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Criminal Justice is an interdisciplinary course that examines the structures, processes, and actors involved in the enforcement of laws, the adjudication of crimes, and the administration of justice in society. Students will explore the roles and responsibilities of law enforcement, courts, and corrections, as well as the procedures that govern criminal investigations and prosecutions. The course also considers key topics such as crime theories, the rights of the accused, juvenile justice, and contemporary issues facing the criminal justice system. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, ethical challenges, and the impact of social, economic, and cultural factors on the pursuit of justice.
Recommended Textbook
America's Courts and the Criminal Justice System 10th Edition by David W. Neubauer
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Q1) In a U.S.Supreme Court decision, the opinion which agrees with the majority result but not with the reasoning of the majority is called what?
A)a concurring opinion
B)a dissenting opinion
C)a plurality opinion
D)a per curium opinion
Answer: A
Q2) In recent years, state supreme courts have become important policymakers in a number of contentious areas, such as same-sex marriages and parental rights in divorce cases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Unlike trial courts, appellate courts do not hear _____ at trials.
Answer: evidence
Q4) When lawyers think an error is being made at trial, they must object in order to give the trial court _____ the opportunity to correct the error.
Answer: judge
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Q1) Advocates of the crime control model of criminal justice believe that unless crime is controlled, the rights of law-abiding citizens will not be protected, and the security of society will be diminished.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Felony defendants enter a plea at the _____ stage of the judicial process. Answer: arraignment
Q3) A defendant will be asked to enter a plea to the charges at arraignment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Defendants and victims are the most important actors in the courthouse. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) In Brown v.Mississippi, the U.S.Supreme Court ruled that confessions obtained as a result of physical torture were inadmissible in court as they violated the essential elements of _____.
Answer: due process
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Q1) _____ are the best known aspects of procedural law.
Answer: Trials
Q2) Which of the following is the highest burden of proof?
A)Clear and convincing evidence
B)Preponderance of evidence
C)Probable cause
D)Proof beyond a reasonable doubt
Answer: D
Q3) The adversary system incorporates a series of checks and balances aimed at curbing political misuse of the criminal courts through:
A) incorporation of rights
B) diffusion of powers
C) prosecutorial discretion
D) judicial activism
Answer: B
Q4) The doctrine of applying the Bill of Rights to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment is known as _____.
Answer: selective incorporation
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Q1) This type of prisoner petition seeks a court order to compel a public entity or official to do something that is owed to the plaintiff as a matter of constitutional or statutory right.
A) mandamus
B) habeas corpus
C) motion to compel
D) Section 1983 action
Q2) The Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court of Review's only function is to:
A) hear appeals regarding constitutional violations of individual privacy rights.
B) review warrant applications related to national security investigations.
C) act as arbitrator between intelligence officials and foreign governments.
D) review denials by the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court of applications for electronic surveillance warrants.
Q3) Appellate courts primarily review the legal decisions made by _____ courts.
Q4) The different agencies involved in the administration of the federal court system include the Judicial Conference of the United State, the Administrative Office of the U.S.Courts, the Federal Judicial Center, and the U.S.Sentencing Commission.What are their responsibilities? How are these responsibilities hierarchical in nature?
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Q1) What type of panels are typically used by intermediate courts of appeals?
A)rotating three-judge
B)rotating five-judge
C)nine-judge
D)single-judge
Q2) The principal objective of a _____ court system is a shift in judicial administration from local control to centralized management.
Q3) What kind of crimes do state courts primarily decide?
A)major drug distribution
B)terrorist crimes
C)white-collar crimes
D)street crimes
Q4) The principal objective of a unified court system is to shift judicial administration from local control to centralized management.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The modern agenda of court reform includes topics such as reducing _____ court delay.
Q6) One of the key components of court unification is _____ administration.
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Q1) Although a prosecutor may believe that a given defendant violated the law, s/he may decide against moving forward with prosecution based on a belief that no jury would come back with a guilty verdict. This represents a discretionary decision based on
A)legal judgment.
B)policy priority.
C)personal philosophy.
D)judicial restraint.
Q2) The same differences of opinion about crime that characterize society as a whole likewise divide courthouse actors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who is the record keeper for the court, often responsible for summoning potential jurors?
A)law clerk
B)clerk of court
C)court reporter
D)secretary
Q4) What are the strengths and weaknesses of speedy-trial laws? Provide examples.
Q5) The _____ is responsible for maintaining order in the courtroom.
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Q1) Judges control the flow of information about cases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most assistant district attorneys are hired _____ after graduation from law school.
Q3) Which of the following is among the ethical issues faced by prosecutors?
A)how much evidence to disclose to the defense
B)how much information to release to the public
C)whether to prosecute a given defendant
D)all of the answers are among the ethical issues faced by prosecutors
Q4) Small prosecutors' offices generally employ what type of prosecution?
A)horizontal
B)streamlined
C)vertical
D)directed
Q5) A state attorney general typically exercises great authority over local criminal proceedings.
A)True
B)False
Q6) District attorneys who accept the status quo adopt the office _____ style.
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Q1) Indigents are defendants who cannot afford to pay a lawyer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Defense attorneys are the _____ powerful members of the courtroom work group.
Q3) Legal ethics seek to ensure that lawyers will
A)zealously advocate for their client.
B)get the best deal for their client.
C)find the truth for their client.
D)get the most money for their client.
Q4) The _____ Amendment states that "in all criminal prosecutions the accused shall enjoy the right to have assistance of counsel for his defense."
Q5) Which method of providing legal representation for indigent defendants is the most common in large cities?
A)assigned counsel
B)contract
C)public defender
D)pro bono
Q6) Gideon v.Wainwright established a right to counsel for indigent _____defendants.
Q7) Explain why most lawyers do not represent criminal defendants.
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Q1) Approximately what percentage of state court judges in the United States are women?
A)Less than 10
B)29
C)33
D)50
Q2) Over the past several decades, the composition of the bench has become less diverse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Judges are under pressure to move their docket.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What form of judicial selection is supported as a way to sift out unqualified applicants?
A)partisan election
B)appointment
C)nonpartisan election
D)merit selection
Q5) Judges selected via _____ generally react to public opinion.
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Q1) Domestic violence laws began to change as society started to view domestic violence as an important social issue.Discuss the impact of such changes.
Q2) Victim/witness _____ programs are designed to help better navigate the court process.
Q3) What race of defendants is mostly like to be imprisoned?
A)white
B) Hispanic
C) Asian
D) Black
Q4) As prosecutorial dominance increased, what else also happened?
A)the power of the victim declined
B)the power of the victim increased
C)the power of the victim remained the same
D)the authority of the judge was undermined
Q5) Some programs that claim to be "victims' assistance" programs are actually focused on the punishment of defendants.
A)True
B)False
Q6) As _____ dominance increased, the power of the victim decreased.
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Q1) According to the wedding cake model, the top layer of the criminal justice system consists of _____ cases.
Q2) During what phase of the criminal justice process is the felony defendant formally accused of a crime and called upon to enter a plea?
A)initial appearance
B)preliminary hearing
C)arraignment
D)sentencing phase
Q3) How many layers are there on the criminal justice wedding cake?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
Q4) There are five layers to the criminal justice wedding cake.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and explain three reasons why a defense attorney would want to have a preliminary hearing.
Q6) Discuss the four types of charging documents.
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Q1) The U.S.Supreme Court's ruling in Brady v.Maryland prevents the suppression of what type of evidence?
A)Incriminating
B)Exclamatory
C)Exculpatory
D)Confessions
Q2) Explain why most searches by law enforcement are legally conducted without a search warrant.
Q3) All potentially exculpatory evidence must be disclosed to the defense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Arrest warrants may be issued by
A)chiefs of police.
B)prosecutors
C)judges.
D)defense attorneys.
Q5) A(n) _____ defense means that the defendant claims the crime was committed while the s/he was somewhere else, and thus could not have been the perpetrator.
Q6) Miranda applies only to _____ interrogations.
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Q1) Sentences for defendant's who are found guilty after trial are generally less severe than the expected sentence for the same offense after a guilty plea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In _____ bargaining the prosecutor allows the defendant to plead guilty to a less serious charge than the one originally filed.
Q3) Pursuant to Boykin v.Alabama, when a defendant enters a guilty plea, it must be intelligent and _____.
Q4) In a sentence bargain, the defendant pleads guilty in anticipation of reduced charges.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why do prosecutors engage in plea bargaining?
A)to move cases.
B)to gain leniency for the defendants.
C)to gain convictions.
D)None of these answers is correct.
Q6) The right to effective assistance of counsel extends to _____.
Q7) A plea of _____ is the criminal equivalent of a guilty plea.
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Q1) Under the Daubert standard, what is the lynchpin to admissibility?
A)probability
B)validity
C)circumstance
D)reliability
Q2) Before jury deliberations the judge _____ the jury with regard to the applicable law.
Q3) Discuss the role of voir dire and challenges used in jury selection. Be sure to provide examples.
Q4) Which of the following are requirements of jurors in virtually all states?
A)residents of the locality
B)minimum age
C)understand English
D)All of these answers are correct
Q5) What is the minimum size of a jury in noncapital criminal cases?
A)9 persons
B)6 persons
C)3 persons
D)12 persons
Q6) Summarize some of the basic rules of evidence.
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Q1) According to Bentham, punishment based on retribution was productive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What Amendment to the Constitution prohibits cruel and unusual punishments?
A)Fourth
B)Fifth
C)Sixth
D)Eighth
Q3) In 2008 the Court upheld the constitutionality of what form of execution?
A)Electrocution
B)Hanging
C)Gas poisoning
D)Lethal injection
Q4) Which of the following alternatives to incarceration is rarely used with felonies?
A)probation
B)restitution
C)intermediate sanctions
D)fines
Q5) The goal of _____ is to prevent the commission of future crimes.
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Q1) When a crime is perceived to be less serious, individual factors such as prior record are given relatively less weight than when the crime is more serious.
A)True B)False
Q2) The race of the offender and victim is less important in sentencing the race of the offender alone.
A)True B)False
Q3) Disparities refer to inconsistencies resulting from the decision-making process. A)True B)False
Q4) Discrimination refers to legitimate influences on the sentencing processes. A)True B)False
Q5) What is the primary purpose of a PSI?
A)help juries decide on an appropriate sentence
B)help courtroom work groups decide on an appropriate sentence
C)help judges decide on an appropriate sentence
D)help probation officers monitor their caseloads
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Q1) In the juvenile justice system, parents are considered to have sole and exclusive legal responsibility over their children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The terminology in juvenile court reflects what?
A)that it is based on civil law
B)that it is based on common law
C)that it is based on family law
Q3) Proceedings in juvenile court are more formal than in adult court.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some states set no _____ age for transfer of juveniles to adult court.
Q5) The American Civil Liberties Union outlined three priorities for the juvenile justice system. What was the first priority?
A)keep children out of the criminal justice system
B)protect the rights of incarcerated children
C)reintegrate juvenile delinquents into communities
D)place troubled youth in mental health facilities
Q6) Discuss the doctrine of parens patriae and its relevance to the juvenile court.
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