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Criminal Psychology is the scientific study of the thoughts, intentions, actions, and reactions of individuals involved in criminal behavior. This course explores the psychological mechanisms underlying criminal acts and examines theories related to personality, developmental influences, and mental disorders that contribute to criminality. Students will analyze case studies and real-world examples to understand offender profiling, victimology, the role of mental health in the criminal justice system, and approaches to assessment, prevention, and rehabilitation. Through lectures, discussions, and applied research, the course provides insight into the relationship between psychological theory and law enforcement practice.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Forensic Psychology Research and Application 5th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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Q1) The immigrant population in the United States tends to be at the highest and lowest ends of the ______ continuum.
A) adult violent crime
B) educational
C) violent bullying
D) youth homicides
Answer: B
Q2) Where would a forensic psychologist find the principles and standards for ethical practices?
A) The APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct
B) Black's Law Dictionary
C) The Journal of Forensic Psychology
D) Clinician's Handbook of Psychological Behavior
Answer: A
Q3) The term forensic refers to anything pertaining or potentially pertaining to law, both civil and criminal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) The systematic procedure for identifying the skills, abilities, knowledge, and psychological characteristics that are needed to do public safety work successfully is referred to as ______.
A) law enforcement screening
B) job analysis
C) preemployment screening
D) comprehensive skills analysis
Answer: B
Q2) Early warning systems are used to identify ______.
A) female officers at risk for sexual harassment
B) potential problem behaviors in officers
C) suspects who are vulnerable to coercion
D) officers who are insensitive to diversity issues
Answer: B
Q3) Boredom and exposure to violent situations are examples of ______ stressors.
A) occupational
B) external
C) personal
D) task-related
Answer: D
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Q1) Professional polygraphers prefer the ______, while researchers are more favorably disposed to the ______.
A) Control Question Test; Comparison Question Test
B) Guilty Knowledge Test; Comparison Question Test
C) Control Question Test; Guilty Knowledge Test
D) Guilty Knowledge Test; Control Question Test
Answer: C
Q2) Kim Rossmo developed a program that attempts to pinpoint the location of an offender's residence and/or base of operations. This program is called ______.
A) CompStat
B) Criminal Geographic Targeting
C) Risk-Needs-Responsivity
D) Global Positioning System
Answer: B
Q3) Research suggests that the great majority of individuals who confess to crimes are innocent.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Mental health court is a type of specialty court.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The central issue in Atkins v. Virginia involved ______.
A) scientific jury selection
B) execution of intellectually disabled individuals
C) mental health courts
D) incarceration of juvenile sex offenders
Q3) Which violence risk assessment instrument is an actuarial measure designed for adult male sex offenders?
A) Static-99
B) ERASOR
C) HCR-20
D) SAVRY
Q4) A history of research on juries indicates that the strength of the evidence presented to them is the main variable that affects their decision.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define and provide an example of an amicus curiae brief.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in the federal and state laws have made it more difficult for defendants pleading not guilty by reason of insanity to win acquittal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What do Theodore Kaczynski and Colin Ferguson have in common? How does Indiana v. Edwards (2008) pertain to both men?
Q3) Research has found that many sex offenders do not suffer from a mental disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define malingering.
Q5) Which Supreme Court ruling is an example of a sexually violent predator statute?
A) Kansas v. Hendricks
B) Loving v. Virginia
C) Mapp v. Ohio
D) Betts v. Brady
Q6) Describe what is involved in a psychosexual assessment. Include the reasons why clinicians are discouraged from using a typology to label a sex offender in a written report.
Q7) List three reasons why competency evaluations are so common.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the standard of proof for most civil cases?
A) beyond a reasonable doubt
B) preponderance of evidence
C) clear and convincing evidence
D) nolo contendere
Q2) In order to qualify as illegal, sexual harassment must be ______ and ______.
A) irritating; offensive
B) severe; pervasive
C) subjective; humiliating
D) debilitating; unwanted
Q3) Knowing the nature and extent of one's property and an awareness of the nature and relationship of those who may be beneficiaries are elements of ______.
A) civil capacity
B) testamentary capacity
C) tort competence
D) litigable competence
Q4) Explain how a forensic evaluation for mental and neurological damages is both retrospective and prospective in nature.
Q5) Who is Kendra Webdale? How does she pertain to concepts in the chapter?
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Q1) Which source of crime data was developed to address the shortcomings of the UCR?
A) National Incident-Based Reporting System
B) National Crime Victimization Survey
C) National Youth Survey
D) Monitoring the Future
Q2) The developmental dual systems model is based on empirical studies from the fields of developmental psychology and ______.
A) neuroscience
B) microbiology
C) forensic entomology
D) public policy
Q3) Factor 1 is to the ______ components of psychopathy, where Factor 2 is to the ______ components of psychopathy.
A) goals and ambitions; socioeconomic status and educational attainment
B) socioeconomic status and educational attainment; goals and ambitions
C) deviant lifestyle and antisocial attitudes; interpersonal and affective
D) interpersonal and affective; deviant lifestyle and antisocial attitude
Q4) Define the terms actus reus and mens rea. How do these terms pertain to juvenile delinquency?
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Q1) The UCR's murder rate is based on ______.
A) police investigations
B) coroners' reports
C) court determinations
D) medical examiner reports
Q2) Why do serial killers rarely use guns to kill their victims?
A) They do not have easy access to guns.
B) They aren't comfortable with violence.
C) They prefer methods that provide control and dominance.
D) They prefer to leave their victims clean for trophy collecting.
Q3) A student who receives a note in her locker that states "this school would be better off without you here" has received a ______ school threat.
A) indirect
B) veiled
C) direct
D) conditional
Q4) Compare and contrast violence and aggression. Provide an example of each.
Q5) Discuss how the UCR may perpetuate racial stereotypes of criminal violence.
Q6) Briefly describe the limitations with the terms school shooting and school rampage.
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Q1) The Groth rape typology is ______ based, whereas the MTC rape typology is ______ based.
A) victim; offender
B) clinically; research
C) reliability; validity
D) power; aggression
Q2) Research suggests that most female sex offenders offend against males in their care.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify Becker and Johnson's (2001) recommendations for future clinical research on juvenile sex offending.
Q4) All of the following are true about the MTC rape typology except it ______.
A) considers the context in which rape occurs
B) focuses on behavioral patterns of rapists
C) is based on personality traits of rapists
D) is not useful to victims of sexual assault
Q5) The Groth rapist typology is based on the presumed motivations of offenders. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which activity of human trafficking is considered the most controversial?
A) prostitution
B) domestic servitude
C) bonded labor
D) forced labor
Q2) The impact of criminal violence on victims is best described as ______ and ______.
A) substantial; far-reaching
B) temporary; stressful
C) undocumented; uncontrollable
D) impermeable; irrepressible
Q3) Describe death notification. What do you think the repercussions of a poorly done notification could be for co-victims?
Q4) Psychologists working with death notifiers must be particularly attuned to ______.
A) the high likelihood of repeated victimization
B) symptoms of burnout
C) threats from the perpetrator
D) the tendency to become too close with the victim's family
Q5) Summarize the research on homicides of young children.
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Q1) Research suggests that intimate partner violence in same-sex relationships is rare.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Acquisition, storage, and retrieval are the components of ______.
A) repression
B) human memory
C) reconstructive theory
D) cognitive templates
Q3) Discuss the different perspectives and recommendations on whether or not a woman should leave an IPV situation. What is your opinion on this issue?
Q4) The majority of victims of Munchausen syndrome by proxy are teenage girls.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The inability to recall events before age three is called repressed memory.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Professional caregivers are the most frequent abusers of older adults.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The prevalence of mental disorders among inmates is lower than the rate of mental disorders in the general population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a criminogenic need?
A) depression
B) low self-esteem
C) anxiety
D) alcohol abuse
Q3) Approximately half of individuals in jails are ______ and another half are ______.
A) innocent; serving short-term sentences
B) guilty; violent
C) women; juveniles
D) mentally disordered; substance abusers on house arrest
Q4) Which industrialized country has the highest incarceration rate?
A) Australia
B) United States
C) Canada
D) United Kingdom
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Q1) Teaching-family homes operate according to which psychology learning theory?
A) behavior modification
B) psychoanalysis
C) social learning
D) humanism
Q2) Research shows that most juveniles cannot understand their constitutional rights.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which two factors are strong predictors of Miranda competence in juveniles?
A) cognitive ability and ethno-racial group
B) socioeconomic status and education level
C) religion and race
D) age and suggestibility
Q4) Most judicial waivers are made at the request of defense attorneys who seek to prosecute juveniles in adult criminal courts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the process of juvenile sex offender assessment. Why is assessment of sex offenders controversial?
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