Contracts and Sales Law Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Contracts and Sales Law examines the fundamental principles governing legally enforceable agreements and the sale of goods. The course covers the formation, performance, and enforcement of contracts, exploring doctrines such as offer, acceptance, consideration, capacity, legality, and remedies for breach. Key concepts under the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) governing the sale of goods are analyzed, including warranties, risk of loss, and the rights and obligations of buyers and sellers. Through case studies and hypothetical scenarios, students will learn to identify key issues, apply legal reasoning, and draft basic contractual provisions relevant to both personal and commercial transactions.
Recommended Textbook
Business Law with UCC Applications 14th Edition by Paul A. Sukys
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Chapter 1: Ethics, Social Responsibility, and the Law
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Q1) Corporate social responsibility is based on the legal advantages granted to the corporation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Amalgamated Enterprises is considering closing its plant in a small U.S. town where its average wages are $10 per hour, and moving production to a foreign country where average wages for the same work will be $2 per hour. Amalgamated is the largest employer in the community. What theories of social responsibility may Amalgamated's management consider in making a final decision about the plant?
Answer: The traditional view of corporate responsibility is that a company has no social responsibility beyond making a profit for its shareholders. Today, many corporations consider the impact of their decisions on the workers and community. Shareholder theory considers these interests. Enlightened self-interest considers the goodwill and related legal and marketing benefits of being socially responsible.
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3
Chapter 2: Sources of the Law
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Q1) In a case presented to a Philadelphia court, the judge and the jury realize that no specific statute is applicable and decide to refer to previously recorded legal decisions made in similar cases. Discuss.
Answer: The judge and the jury will arrive at a decision using common law-a body of previously recorded legal decisions made by the courts in specific cases. The process of relying on common law is known as stare decisis. The court is likely to use a precedent in using the principle of stare decisis. A precedent is a model case that a court can follow when facing a similar situation.
Q2) The law is a delicate balancing act. This is evident because:
A) political parties are always competing for power.
B) individuals require restraint to prevent chaos.
C) one corporation's contractual rights may be upheld, while another's are struck down.
D) one company may overcharge consumers.
Answer: C
Q3) Stare decisis means "let the decision stand."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: The Judicial Process and Cyber-Procedure
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Q1) An equitable remedy may be available in all of the following cases except:
A) specific performance.
B) damages.
C) an injunction.
D) a restraining order.
Answer: B
Q2) Courts with the power to hear any type of case are courts with ____________ jurisdiction.
A) personal
B) special
C) general
D) subject matter
Answer: C
Q3) State trial courts are known as limited jurisdiction courts.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Alternate Dispute Resolution
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Q1) An ADR contract clause:
A) must specify the ADR technique that the parties will use in the event of a dispute.
B) can merely state that the parties have the option of using an ADR technique.
C) prohibits the parties from resorting to litigation to settle an issue.
D) requires that the parties follow all ADR procedures with a summary trial.
Q2) Kin and Mai, through their lawyer, present an abbreviated version of their case to a jury in a single day, and obtain an advisory verdict. This is a summary jury trial.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Proactive ADR increases the likelihood of litigation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Settlement week is a five-day period during which a court's docket is cleared of all business, except for settlement hearings.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Criminal Law and Cybercrimes
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Q1) Francis has many traffic tickets and fears that her license will be suspended if she gets another traffic ticket. When stopped for speeding, she hands over her license to the police officer with a $100 bill clipped to the license. Francis has likely committed a crime.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Agnes, a convenience store cashier, takes $5 out of the register for every $100 she rings up and keeps it. Agnes could be arrested for:
A) extortion.
B) embezzlement.
C) burglary.
D) robbery.
Q3) While sleepwalking during his stay in a hotel, Boterus ran into Selan, another guest at the hotel, knocking Selan down the stairs. Selan called the police and demanded that Boterus be arrested. Will Boterus likely be convicted of a crime? Explain.
Q4) The RICO Act covers only serious crimes, such as arson and robbery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Tort Law and Cybertorts
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Q1) Ching keeps a pet snake in her apartment. While Ching is hosting a party at her apartment, the snake escapes from its cage and bites a guest, seriously injuring the guest. The guest knew before attending the party that Ching has a pet snake in her apartment. If the guest sues Ching for the injury resulting from the cobra bite, Ching: A) will be strictly liable.
B) may defend based on assumption of risk.
C) is liable only if she intentionally released the snake from its cage.
D) has no liability since the incident was unforeseen by her.
Q2) Shopkeeper's privilege allows a store owner to detain a shopper without suspicion that an incident has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Jim ran a stop sign hitting Martin's car, and both were injured. Jim is now the injured party and Martin is the tortfeasor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Essentials of Contract Law
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Q1) Matthew agrees with a friend to divide the proceeds from a bank robbery that the two will commit. This agreement is void.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Georgia purchases what proves to be a defective product from ZBest Enterprise to give to her best friend, Sarah, on her birthday. Georgia refuses to take legal action against ZBest because she is afraid of confrontation. Sarah, wanting to help Georgia, and angry at ZBest, wants to sue ZBest. Discuss the options Sarah has to sue the company.
Q3) Ruben promises to pay Talana $200 if she steals Jessica's business law textbook. Talana steals the business law book, but Ruben, who now feels guilty for his act, refuses to pay Talana and asks her to return the book. Discuss ways in which Reuben has breached the contract.
Q4) A person who makes an offer is called an offeree.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The quasi-contract concept involves the mutual assent of the parties.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Offer, Acceptance, and Mutual Assent
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Q1) Booksellers, Inc. makes a written offer to sell Smallville City Library 20,000 books at $5 each. In writing, Booksellers also agrees to keep the offer open for sixty (60) days. However, before the 60 days have passed, Booksellers sells all the books to Universal Library for $7 each. Which of the following is true of this situation?
A) Smallville cannot file a legal claim, since a firm offer may be revoked prior to acceptance.
B) Smallville can file a legal claim, since Booksellers agreed to hold the offer open, even though no consideration was given.
C) Smallville had not taken possession of the books, nor paid any of the purchase prices, and hence cannot file a lawsuit.
D) Smallville can bring a lawsuit, since Booksellers engaged in bait-and-switch tactics.
Q2) Dale posts an ad in the local newspaper-"$100 reward for the return of my dog, Buster"-with a picture. Henry, after seeing the newspaper advertisement, finds that a dog has strayed into his garden. Henry checks the dog's collar that has a tag with Dale's address and returns the dog. Is Henry legally entitled to the $100 reward? Explain.
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Chapter 9: Consideration and Cyber-Payments
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Q1) Assuming he has the right, Tom's promise ____________, also called ____________, is ____________ when it is supported by ____________.
A) of forbearance; promissory estoppel; enforceable; consideration
B) to donate money; charitable pledge; enforceable; firm offer
C) not to sue; forbearance; enforceable; consideration
D) not to sue; consideration; enforceable; legal detriment
Q2) Mullroy has complained to the local police about the vandalism in his neighborhood. However, the police have taken little interest in curbing the vandalism, much to Mullroy's disappointment. Determined to resolve the problem, Mullroy invites the local sheriff to his daughter's birthday party and offers him free weekend dinners at Mullroy's family restaurant if the sheriff promises to look into the vandalism problem. Discuss the nature of consideration and contract in this case.
Q3) ____________ is the mutual agreement of less than what has been billed to the debtor.
A) Accord and satisfaction
B) Bankruptcy
C) Accord
D) Consideration
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11
Chapter 10: Capacity and Legality: The Final Elements
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Q1) Amanda agrees to pay a county official $20,000 personally in exchange for his using public funds to build a public one-half-mile all-weather road into her farm, so that she can attract buyers for her farm. The county official takes the $20,000, but never builds the road. Discuss the enforceability of this agreement.
Q2) Which of the following is true of a nondisclosure agreement?
A) It requires employees to promise not to reveal any confidential trade secrets, should they leave their present employment.
B) It limits a worker's employment options after leaving his or her present job in order to protect the present employer's confidential matter.
C) It restricts the seller of a business to enter the same type of business during a reasonable time and within a reasonable geographical area.
D) It states that the party who wrote the contract will not be liable for any economic loss or physical injury, even if that party caused the loss or injury.
Q3) Ratification is a minor's willingness to deny contractual obligation.
A)True B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Written Contracts and Cyber-Commerce
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Q1) Vega appoints Ancel, a real estate broker, to negotiate the sale of her home. The ________________ rule requires that this agreement be in writing and signed to be enforceable.
A) Parol evidence
B) Best evidence
C) Standard construction
D) Equal dignities
Q2) _________ contracts for the sale of goods of $500 or more are ________________ if the contract _________________________.
A) Oral, enforceable, involves specially manufactured goods that cannot be resold easily
B) Oral, not enforceable, is an executed agreement
C) Written, not enforceable, involves admissions in court
D) Electronic, not enforceable, is a written memorandum
Q3) Under the parol evidence rule, evidence of oral statements made before signing a written agreement is admissible in court to change the terms of a written agreement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Third Parties, Discharge, and Remedies
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Q1) ____________ occurs when a party to a contract either expresses or clearly implies an intention not to perform the contract, even before being required to act.
A) Frustration-of-purpose
B) Abandonment of contractual obligations
C) Commercial impracticability
D) Anticipatory breach
Q2) Stella contracts to purchase Wilma's horse, Running Cloud, for $10,000. The horse dies soon after the contract is signed, but prior to Stella taking possession of the horse. Stella is still obligated to pay for the horse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Quantum meruit damages are token damages awarded to parties who have experienced an injury to their legal rights, but no actual loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lisa did not deliver goods in 1992 as her contract with Jozell required, but Jozell took no legal action for fifteen years and then sued Lisa for breach of contract. Discuss the suit.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Sales Contracts: Formation, Title, and Risk of Loss
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Q1) MeatPackers, Inc. bought a new kind of refrigeration system from Coolit, Corp. for storage of its meats. As part of the contract, Coolit delivered the refrigeration system to the MeatPackers plant, installed it, set its temperature, and then monitored it for several hours to make sure it worked. Before they left, Coolit's technicians handed MeatPackers a bill of sale. Absent any other terms or conditions, MeatPackers, Inc. received title to Coolit's refrigeration system when:
A) Coolit delivered the system to the Meatpacker plant.
B) MeatPacker paid for the Coolit system prior to delivery.
C) Coolit delivered, installed, and tested the system.
D) Coolit handed MeatPacker the bill of sale.
Q2) Sun Supply Co. offered to sell Apartment Management Inc. air conditioner filters at $15 per case in a signed writing that stated the price was good for sixty days. Apartment Management discovered that other sellers charge $20 per case for identical air conditioner filters, but before it can accept Sun Supply's offer, Sun Supply withdrew the offer after only 30 days, stating that changed market conditions had forced it to charge more. Discuss the case.
Q3) Fish not yet caught by a commercial fisher are called future goods.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Sales Contracts Rights, Duties, Breach, and Warranties
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Q1) Jess buys a microwave oven with a manufacturer's full one-year written warranty. If Jess discovers that the microwave oven does not work properly during this time, the manufacturer is obligated to:
A) charge Jess only for the cost of the parts replaced, not for the labor involved.
B) repair the microwave at a nominal cost to Jess.
C) provide a pro-rata credit for the defective part of the microwave.
D) fix or replace the microwave for free.
Q2) Garcia purchases a used shotgun from Andy, who had purchased it from Jane, who purchased it from Maria, who had stolen it from Songhee. Only Maria has broken the warranty of title.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a tender of payment, the:
A) buyer offers to turn the money over to the seller.
B) buyer shows a seller his or her legal tender.
C) seller puts conforming goods at the buyer's disposition.
D) seller provides storage facilities for goods to the buyer.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Product Liability and Consumer Protection
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Q1) The ____________ is an attempt by the federal government to reduce the use of unsolicited commercial e-mails on the Internet.
A) Can Spam Act
B) Mail and Telephone Order Rule
C) Truth-in-Mailing Act
D) Anti-Slamming Law
Q2) Public policy is the equivalent of Weber's social consensus in that it refers to the idea that certain activities affect the entire social structure and must be regulated by the government.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Slamming" is the illegal practice of changing a consumer's telephone service without permission.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A successful plaintiff in a product liability suit always recovers punitive damages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Nature of Negotiable Instruments
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Q1) An envelope containing a $10 rebate check was placed in Hart's mailbox by mistake. It was addressed to Rice, a former tenant, and read, "Pay to the bearer or G. Rice, $10.00." Discuss Hart's role.
Hart is the holder of the check. A holder is a person who is in possession of a negotiable instrument that is issued or indorsed to that person's order or to bearer. When an instrument is payable to "a specified person or bearer," it is payable to the bearer.
Q2) A check that a drawee bank guarantees will be paid to the holder is a:
A) bank draft.
B) traveler's check.
C) certified check.
D) treasurer's check.
Q3) A sight draft is payable as soon as it is presented to the drawee for payment.
A)True B)False
Q4) Notes are promises to pay money, while drafts are orders to pay money. A)True B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Holders in Due Course Defenses and Liabilities
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Q1) The drawer of a draft that has not been accepted is obligated to pay the draft to anyone who is entitled to enforce it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true of using the defense of failure of consideration by a maker or drawer of an instrument?
A) It can be used when the instrument is negotiated to a holder in due course.
B) It can be used when no consideration exists in the underlying contract for which the instrument was issued.
C) It can be used when one of the parties breaches the contract by not furnishing the agreed consideration.
D) It can be used if a party, induced by a fraudulent statement to enter a contract, is the holder of a negotiable instrument issued as part of the transaction.
Q3) Tammy purchases a promissory note that has numbers scratched out and rewritten. What legal problem will Tammy encounter in claiming to be a holder in due course of the note?
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Chapter 18: Bank-Depositor Relationships and
Cyber-Banking
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Q1) Which of the following is true of a bank's duty to honor checks?
A) The drawee bank is not under a duty to honor all checks drawn by its customers in presence of sufficient funds in the customers' accounts.
B) If there are insufficient funds on deposit, the bank may charge the customer's account if it does not create an overdraft.
C) If a bank fails to honor a check because of a mistake on its part, the bank is liable to the customer for damages the customer suffers.
D) The drawee bank has a liability to the holder of the check, regardless of whether the check is certified.
Q2) The Electronic Fund Transfer Act applies to transactions between banks and businesses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ashton Bank knows that its customer, Juan, has died. One day after Juan's death, Ashton Bank was presented a check for clearing of $3,000. The check was written by Juan a week prior to his death to Bailey Enterprises. Discuss the legal rights of Bailey Enterprises.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Insurance
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Q1) Insurance transfers the risk of economic loss from the insured to the insurance company.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an insured person becomes disabled, he or she will be excused from paying premiums if he or she has purchased a waiver of premium option.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the insurance company gives up one of its rights to help the insured, the company has made a waiver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n) ____________ will provide temporary insurance coverage until the policy is formally accepted.
A) premium
B) adhesion contract
C) binder
D) warranty
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Mortgages and Security Interests
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Q1) Which of the following is true of conventional fixed-rate mortgages?
A) It has a rate of interest that changes according to fluctuations in the index to which it is tied.
B) It involves no government backing by either insurance or guarantee.
C) It has a fixed interest rate during the life of the mortgage, where the monthly payments by mortgagor increase over the term of the loan.
D) It has comparatively low fixed payments during the life of the mortgage, followed by one large final payment.
Q2) A security agreement can either be oral or in writing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the UCC, conflicting secured interests are generally resolved:
A) according to whether an attached security interest in inventory has priority over a conflicting security interest in the same inventory.
B) by consumers' perfected security interests of which they have no knowledge.
C) based on whether the seller's inventory prevails over buyers of goods in the ordinary course of business (except farm products).
D) according to priority in time of filing or perfection.
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Chapter 21: Bankruptcy and Debt Adjustment
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Q1) The debtor can discharge any cash advances-up to $2,500-paid to a creditor under an open-ended credit plan.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A Chapter 11 disclosure statement must be approved by the court before there can be a vote by creditors on the reorganization plan.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Josh, a college student, has been told by his friends that filing for bankruptcy after graduation will discharge all his student loans. Discuss if this is correct.
Q4) In bankruptcy, the proceeds of life insurance policies that have yet to mature are subject to creditors' claims.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Judy's Print Shop has filed for a Chapter 11 bankruptcy, and Judy wonders if her creditors, with whom she has had an increasingly abrasive relationship, will have any say in her reorganization plan. Discuss the role of the creditors in a Chapter 11 reorganization.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Agency Law
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Q1) The Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (UETA):
A) is a physical alteration of network components.
B) is an establishment of the nature of an electronic agent.
C) bans electronic agents for business transactions.
D) legitimizes the use of electronic agents.
Q2) Tom is a real estate agent for Great Housing Co., which plans to purchase and build on a plot of land near Leadville. Tom learns that the building site may have been polluted with lead, but does not inform Great Housing Co. Great Housing Co. purchases the land and discovers the pollution when construction starts. Great Housing Co. asserts that it did not know of the lead pollution and should not be required to pay the clean-up cost. Discuss Great Housing's assertion.
Q3) The "means test" requires an analysis of the degree of control the hiring person exercises over the hired person.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Grandpa has a stroke and becomes mentally incapacitated. Discuss the legal status of any agency relationships that he may have granted and how Grandpa should have planned in advance for this possibility.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Employment Law
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Q1) John takes leave under FMLA. Discuss the obligations of John's employer to John.
Q2) American businesses do not have a legal obligation to give U.S. citizens working abroad the same protection against discrimination that they give to workers in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The CEO of Earth Enterprises hires Jason, promising him "long-term employment." A few weeks later Earth Enterprises files for bankruptcy and terminates Jason's employment. Jason may sue for wrongful discharge.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Miguel lives in an area with a high percentage of Hispanic workers. Many of these workers are legal immigrants who have relatively little college training. If, when Miguel applies for his job, he is given an examination designed for a college graduate, and if he and most Hispanic applicants fail to pass the test, the employer:
A) might be engaged in disparate-harm discrimination.
B) might have violated the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
C) might be engaged in disparate-impact discrimination.
D) has almost certainly done nothing wrong.
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Chapter 24: Labor Law
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Q1) The major provision of the ___________ is that it exempts union activity from antitrust laws.
A) Norris-LaGuardia Act
B) Railway Labor Act
C) Clayton Act
D) Wagner Act
Q2) A union must register its bylaws with the:
A) NLRB.
B) Department of Commerce.
C) Federal district court.
D) Secretary of Labor.
Q3) The Wagner Act does all of the following except:
A) authorize the NLRB to hold hearings on unfair labor practice petitions.
B) outlaw certain practices by employers as unfair labor practices.
C) allow states to legislate right-to-work laws.
D) authorize the NLRB to conduct representative elections.
Q4) A "hot-cargo" contract allows a union to handle stolen property that has been recovered by the police and sold at a police auction.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Sole Proprietorships and Partnerships
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Q1) The RUPA requires that a partnership agreement be in writing to be enforceable among the partners.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When forming a limited partnership, it is critical to know that:
A) general partners have limited liability for the firm's debts.
B) a certificate of limited partnership must be filed with the Secretary of State's office.
C) limited partners are participating investors.
D) general partners can only take a limited part in the management of the firm.
Q3) Jack has an auto accident while on business for Small Enterprises, an RLLP consisting of Jack and Alex. Who is liable for damages resulting from the auto accident?
A) Small Enterprises only
B) Jack only
C) Jack and Alex only
D) Small, Jack, and Alex
Q4) Tangent Enterprises is a partnership consisting of Delen, Javid, and Kaya. Kaya leaves the partnership to do volunteer work in Africa. Discuss the legal status of Tangent Enterprises.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: The Corporate Entity
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Q1) When a corporation is set up as a mere instrumentality of a parent corporation, it is sometimes referred to as a dummy corporation or a corporate shell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Panon Corporation is incorporated in Tennessee, but its corporate headquarters is in Massachusetts. As a result, the Panon Corporation is:
A) considered a citizen of only Massachusetts.
B) considered a citizen of only Tennessee.
C) not considered a citizen of either Massachusetts or Tennessee.
D) considered a citizen of both Massachusetts and Tennessee.
Q3) Patricia holds 150 shares of common stock in a large corporation. Patricia:
A) is guaranteed the rights to some of the profits of the corporation.
B) is most likely entitled to two votes for each share of stock she holds.
C) will not be included in the distribution of capital upon dissolution of the corporation.
D) risks whatever money she invested in the 150 shares of common stock.
Q4) An electric company would be an example of a quasi-public corporation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Corporate Governance
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Q1) A derivative suit is based on a direct injury to a shareholder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cumulative voting favors majority shareholders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tye, a director at Big Co., suspects wrongdoing within Big Co. and after investigation, uncovers legal violations. Discuss the steps that must be taken under current law in light of this discovery.
Q4) In order to bring a derivative suit, a shareholder must own stock:
A) at the time of the injury only.
B) at the time of the suit only.
C) both at the time of the injury and at the time of the suit.
D) at the time of the injury, suit, and trial.
Q5) Ratification is the subsequent approval by a corporate board of a previously unauthorized act by a manager.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Government Regulation of Corporate Business
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Q1) Big Corp. advertises that "nine out of ten physicians prefer our products" when in fact the marketing research, done by Independent Research Co., was flawed. Big Corp. may be charged with false advertising, even if it believes the statement was true.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ____________ means the exclusive control of a market by a business enterprise.
A) monopoly
B) common enterprise
C) trust
D) confederation
Q3) If Titanic Co. makes a tender offer to acquire more than ____________ of the shares of a target, Titanic Co. must file a statement with the SEC.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Q4) Textualism insists that judges consider the legislative goals of a statute.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Personal Property and Bailments
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Q1) ____________ is the reward given to persons who voluntarily assist a sinking ship or recover its cargo from peril or loss.
A) Gift in causa mortis
B) Chose in action
C) Salvage
D) Severalty
Q2) Carlos, Maria, and Justus own land near a developing city as joint tenants. Maria would like to sell her part of the land to Big Sky Development Co., but Carlos and Justus do not want to sell. Carefully discuss if Maria can sell her interest in the land.
Q3) John and Marsha park their car in the BigCinema parking lot. They have created a bailment with BigCinema.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An example of chattel would be a stock certificate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Anna finds a ring on the sink ledge of a restroom for use by customers of Red Barn Restaurant. Discuss who has legal custody of the ring.
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Chapter 30: Real Property and Landlord and Tenant Law
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Q1) Erin, a French student, boarded with a family in America for two months while she studied. Every day, the American family gave Erin her own room and bathroom and fed her breakfast and dinner. Erin would be considered a:
A) tenant.
B) direct owner.
C) lodger.
D) subletter.
Q2) An "estate in fee simple" allows the land to be owned temporarily, for which a fee is charged.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tom owns land on one side and Tammy owns land on the other side of a navigable stream. Both own to the middle of the stream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When vacating, the tenant must turn over to the landlord all trade fixtures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Wills, Trusts, and Advanced Directives
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Q1) Carl has his lawyer prepare his will. Wanting to make a few minor changes, Carl places some handwritten words in the margins, initials them, and scratches out words in the typed text. Carl's changes:
A) create a codicil.
B) create a new will.
C) amend the typed will.
D) are legally ineffective.
Q2) If Tano dies without a will, he dies:
A) testate.
B) intestate.
C) interstate.
D) testator.
Q3) In the case of simultaneous death of a husband and wife, property owned jointly by both of the deceaseds is distributed equally between the heirs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parents are legally obligated to leave their property to their children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Professional Liability
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Q1) The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) has been charged with investigating how to regulate financial planners, including especially those planners who perform income tax planning services.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Angela asserts that HIPAA allows her to have copies of the records that result from her psychotherapy sessions with Dr. Xenon. Angela: A) can look through the records along with Dr. Xenon.
B) must have Dr. Xenon's permission.
C) must have Dr. Xenon's permission and can only look through the records along with Dr. Xenon.
D) can have personal copies of these records.
Q3) Certified public accountants (CPAs) and non-CPA partners are not under the authority of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau as long as they are performing routine and traditional tasks.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: The Intersection of Law and Science
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Q1) NIOs with entity status are completely dependent upon the nation states that make up their membership.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements holds true for a patent?
A) A patent application cannot be accessed by the general public.
B) A patent expires at the end of a 20-year period.
C) A patent is subject to "first-to-invent" patent process, rather than the "first-to-file" process.
D) A patent is a process used in a business and disclosed only to those employees who need to know it to do their jobs.
Q3) "Hard Power" is waged at the emotional and psychological level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The national science court would have exclusive jurisdiction over issues involving scientific, engineering, medical, and technological cases.
A)True
B)False
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35
Chapter 34: International Law
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Q1) The World Trade Organization recognizes the right of individual member nations to use quotas to regulate imports.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The earliest development of the preemptive war concept was by:
A) Leslie Groves.
B) Curtis LeMay.
C) Thomas More.
D) Socrates.
Q3) The International Criminal Court:
A) uses the prisons of member nations.
B) has jurisdiction over individual defendants.
C) does not have imprisonment as punishment.
D) uses exile and imprisonment in the nation of the victim as punishment.
Q4) The principle of restoration requires that the defeated nation pay the victor the expense incurred in the war.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36