascites is what condition?
A) Hypervolemia
B) Dehydration
C) Volume overload
D) Liver damage
Q3) A patient is admitted with renal failure.The patient's weight upon admission was 176 lb,and the next day it is 184 lb.What is the approximate amount of fluid retained with this weight gain?
A) 800 mL
B) 2200 mL
C) 3600 mL
D) 8000 mL
27
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Chapter 26: Kidney Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who receives peritoneal dialysis is admitted after a 3-day history of flulike symptoms.The patient reports muscle cramps and is noted to have a low blood pressure and tachycardia.The nurse suspects the patient may be experiencing what condition?
A) Dehydration
B) Peritonitis
C) Fluid obstruction
D) Hernias
Q2) The practitioner has ordered dialysis for a patient with acute heart failure who is unresponsive to diuretics.Which type of dialysis would the nurse anticipate being started on this patient?
A) Intermittent ultrafiltration
B) Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)
C) Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD)
D) Continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF)
Q3) Which diuretics maybe combined to work on different parts of the nephron?
A) Loop and thiazide diuretics
B) Loop and osmotic diuretics
C) Osmotic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics
D) Thiazide and osmotic diuretics
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the portion of the stomach that connects the antrum to the duodenum?
A) Fundus
B) Body
C) Cardiac orifice
D) Pylorus
Q2) What is the main function of bile?
A) Emulsify fat globules
B) Serve as a reservoir for bilirubin
C) Maintain triglyceride levels in the blood
D) Aid in detoxification of drugs in the liver
Q3) What purpose does saliva serve in the process of digestion?
A) Washes away bacteria
B) Provides the body's main source of potassium
C) Contains hydrochloric acid for breakdown of protein
D) Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
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Chapter 28: Gastrointestinal Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41326
Sample Questions
Q1) Preprocedural teaching of a patient undergoing a liver scan should include which instruction?
A) Drink at least 500 mL of fluids before the procedure.
B) Remain flat in bed for 12 hours after the procedure.
C) Stay flat and still during the procedure.
D) Sedation will be provided during the procedure.
Q2) A patient was admitted with pancreatitis.In which order would the nurse perform an assessment of the gastrointestinal system?
A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B) Palpation, percussion, inspection, auscultation
C) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with an upper gastrointestinal bleed.What procedure would the nurse expect the practitioner to order to confirm this diagnosis?
A) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
B) Colonoscopy
C) Endoscopy
D) Angiography
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Chapter 29: Gastrointestinal Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41327
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted with acute liver failure.Which interventions would the nurse expect as part of the interprofessional collaborative management plan?
A) Benzodiazepines for agitation
B) Pulse oximetry and serial arterial blood gas measurements
C) Insulin drip for hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
D) Monitoring electrolyte blood levels
E) Assessing for signs of cerebral edema
F) Fever
Q2) Which nursing intervention is a priority for a patient with gastrointestinal hemorrhage?
A) Positioning the patient in a high-Fowler position
B) Ensuring the patient has a patent airway
C) Irrigating the nasogastric tube with iced saline
D) Maintaining venous access so that fluids and blood can be administered
Q3) How would the nurse administer sucralfate through a gastric tube?
A) Crushed and mixed with 10 mL of water
B) Dissolved in 10 mL of water to form a slurry
C) Mixed in 15 mL of water to form a solution
D) Administered as a whole pill with a 35-mL water flush
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Chapter 30: Endocrine Anatomy and Physiology
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41328
Sample Questions
Q1) Glucagon release is stimulated by which physiologic factor?
A) Increases in circulating insulin
B) Decreases in blood amino acids
C) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
D) High blood glucose levels
Q2) A patient is brought to the hospital with a major stab wound.After excessive blood loss,the nurse should anticipate what change in the patient's serum osmolality?
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Rapid decrease than increase
D) Equal to his or her sodium level
Q3) A patient is admitted post arrest from sudden cardiac death.According the code record the patient received a total of 6 mg of epinephrine.The nurse knows that epinephrine and norepinephrine are also secreted by which organ?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Adrenal medulla
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Posterior pituitary
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Chapter 31: Endocrine Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41329
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with hyponatremia.The practitioner suspects the patient may have syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)and orders a serum ADH level for the next morning.Which medications must be stopped or withheld at least 8 hours prior to the test?
A) Insulin and furosemide
B) Morphine and carbamazepine
C) Digoxin and potassium
D) Heparin and lopressor
Q2) A patient has been admitted with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation and muscle wasting.The practitioner suspects the patient may have a thyroid disorder.The nurse anticipates the practitioner will initially order which diagnostic procedure to visualize the thyroid?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B) Ultrasound
C) Biopsy
D) Computed tomography (CT)
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33
Chapter 32: Endocrine Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41330
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with extreme fatigue,vomiting,and headache.This patient has type 1 diabetes that has been well controlled with an insulin pump.The patient states,"I know it could not be my diabetes because my pump gives me 24-hour control." Which reply would be the nurse's best response?
A) "You know a lot about your pump, and you are correct."
B) "You're right. This is probably a virus."
C) "We'll get an abdominal CT and see if your pancreas is inflamed."
D) "We'll check your serum blood glucose and ketones."
Q2) A patient has been admitted after surgery for removal of a brain tumor.The nurse suspects the patient may be developing diabetes insipidus (DI).Which findings would confirm the nurse's suspicion?
A) Hyperglycemia and hyperosmolarity
B) Hyperglycemia and peripheral edema
C) Intense thirst and passage of excessively large quantities of dilute urine
D) Peripheral edema and pulmonary crackles
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Trauma
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41331
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a Le Fort III facial fracture has been admitted to the critical care unit.Which statements is true regarding this type of facial fracture?
A) It is frequently associated with cerebrospinal fluid leaks.
B) It is not as severe as Le Forte I and II injuries.
C) The patient's airway is not usually compromised.
D) It is associated with a low risk for hemorrhagic shock.
Q2) A patient developed a hemothorax after a blunt chest trauma.The practitioner inserted a chest tube on the left side,and 1800 mL of blood was evacuated from the chest.The nurse expects that the patient will be taken to surgery for what procedure?
A) Thoracotomy
B) Pericardiocentesis
C) Splenectomy
D) Pneumonectomy
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Chapter 34: Shock,sepsis,and Multiple-Organ Dysfunction Syndrome
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41332
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient in hypovolemic shock secondary to cirrhosis of the liver.The nurse understands that this type of shock results from shifting of fluid into the abdominal cavity.What is the resulting hypovolemia called?
A) Absolute hypovolemia
B) Distributive hypovolemia
C) Relative hypovolemia
D) Compensatory hypovolemia
Q2) A patient in cardiogenic shock is being treated in the critical care unit.Which findings would the nurse expect to note in the patient to support this diagnosis?
A) Warm, dry skin
B) Heart rate greater than 100 beats/min
C) Weak, thready pulse
D) Increased right atrial pressure
E) Decreased pulmonary artery occlusion pressure
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Chapter 35: Burns
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41333
Sample Questions
Q1) Contracture development leading to impaired physical mobility can occur after a major burn injury.Splints are applied to prevent or correct contractures.Priority nursing interventions concerning this therapy include which action?
A) Daily assessment for proper fit and effectiveness
B) Removal of splints during showers and dressing changes
C) Allowing for frequent breaks from splint use
D) Passive and active range of motion may be used instead of splints
Q2) A patient is admitted to the burn unit with extensive burns after a house fire.The patient's vital signs and physical exam include a heart rate of 140 beats/min,a urine output of 25 mL/h,and clear lung sounds.What adjustment,if any,needs to be made to the fluid resuscitation plan?
A) Continue as planned; everything looks good.
B) IV rate should be decreased and colloids started.
C) IV rate should be increased and fluid status closely watched.
D) Fluids should be switched to packed red blood cells.
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Chapter 36: Organ Donation and Transplantation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41334
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing a patient for a liver transplant.The patient asks which stage of the procedure is the longest and most difficult.What would the nurse tell the patient?
A) Stage 1-recipient hepatectomy
B) Stage 2-vascular anastomoses
C) Stage 3-biliary anastomosis
D) Stage 4-induction therapy
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient after a heart transplant.Which finding would the nurse anticipate after cardiac transplantation?
A) Two P waves on the electrocardiogram (ECG)
B) High cardiac output
C) Anginal pain
D) Resting heart rate of 60 to 70 beats/min
Q3) A patient who has received a transplant is being taught about cyclosporine.Which statement made by the patient would indicate the teaching was effective?
A) "I know this drug prevents my immune system from working."
B) "If I find the capsules are hard to swallow, I'll take the liquid."
C) "I will need to watch for bruising."
D) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure."
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Chapter 37: Hematologic and Oncologic Emergencies
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41335
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with symptoms of a low-grade fever,joint pain,tachycardia,hepatomegaly,photophobia,and an inability to follow commands.The patient is becoming more agitated and complaining of pain.The nurse suspects that the patient has which disorder?
A) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Q2) A patient has been admitted with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS).Which intervention would be incorporated into the plan of care to prevent the metabolic imbalances associated with this disorder?
A) Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate for hypokalemia.
B) Keep urine pH below 7.0.
C) Restrict all oral fluids.
D) Restrict foods containing potassium.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT play a role in thrombin inhibition?
A) Thromboxane A
B) Antithrombin III
C) Protein S
D) Protein C
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Chapter 38: The Obstetric Patient
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41336
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding pregnancy and asthma is accurate?
A) Progesterone causes smooth muscle relaxation, which can worsen asthma symptoms.
B) Poorly controlled asthma has been associated with an increased incidence of spontaneous abortion.
C) A decrease in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of more than 20% of the patient's personal best requires a visit to the emergency room.
D) It is estimated that approximately two thirds of patients will have worsening of asthma symptoms.
Q2) Which statement regarding the use of medications or other therapies for advanced cardiac life support (ACLS)in the pregnant patient is accurate?
A) No contraindications exist for use of atropine in pregnancy.
B) Epinephrine is contraindicated because it decreases uteroplacental perfusion.
C) Lidocaine is contraindicated because it crosses the placenta and has adverse fetal effects.
D) Electric therapies are contraindicated because of the potential for electrocution of the infant.
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Chapter 39: The Pediatric Patient
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41337
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-month-old infant presents with vomiting and diarrhea.The infant appears to be drowsy; his pulse rate is 180 beats/min; and he has had a dry diaper for the past 3 hours.The nurse suspects the patient has developed which condition?
A) Mild dehydration
B) Moderate dehydration
C) Desiccation
D) Severe dehydration
Q2) What is the key to effective pain management in children?
A) Behavioral assessment
B) Pain assessment
C) Physical assessment
D) Activity assessment
Q3) What is the difference between the upper airway of an infant and that of an adult?
A) The infant's epiglottis is located lower than an adult's.
B) The infant's tongue is larger than the adult's, and it fills the oral cavity.
C) The infant's larynx is more tubular shaped with its narrowest portion at the epiglottis.
D) The infant's airway is more rigid than an adult's.
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Chapter 40: The Older Adult Patient
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41338
Sample Questions
Q1) An 82-year-old patient was admitted for pneumonia.The nurse knows that there are a number of age-related pulmonary changes that may affect this patient.What change would the nurse expect to find?
A) Increased tidal volumes
B) Weakening of intercostal muscles and the diaphragm
C) Improved cough reflex
D) Decreased sensation of the glottis
Q2) The nurse recognizes that there are numerous interventions that can decrease the negative physical,functional,and cognitive long-term outcomes associated with critical illness.Identify a few of these interventions.
A) Avoid pharmacologic sleep agents.
B) Focus on planning for home.
C) Use restraints.
D) Use indwelling catheters.
E) Reduce noise at night.
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42
Chapter 41: The Perianesthesia Patient
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35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41339
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed laryngospasm.What action should the nurse take first?
A) Assist with intubation and then provide manual ventilation with 100% oxygen.
B) Hyperextend the patient's head and administer positive-pressure ventilations on 100% oxygen.
C) Administer 10 mg of succinylcholine.
D) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient immediately after surgery.The patient is requesting something to drink.The nurse knows that oral intake is prohibited after anesthesia until what occurs?
A) The patient is ambulatory.
B) The patient is strong enough to hold a cup of water.
C) All nausea has ceased.
D) Laryngeal and pharyngeal reflexes are fully regained.
Q3) What are the effects of nitrous oxide?
A) Anesthesia, analgesia, and amnesia
B) Vasodilation, analgesia, and myocardial depression
C) Respiratory and cardiovascular depression
D) Bronchodilation, myocardial excitation, and muscle tremors
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