Criminal Justice Ethics
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Criminal Justice Ethics examines the moral and ethical dilemmas faced by professionals within the criminal justice system, including law enforcement officers, attorneys, judges, and correctional personnel. The course explores foundational ethical theories, the principles of justice and fairness, and the codes of conduct that guide decision-making in real-world scenarios. Through case studies and critical discussion, students are encouraged to analyze complex issues such as the use of force, racial profiling, discretion, corruption, and the balance between individual rights and public safety. Emphasis is placed on developing ethical reasoning skills and understanding the importance of integrity and accountability in maintaining public trust and upholding the rule of law.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Law for the Criminal Justice Professional 3rd Edition by Norman M Garland
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16 Chapters
672 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nature, Origins, Purposes, Structure, and
Operation of the Criminal Justice System
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Q1) The role of common law in today's modern criminal justice system
A)defines nearly all crimes covered in criminal law statutes in all jurisdictions.
B)takes precedence over statutory law in many jurisdictions.
C)usually is preferred since statutory law is overly vague.
D)is a predecessor of today's statutory criminal law.
Answer: D
Q2) What are the historical roots of American common law?
Answer: The laws of the U.S.and England stem from the common law of England.When the 13 colonies were established in America,they adopted the common law of England,but when the U.S.was formed,its law developed separately from the English common law tradition.Today,statutory law dominates the criminal law system of the United States,but common law still influences the criminal law system.
Q3) The principal purpose of the criminal law is to
A)prevent and control crime.
B)punish offenders.
C)attract attention to criminals.
D)promote social peace through strict laws.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Constitutional Limitations on the Criminal Law
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Q1) Under the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment,criminal statutes must NOT be
A)vague.
B)ambiguous.
C)overly broad.
D)All the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) In special circumstances,state and federal agencies can legally enact or enforce criminal statutes that unnecessarily inhibit the substantive rights identified in the U.S.Constitution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The substantive rights specifically enumerated within the Bill of Rights include the right to
A)bring grievances against the government.
B)have protection against cruel and unusual punishment
C)keep and bear arms
D)All the above are correct.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Classification of Crimes and Basic Elements of Criminal Responsibility
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Q1) One of the components of the requirement of concurrence exists when
A)the mens rea must have been present at some point in time before the actus reus that caused the social harm is committed.
B)concurrence shows that the actus reus must occur at the same time as the social harm that it causes.
C)concurrence can be either intentional or otherwise.
D)the mens rea must have been present at the same moment in time that the accused committed the actus reus that caused the social harm.
Answer: D
Q2) Situations that can diminish a person's criminal responsibility include
A)extreme youth,such as being too young to be tried as a juvenile offender
B)being forced at gunpoint to steal a car
C)mental infirmity,such as mental retardation or mental illness
D)All the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Criminal liability requires a concurrence of the actus reus and the mens rea.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Parties to a Crime
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mere knowledge about a crime,in a few jurisdictions,is a crime called A)conspiracy.
B)criminal facilitation.
C)accomplice in the first degree.
D)accomplice in the second degree.
Q2) Additional criminal acts committed during the commission of a planned crime will be considered a natural and foreseeable consequence if they
A)are harmful to others,including innocent victims.
B)involve the use of a dangerous or deadly weapon.
C)require the accomplice to take actions that he or she does not want.
D)are necessary to accomplish the original criminal goal.
Q3) A person's unpremeditated presence at a crime scene with the attention of providing assistance
A)establishes liability even if that person is never called upon for assistance.
B)establishes liability if that person is a known criminal.
C)does not establish liability if that person is never called upon for assistance.
D)does not establish liability in any situations except for probation or parole violations.
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Chapter 5: Incomplete Crimes
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Q1) Abandonment is a valid defense,in those jurisdictions that recognize it as such,only when the accused has a genuine change of heart about committing the crime and clearly manifests the desire to abandon the criminal enterprise entirely.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The salient issue in the impossibility defense is whether the law should punish a person who has attempted to do what was not possible under the existing circumstances.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under the ________ test,the perpetrator need not have advanced so far as the last act,and an attempt has not been committed unless the accused has the immediate power to actually carry through with the crime at the time of the intervention of the police.
A)indispensable element
B)last act
C)physical proximity
D)dangerous proximity
Q4) Name four of the six steps of the crime of intent.
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Chapter 6: Defenses to Crimes
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Q1) __________ is NOT a recognized involuntary intoxication.
A)Coerced intoxication
B)Intoxication by innocent mistake
C)Pathological intoxication
D)Intoxication by addiction
Q2) The MPC's version of the necessity defense applies only to situations where the actor
A)kills one person to save one other.
B)makes a choice of equal evils.
C)acts to save himself at the expense of another.
D)kills a person to save several others.
Q3) Self-defense is universally recognized in American criminal law.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Use of deadly force by a private citizen is more restricted than for police officers,in part to prevent vigilantism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name four of the major legal excuses.
Q6) Name and define the two most important categories of true defenses.
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Chapter 7: Punishment and Sentencing
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Q1) The goal of utilitarianism is
A)the greatest good for the greatest number.
B)"an eye for an eye."
C)to maintain existing social hierarchies.
D)vengeance.
Q2) __________ is(are)NOT a principle feature of indeterminate sentencing systems.
A)"The grant of great discretion to the trial judge to fashion a sentence"
B)"Sentences based on information obtained in a sentencing hearing after conviction"
C)"U.S.and state senates interventions"
D)"A parole board"
Q3) In 1862,the American Law Institute published the Proposed Official Draft of the Model Penal Code.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain indeterminate sentencing.
Q5) State when the death penalty cannot be imposed.
Q6) Jury nullification is controlled by law under certain circumstances.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Criminal Homicide
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Q1) According to the _________,a defendant will be held criminally liable for a death if the other elements of criminal homicide are met and if,without the defendant's conduct,the victim would not have died at that point in time.
A)substantial factor test.
B)"but for" test.
C)absolute rule.
D)felony murder rule.
Q2) Mitigating defenses can reduce murder charges to an acquittal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name the five elements of criminal homicide.
Q4) _________ is NOT an accurate definition of the behavior needed to be guilty of involuntary manslaughter.
A)Criminally negligent conduct
B)Culpable negligence
C)A non-wantonly reckless manner
D)Mere negligence
Q5) Give three examples of inherently dangerous felonies that are listed in your text.
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Chapter 9: Crimes Against Persons: Other Offenses
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Q1) The __________ is an element of battery.
A)actor's mental state
B)actor's conduct of touching or applying force to the victim
C)harm done to the victim
D)All the above are correct.
Q2) In general,rape is sexual intercourse by a male defendant with a female victim that is committed
A)in public.
B)by means of some specific forms of deception
C)for payment.
D)All the above are correct.
Q3) What are the two definitions of assault?
Q4) The abortion must __________ is NOT a condition under which abortions must be performed.
A)"occur when the fetus is viable"
B)"during the final trimester of pregnancy"
C)"after a 14-day waiting period"
D)"be performed by licensed physicians"
Q5) What are the four general types of child abuse?
Q6) Explain the three categories that comprise the actus reus of mayhem.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Crimes Against Habitation
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Q1) When a crime requires a mens rea of specific intent,a person is culpable only if he or she voluntarily commits the underlying criminal act or acts
A)by accident or carelessness.
B)with the intent to achieve a particular result.
C)out of negligence or recklessness.
D)by mistake.
Q2) The distinction between commission of burglary at night as opposed to the daytime is
A)less often a matter of defining the degree of the crime than of defining the basic offense.
B)equally a matter of defining the degree of the crime as of defining the basic offense.
C)no longer a matter of defining the degree of the crime,nor of defining the basic offense.
D)most frequently a matter of defining the degree of the crime,rather than defining the basic offense.
Q3) Name the three elements of burglary.
Q4) Name the three main ways in which an officer can assist in the investigation of a burglary.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Crimes Against Property
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Q1) Unauthorized use of a motor vehicle does NOT require that the __________
A)actor knowingly take control.
B)actor use an instrumentality.
C)taking is done without authority.
D)object taken is another person's vehicle.
Q2) A substantial movement of another person's property is required for a thief to exercise dominion and control over it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)__________ may have substantial value,but it could be difficult to identify the owner.
A)purse containing cash and a driver's license
B)wallet containing several credit cards
C)$20 bill
D)sports club membership I.D.
Q4) Purse snatching is a crime that can be considered either a larceny or a robbery,depending on two factors: the circumstances and the jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: White-Collar Crimes
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Q1) For a churning conviction,the government (or investor)must establish that the A)broker wished to manipulate the supply and demand of the stock.
B)broker was reckless.
C)trading was typical for that type of account.
D)The broker exercised control over the trading in the account.
Q2) One defense a defendant has to a mail fraud charge is
A)A "cash hoard" defense,which states that the defendant's possession of unexplained cash is from savings.
B)A provocation defense,in which the defendant must resort to fraud in order to receive legally due payment for goods or services.
C)A good faith defense,which is merely an assertion that there was no fraud intended.
D)A time immateriality defense,which states that the defendant did not know when the relevant mail fraud law took effect.
Q3) To obtain a felony conviction for a FDCA violation,the misdemeanor elements must be shown as well as either intent or evidence of a prior FDCA violation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Crimes Against Public Order, safety, and Morality
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Q1) The MPC establishes an affirmative defense to a charge of obscenity if dissemination is restricted to noncommercial dissemination to personal associates of the actor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anything that _________ is NOT an example of a nuisance?
A)gives offense to the senses
B)endangers life or health
C)violates laws of commerce
D)obstructs the reasonable and comfortable use of property
Q3) A Connecticut statute provides that a person is guilty of patronizing a prostitute when the patron
A)procures a place for a prostitute in which she can ply her trade.
B)pays another person to tell him where prostitutes can be found.
C)pays a fee to another person as compensation for a third person engaging in sexual conduct with him.
D)All the above are correct.
Q4) Explain the significance of Papachristou v.City of Jacksonville to vagrancy laws.
Q5) Name four of the forms of gambling that are discussed in your textbook.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Drug-And Alcohol-Related Crimes
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Q1) __________ is categorized by federal law as a Schedule I drug.
A)Phencyclidine (PCP)
B)Morphine
C)Marijuana
D)Cocaine
Q2) In criminal law,voluntary intoxication
A)cannot be used as a defense in any circumstance.
B)cannot disprove the existence of mens rea necessary for crimes of specific intent.
C)is no defense against crimes of general intent.
D)is always a defense to assault.
Q3) Both federal and state systems have,in general,set up two penal categories for controlled substances for offenses involving
A)the sale,distribution,and manufacture of controlled substances.
B)simulated controlled substances.
C)cultivation.
D)the undercover use of controlled substances.
Q4) What are the three criteria for placing a drug into Schedule I?
Q5) Name four of the five proposals for harm reduction that are named in your textbook.
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Chapter 15: Crimes Against the Administration of Justice
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Q1) The penalty for __________ contempt is usually payment of a fine or imprisonment for an indefinite period of time until the party in contempt agrees to perform his legal obligation.
A)civil
B)constructive
C)direct
D)criminal
Q2) __________ is NOT one of the three elements needed to prove subornation of perjury.
A)"Perjured statements procured by the accused"
B)"Perjured statements created by the suborner."
C)"Perjury in fact"
D)"Proof that the subornerknew the or testimony would be false"
Q3) __________ is NOT a characteristic of perjury?
A)A false statement under affirmation.
B)Accepting or soliciting illegal payments as a public official.
C)Affirming the truth of a statement previously made.
D)none of these
Q4) Your textbook gives five general examples of obstruction of justice.Name four of these.
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Chapter 16: Organized Crime,gangs,and Terrorism
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Q1) Explain how money laundering works,and what happens to money once it is laundered.
Q2) Upon joining a Chinese street gang,the initiate will become a cholo or chola.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under federal sentencing laws,a defendant convicted of contempt may be given additional prison time if the prosecutor can prove that he or she is a serious gang member.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under the penalty provisions of federal terrorism laws,the most severe punishment a terrorist can receive is A)death.
B)life without parole.
C)life with parole after 50 years.
D)30 to 50 years' imprisonment without parole.
Q5) A typical organized crime structure can be compared to that of any type of legitimate business or organization.
A)True
B)False
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