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This course explores current topics and debates in human biology, focusing on how recent scientific advances and global issues impact our understanding of the human body. Students will examine subjects such as genetic engineering, the microbiome, human adaptation to environmental changes, emerging infectious diseases, and the biological aspects of aging. Through case studies and analysis of primary research, the course emphasizes the interplay between biology, technology, policy, and ethics in addressing contemporary challenges related to human health and evolution.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 14th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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25 Chapters
1647 Verified Questions
1647 Flashcards
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58 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The information collected during the experiment or observation is called
A)a theory.
B)a hunch.
C)the hypothesis.
D)the data.
E)the conclusion.
Answer: D
Q2) Line graphs are used to depict the relationship between two quantities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group,the treatment was successful.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A probability value of less than 5% in a scientific study is acceptable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H<sup>+</sup> as a pH of 6.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) CaCl<sub>2</sub> is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond?
A)covalent
B)hydrogen
C)polar
D)non-polar
E)ionic
Answer: E
Q3) A solution containing 0.00001 moles of H<sup>+</sup> has a pH of A)3.
B)5.
C)7.
D)9.
E)11.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because bacteria are prokaryotes,they do not have DNA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside the cell.
A)In a hypertonic solution,there are more particles inside the cell.
B)In a hypotonic solution,there are more particles outside the cell.
C)In an isotonic solution the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal.
D)In a hypertonic solution,there is more water outside the cell.
E)In a hypotonic solution,there is more water inside the cell.
Answer: C
Q3) What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells?
A)nuclei
B)nucleoli
C)Golgi apparati
D)lysosomes
E)ribosomes
Answer: D
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Q1) When you put your hand on a hot stove,____ receive signals from the sensory receptors or other neurons and ______ conduct nerve impulses.
A)astrocytes,oligodendrocytes
B)axons,dendrites
C)astrocytes,dendrites
D)dendrites,axons
E)dendrites,astrocytes
Q2) What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?
A)bone and blood
B)fibroblasts and matrix
C)hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage
D)adipose and cartilage
E)loose fibrous and dense fibrous
Q3) Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane?
A)the ovaries
B)the heart
C)the cavities of freely movable joints
D)tubes of the digestive system
E)the abdominal cavity
Q4) List the function and organs associated with urinary system.
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Q1) What system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in the liver?
A)cephalic
B)hepatic portal
C)coronary
D)celiac
E)lymphatic
Q2) The cardiovascular system is composed of the heart and the blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood pressure ______ with distance from the left ventricle while the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels __________.
A)decreases,increases
B)increases,decreases
C)stays the same,decreases
D)stays the same,increases
E)decreases,stays the same
Q4) Gas exchange is the only function of blood.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If your skin and the whites of your eyes appear yellow,what is not being excreted?
A)heme
B)globin chains
C)carbonic acid
D)carbon dioxide
E)biocarbonate ion
Q2) After blood clots,the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called A)thrombin.
B)fibrinogen.
C)serum.
D)lymph.
E)plasma.
Q3) Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream. A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
Q5) List the steps involved in the formation of a blood clot.
Q6) List the 5 types of white blood cells and their functions.
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Q1) If the lymph system did not do its job,what would be one of the consequences?
A)excess glucose in the blood stream
B)slow reaction time to external stimuli
C)inability to clot
D)edema in the tissues
E)jaundice
Q2) Cytokines assist in regulating white blood cell formation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen?
A)intact skin
B)mucous membranes
C)sebaceous secretions
D)acid pH of stomach
E)inflammatory response
Q4) All autoimmune diseases are caused strictly by environmental factors such as viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the function of the thymus as it relates to the lymphatic system.
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Q1) Of the following modes of HIV transmission,which is the least common mode and rare in many countries?
A)transfusions of infected blood
B)vaginal/rectal intercourse with an infected person
C)needle sharing among IV drug users
D)babies born to HIV infected women
E)oral-genital contact with an infected person
Q2) The drugs that treat malaria can be used prophylactically,or before infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does HIV know what cells to infect?
A)It can infect any cell it comes in contact with.
B)It can only infect cells on the surface of the body where the temperature is lower.
C)It can only infect cells that are actively growing and dividing.
D)It infects cells with a particular surface receptor.
E)It only infects cells that line the reproductive tract.
Q4) Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon are called A)cysts.
B)villi.
C)polyps.
D)lacteals.
E)wheals.
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with the small intestine?
A)many villi
B)gastric pits
C)brush border enzymes
D)lacteals
E)bile and lipase
Q3) List the functions of the liver.
Q4) The thick,soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called A)bolus.
B)pepsin.
C)chyme.
D)lacteal.
E)lipasE.
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Q1) Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system?
A)lungs
B)bronchial tree
C)trachea
D)esophagus
E)sinus cavity
Q2) The pharynx contains the tonsils that protect against invasion of inhaled foreign particles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During respiration,what is the additional amount of air that can be exhaled from the lungs during an extra deep exhalation called? This volume is usually around 1,400 ml.
A)expiratory reserve volume
B)inspiratory reserve volume
C)residual volume
D)vital capacity
E)tidal volume
Q4) Can you hold your breath until you die?
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Q1) Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many openings (inputs and outputs)are there in the urinary bladder?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
E)five
Q3) The inner medulla of the kidney is ____________ to the loop of Henle and therefore water leaves the loop at the descending limb and collecting duct.
A)isotonic
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)balanced
E)none of thesE.
Q4) ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When you nod your head "yes",what type of movement are you using?
A)flexion and extension
B)adduction and abduction
C)rotation
D)circumduction
E)inversion
Q3) The name of the "tailbone" is the A)lumbar.
B)sacrum.
C)coccyx.
D)sphinoiD.
E)axis.
Q4) A simple break of the tibia is when the bone is broken clear through.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three types of cartilage found in the body and indicate a function for each.
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Q1) What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle?
A)large
B)small
C)huge
D)long
E)short
Q2) Because the heart beats continuously,cardiac fibers never relax completely.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal what happens next?
A)The muscle contracts.
B)The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter.
C)An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft.
D)H<sup>+</sup> is pumped into the synaptic cleft.
E)Myosin is released from the axon terminal.
Q4) Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles,usually due to overuse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Q6) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
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Q1) The spinal cord belongs to the
A)peripheral nervous system.
B)central nervous system.
C)axial nervous system.
D)appendicular nervous system.
E)none of thesE.
Q2) Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebral hemisphere?
A)reticular
B)frontal
C)parietal
D)temporal
E)occipital
Q3) Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched?
A)cell body-short extensions that receive impulses
B)axon-conducts nerve impulses
C)dendrite-contains the nucleus and other organelles
D)axon-contains the nucleus and other organelles
E)dendrite-conducts nerve impulses
Q4) List the two primary structures of the limbic system and indicate their functions.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When you entered the room,there was a faint smell of smoke,but after about an hour,you no longer noticed the smell.What happened?
A)sensory reception
B)sensory adaptation
C)mechanoreception
D)nociception
E)thermoreception
Q3) What percentage of what we perceive as taste is due to smell?
A)80 - 90%
B)100%
C)40 - 50%
D)10 - 20%
E)0%
Q4) Sensory receptors of the skin are very distinct--each one has its own function.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the steps involved in the action of a muscle spindle.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the basis for steroid hormones?
A)cholesterol
B)peptides
C)proteins
D)glycoproteins
E)modified amino acids
Q2) Which organ does not produce steroid hormones?
A)pineal gland
B)adrenal cortex
C)ovaries
D)testes
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone?
A)Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary.
B)The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence.
C)Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism.
D)Too much growth hormone results in giantism.
E)Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems.
Q4) Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic?
Q5) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
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Q1) What does being overweight have to do with infertility in women?
A)Leptin levels are higher which impacts GnRH and FSH.
B)The oviducts are blocked.
C)Uterine tissue is located outside of the uterus causing pain and structural abnormalities.
D)Follicles are larger than normal and many mature at one time.
E)The uterus is displaced and the zygote has difficulty implanting.
Q2) Describe the 6 stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.
Q3) The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which form of birth control is 100% effective?
A)abstinence
B)natural family planning
C)male condom
D)birth control pills
E)hormone patch
Q5) Identify the structures of the male reproductive system and indicate their functions.
Q6) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?
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Q1) Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe what occurs during cleavage,growth,morphogenesis,and differentiation.
Q3) How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar?
A)They are both present in an adult human.
B)They both carry blood to the lungs.
C)They both connect to the superior vena cava.
D)They both carry oxygen-rich blooD.
E)They both connect to the placenta.
Q4) The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo.What structure serves the same role in humans?
A)chorion
B)allantois
C)yolk sac
D)amnion
E)zona pellucida
Q5) When the uterus begins to contract,it is almost time for the baby to be born.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?
A)short stature
B)eyelid fold
C)flat face
D)stubby fingers
E)indeterminate genitalia
Q2) The product(s)of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are
A)primary spermatocytes.
B)secondary spermatocytes.
C)spermatids.
D)spermatazoa.
E)2 identical cells.
Q3) When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?
A)during G<sub>1</sub> of interphase
B)during S of interphase
C)during G<sub>2</sub> of interphase
D)during mitosis
E)during cytokinesis
Q4) List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is not associated with metastasis?
A)The internal cytoskeleton is disorganized.
B)The cancer cells lack intact actin filament bundles.
C)Invasive cancer cells are sperm-shaped.
D)Cancer cells produce proteinase enzymes.
E)The low oxygen content in the middle of a tumor may turn on genes for angiogenesis.
Q2) Proto-oncogenes
A)code for proteins that promote the cell cycle.
B)promote apoptosis.
C)become tumor suppressor genes when mutated.
D)are considered "loss-of-function" mutations.
E)code for angiogenic growth factors.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the things to watch for in a mole?
A)asymmetry
B)irregular border
C)a solid color,usually brown
D)larger than 6 mm
E)elevated above the skin surface
Q4) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?
A)autosomal recessive
B)autosomal dominant
C)incompletely dominant
D)codominant
E)sex-linked dominant
Q2) Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele?
A)A
B)b
C)AA
D)Aa
E)bb
Q3) If two parents who are unaffected have a child that is affected,then the parents are both considered bearers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is not a level of regulation for gene expression?
A)Pretranscriptional
B)Transcriptional
C)Posttranscriptional
D)Pretranslational
E)Translational
Q2) Which of the following is not an amino acid?
A)glycine
B)tryptophan
C)alanine
D)valine
E)uracil
Q3) List and explain the 5 steps involved in DNA replication.
Q4) The denaturation of which enzyme would lead to incorrect base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication?
A)DNA polymerase
B)DNA ligase
C)DNA helicase
D)binding proteins
E)Okazaki fragments
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Sample Questions
Q1) What were the two different types of australopithecines?
A)erect,knuckle-walker
B)carnivorous,omnivorous
C)arboreal,terrestrial
D)gracile,robust
E)hunting,gathering
Q2) What is considered one of the best sources of evidence for biological evolution?
A)fossil record
B)biogeographical evidence
C)anatomical evidence
D)biochemical evidence
Q3) Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans?
A)monkeys
B)lemurs
C)tarsiers
D)lorises
E)elephants

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Q1) What does the word "trophic" mean?
A)energy
B)niche
C)web
D)feeding
E)biomass
Q2) Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Life on Earth is dependent on a continued input of energy from the sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The biggest problem in moving toward a sustainable society with the LDCs is overconsumption.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What do hydropower and wind power have in common?
A)Both require the building of dams.
B)Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions.
C)Both are renewable energy sources.
D)Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels.
E)Both require the use of photovoltaic cells.
Q3) Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently experiencing.
Q5) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
Q6) The more-developed countries have typically always had low population growth rate.
A)True
B)False Page 27
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