Criminal Justice Systems Exam Review - 900 Verified Questions

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Criminal Justice Systems Exam Review

Course Introduction

This course provides a comprehensive overview of the criminal justice system, examining its core components: law enforcement, the judiciary, and corrections. Students will explore the evolution, structure, and functions of each component, gaining insight into how they interconnect to maintain order, administer justice, and protect individual rights. The course delves into key concepts such as due process, criminal procedure, and the roles of various criminal justice professionals. Through critical analysis of current practices, policies, and challenges, students develop an understanding of contemporary issues facing the system, including crime prevention, rehabilitation, and the impact of societal factors on justice administration.

Recommended Textbook

Criminal Procedure for the Criminal Justice Professional 12th Edition by John N. Ferdico

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15 Chapters

900 Verified Questions

900 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1338 Page 2

Chapter 1: Individual Rights Under the United States

Constitution

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26682

Sample Questions

Q1) The Fourth Amendment prohibits _____ searches and seizures.

A) unlawful

B) surreptitious

C) unreasonable

D) unwarranted

Answer: C

Q2) The _____ restricts the establishment of any government-sponsored religion.

A) proportionality clause

B) symbolic speech clause

C) free exercise clause

D) probable cause clause

Answer: C

Q3) Ex post facto laws _____.

A) impose punishment by an act of the legislature

B) are retroactive laws which act to the detriment of the accused

C) guarantee that federal crimes, except impeachment, be tried before a jury

D) retroactively enhance the rights of the accused

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Criminal Courts, Pretrial Processes, and the

Exclusionary

Rule

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the United States Supreme Court grants a writ of certiorari, this means that the Court is _____.

A) taking original jurisdiction over the case

B) obligated to review the case

C) willing to review a case decided by a lower court

D) willing to retry the case

Answer: C

Q2) The location of the court is referred to as the ______________.

Answer: venue

Q3) In order of authority from lowest to highest, the structure of the federal court system is _____.

A) US Court of Appeals, US District Court, US Supreme Court

B) US District Court, US Superior Court, US Supreme Court

C) US Circuit Court, US District Court, US Supreme Court

D) US District Court, US Court of Appeals, US Supreme Court

Answer: D

Q4) An affidavit can be described as a ______________.

Answer: sworn statement

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Q5) The lowest level of criminal court in the federal system is the ______________.

Answer: U.S. District Court

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Chapter 3: Basic Underlying Concepts: Property, Privacy,

Probable Cause, and Reasonableness

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Write a brief paragraph explaining the importance of note-taking by an officer as the case progresses.

Answer: Note-taking by an officer is crucial as the case progresses for several reasons. First, it helps to ensure accuracy and completeness of information gathered during investigations, interviews, and interactions with witnesses and suspects. This can be vital in building a strong case and presenting evidence in court. Additionally, thorough note-taking can aid in the organization and analysis of information, helping to identify patterns, inconsistencies, and potential leads. It also serves as a valuable reference for the officer and their colleagues, especially if the case is complex and spans over a long period of time. Lastly, detailed notes can provide transparency and accountability, demonstrating the thoroughness and professionalism of the officer's work. Overall, note-taking is an essential tool for effective law enforcement and the successful resolution of cases.

Q2) Probable cause is evaluated by examining the __________ of the police at the time of the arrest or search, not merely the personal knowledge of the arresting or searching officer.

Answer: collective knowledge

Q3) Third party information is often referred to as ________.

Answer: hearsay

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Criminal Investigatory Search Warrants

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60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What rule of law developed from the Segura case? What potential impact do you see for police officers? Explain your reasoning.

Q2) If a mistake is made in specifying the address on a search warrant, the warrant is automatically invalid.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The number of hours a search lasted is the major factor used to determine the reasonableness of the duration of a search.

A)True

B)False

Q4) To obtain a valid anticipatory search warrant, _____

A) there must be a fair probability that specific contraband will be found if the triggering event occurs and a fair probability that the triggering event will in fact occur

B) the police must have corroborated information from at least two different informants

C) police must have sufficient basis to believe that the evidence cannot be obtained any other way

D) the police must have established reasonable suspicion

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Chapter 5: Searches for Electronically Stored Information and

Electronic Surveillance

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When one party to a communication consents to the interception of the communication, neither Title III of the Wiretap Act nor the Fourth Amendment prevents the use of the communication in court against another party to the communication. This is called __________.

Q2) Title III of the Wiretap Act does not cover video surveillance using video cameras that record only images and not aural communications.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Neither Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 nor the Fourth Amendment requires law enforcement to _____.

A) obtain a judicial order to intercept wire, oral, or electronic communications

B) obtain judicial authorization to covertly enter the premises to install a listening device

C) first receive administrative authorization to apply for an interception order

D) conduct themselves in a way that minimizes the interception of communications not subject to the interception order

Q4) Briefly describe how the Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Acts of 1968 originated.

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Chapter 6: Administrative and Special Needs Searches

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Define what is meant by a special needs search. Provide a minimum of two examples.

Q2) Explain the differences between a criminal search and an administrative search.

Q3) Because the search guidelines for college students are so vague and inconsistent, few generalizations can be made.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Police and fire officials are investigating a fire. Assume that a reasonable expectation of privacy remains in the premise and that no exception to the warrant requirement applies. Officials want to search the premises after the fire has been fully extinguished. The only purpose of the search is to determine the cause and origin of a recent fire. Which statement is true?

A) Officials need an administrative search warrant.

B) Officials need a criminal search warrant.

C) Officials need neither an administrative nor a criminal search warrant.

D) Officials need both an administrative and a criminal search warrant.

Q5) Describe how the events of September 11, 2001 impacted government use of the "special needs" doctrine to justify intrusions of individual privacy.

Q6) Warrantless searches are allowed for certain licensed and __________ industries.

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Chapter 7: Arrests, Searches Incident to Arrest, and Protective Sweeps

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most significant personal advantage an officer has when making an arrest with a valid warrant over making that arrest without one?

A) not being civilly liable for false arrest if the arrest was in fact unjustified.

B) not being responsible for the degree of force used to make the arrest.

C) not being likely to arrest the wrong person.

D) being able to arrest outside his or her venue.

Q2) Which of the following is not generally impacted by an illegal arrest?

A) direct evidence

B) a confession

C) jurisdiction to try a person for a crime

D) physical/real evidence

Q3) Generally speaking, a search is said to be __________ with an arrest if the search is at the same time that probable cause to arrest develops or is conducted shortly thereafter.

Q4) Describe the circumstances under which law enforcement officers may search containers. Cite at least one court case pertaining to same.

Q5) A(n) __________ is a court order demanding someone to appear in court to respond to charges.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Stops and Frisks

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60 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following most accurately describes a police initiated action that relies solely on the race, ethnicity, or national origin of a person and not his or her behavior?

A) pretextual stop

B) racial profiling

C) bias-based traffic control

D) authoritative pretext

Q2) Stop and frisk procedures are serious intrusions into a person's privacy and are governed by the ______________ Amendment.

Q3) A police officer may detain property for a short period of time if he has a reasonable, articulable suspicion that the property contains items subject to seizure. The property may not be searched without a search warrant, but the officer may subject the property to a properly conducted ______________.

Q4) What is the difference between a frisk and a full search?

Q5) Explain how the courts have defined reasonableness, as the concept relates to stops and to frisks.

Q6) Define what is meant by a furtive gesture and give two examples.

Q7) What is meant by a show of authority?

Q8) Describe the distinctions between a stop and a formal arrest.

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Chapter 9: Consent Searches

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A police officer has reasonable suspicion to believe a man approaching his car is involved in criminal activity and is armed. The officer draws his gun and has the man to stop about 15 feet from the man's car. The officer conducts a quick pat-down search of the man's outer clothing and finds nothing. With his gun still out of its holster, the officer asks the man for consent to search the car. The man consents. how will the court most likely deem the search?

A) validate the search because the man provided valid consent.

B) validate the search owing to exigent circumstances.

C) invalidate the search as non-consensual.

D) invalidate the search because the man has no authority to provide consent.

Q2) The essential ingredient for valid consent to search is _____.

A) reasonableness

B) reasonable suspicion

C) probable cause

D) voluntariness

Q3) Evasive or uncooperative conduct on the part of the person in custody is considered to indicate that the consent is not voluntary.

A)True

B)False

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Page 11

Chapter 10: The Plain View Doctrine and Special Needs Searches

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Name three mechanical aids or electrical devices that courts have ruled on for plain view searches and what, if any, limitations are placed on those devices.

Q2) Police officers were stationed on a hill 300 yards from the rear of the suspect's eighth floor apartment. With a telescope the officers could observe through the partially closed drapes at the rear that the suspect was engaged in an illegal activity. The officers' information _____.

A) was lawfully gathered because any aural or visual enhancement is allowed B) was not lawfully gathered because they could not have seen the activity without some visual enhancement

C) was lawfully gathered because the suspect did not completely close the drapes D) was not lawfully gathered because the suspect's reasonable expectation of privacy was violated

Q3) If the police lack ________ that an object in plain view is contraband without conducting some further search of the object, the plain view doctrine cannot justify its seizure.

Q4) Describe the findings of United States v. Gillenwaters regarding the plain view doctrine when police respond to certain emergencies.

Q5) Describe the plain touch or plain feel doctrine.

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Chapter 11: Search and Seizure of Vehicles and Containers

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26692

Sample Questions

Q1) Not all drivers and passengers have an expectation of privacy in terms of the items contained in a vehicle. Under the Fourth Amendment these vehicle occupants would be said to lack __________ to challenge a particular vehicle search by police.

Q2) Explain the rationale and the scope of searches allowed under the Carroll doctrine regarding automobile exceptions to search warrants.

Q3) As detailed in United States v. Ross, 1982, explain the differences between the search of an entire vehicle versus a particular area of a vehicle.

Q4) In determining whether a vehicle is readily mobile, courts look to whether _____.

A) the vehicle is inherently capable of movement

B) the vehicle is actually mobile at a particular moment in time

C) the vehicle was recently moved by the owner

D) he person controlling the vehicle has ready the tools needed to make the vehicle capable of movement

Q5) Detail the reasoning of the court regarding the search of a container found in a vehicle in the case of California v. Acevedo, 1991.

Q6) A valid inventory search requires neither __________ nor a(n) __________.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Open Fields and Abandoned Property

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26693

Sample Questions

Q1) Which phrase best describes the areas considered to be protected by the Fourth Amendment under the definition of the term "house"?

A) hotel and motel rooms, apartments, rooming and boarding house rooms, and hospital rooms

B) hotel and motel rooms and apartments

C) hotel and motel rooms, apartments, and rooming and boarding house rooms

D) only a single family residence

Q2) Describe at least two factors or circumstances that a court would consider regarding the issue of abandonment.

Q3) Explain how a garage and the immediate area surrounding it pertains to the concept of curtilage.

Q4) The U.S Supreme Court has found that warrantless police surveillance from the air of curtilage __________ the Fourth Amendment.

Q5) Discuss the findings in California v. Ciraolo, 1986, regarding aerial warrantless observations by the police.

Q6) The __________ case described the factors to determine whether property falls within a house's curtilage and hence is protected by the Fourth Amendment.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Interrogations, Admissions, and Confessions

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the Miranda Warning?

Q2) The warnings required by Miranda must be given before police question a person who is in __________ or deprived of his or her freedom of action in any significant way.

Q3) Some courts have ruled that a confession produced by trickery or __________ is not necessarily involuntary.

Q4) The major issues of Miranda hinge on the meaning of four terms. Which of the following is NOT one of the four?

A) custody

B) interrogation

C) warning

D) arrest

Q5) Briefly explain the right to counsel clause of the Sixth Amendment.

Q6) Describe and provide a court case as an example to illustrate Miranda's limitation regarding testimonial evidence.

Q7) Miranda warnings are required to be given anytime a person is in custody. A)True

B)False

Q8) Define these terms: statement, admission, interrogation, and confession.

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Chapter 14: Pretrial Visual Identification Procedures

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before, during, and after an identification procedure, police and prosecutors should avoid giving witnesses any feedback on whether they feel they have made a "good" or "correct" identification.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In determining the admissibility of identification evidence, the most important factor is whether _____.

A) procedural due process rights were violated

B) substantive due process rights were violated

C) the evidence is reliable

D) police abuses were incidental or intentional

Q3) Explain the concept of incomplete sensory acquisition.

Q4) The Yerkes-Dodson law posits perception and memory are at their best when the person is experiencing a(n) _____ level of stress.

A) extremely high

B) high

C) medium

D) low

Q5) Describe what is meant by sensory overload.

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Chapter 15: Criminal Trials, Appeals, and Postconviction

Remedies

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26696

Sample Questions

Q1) Explain how the right to a speedy trial depends on whether a formal accusation has been made.

Q2) Certain types of delay are not counted toward the time periods specified in the Speedy Trial Act. These delays that are not counted are called __________.

Q3) There are two major forms of relief for a defendant after being convicted of a crime: __________ and __________.

Q4) The appellate court may affirm the conviction of a defendant, even if there was trial error. The conviction will be upheld if the court finds that there was error which had little likelihood of changing the result of the trial. What is this rule commonly known as?

A) plain error rule

B) contemporaneous objection rule

C) harmless error rule

D) final judgment rule

Q5) __________ require that prosecution commence within a specified period of time from the date of the alleged commission of the offense.

Q6) Explain the differences between an appeal, a habeas corpus filing, and a civil action under § 1983.

Page 17

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