Contemporary Biology
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Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology provides an overview of the key concepts, discoveries, and current issues in the biological sciences. The course explores foundational topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, while emphasizing the relevance of biology to society today. Through an examination of recent scientific research and advancements, students develop an understanding of the impact of biology on medicine, technology, the environment, and everyday decision-making. The course encourages critical thinking and informed discussion about ethical considerations, scientific innovation, and the global challenges facing biological systems in the modern world.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Edition by Anu Singh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the scientific method,observations are most often followed by ________ and then ________.
Answer: hypotheses;experiments
Q2) Living cells are separated from the outside environment by a flexible A) nucleus.
B) plasma membrane.
C) cell wall.
D) DNA circle.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT a reason why humans are the most difficult organism to study?
A) For ethical reasons,an ideal experimental design may not be allowed to be performed with human subjects.
B) Some types of double-blind experiments cannot be performed with human subjects.
C) Long-term (longitudinal)studies may involve inaccurate reporting by the participants.
D) Longitudinal studies of human subjects can be very expensive.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecules that are nonpolar and repelled by water are called ________.
Answer: hydrophobic
Q2) An oil is a lipid that is ________ at room temperature.
A) liquid
B) saturated
C) supersaturated
D) solid
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a method used to tenderize meat?
A) marinades with high pH
B) lemon juice,vinegar,or wine
C) brining or soaking in a salt water bath for several hours
D) pounding or grinding meat
Answer: A
Q4) The monomers in proteins are ________.
Answer: amino acids
Q5) Because they are made of hydrocarbon chains that repel water,the most hydrophobic of the four classes of organic compounds is the ________.
Answer: lipids
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,chemical reactions occur more efficiently and quickly in ________ because the reactants of different reactions are concentrated within compartments in the cell specialized to contain those reactions.
Answer: eukaryotes
Q2) Lysosomes are organelles responsible for the breakdown of macromolecules.Why is it useful to have the lysosomal reactions compartmentalized,rather than allowing them to take place freely in the cytoplasm of the cell?
A) The lysosome's enzymes would break down cellular macromolecules that should remain intact.
B) If these reactions took place in the cytoplasm,their host cells would become prokaryotic.
C) The presence of lysosomes allows vesicles to form more quickly.
D) The absence of lysosomes would cause the vacuoles of animal cells to burst.
Answer: A
Q3) The ________ is the place where the majority of the genetic material in a eukaryotic cell is stored.
Answer: nucleus
Q4) During the process of photosynthesis,________ is given off as a by-product.
Answer: oxygen
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) One of the major functions of the plasma membrane is to
A) prevent the loss of proteins from mitochondria.
B) contract and give animals their ability to move.
C) control what enters and leaves a cell.
D) provide physical support to the nucleus.
Q2) Signaling molecules can affect a cell from the outside by interacting with specific receptors that are located
A) in the plasma membrane.
B) within the cell's organelles.
C) within chloroplasts.
D) on the cell wall.
Q3) A white blood cell at the site of a puncture wound engulfs a large cluster of bacteria forming a large internal vesicle.This is an example of A) exocytosis.
B) pinocytosis.
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
Q4) Several types of lipoproteins exist;the best balance for cardiovascular health is achieved with ________ amount of LDL and ________ amount of HDL.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) The second law of thermodynamics states that A) metabolic reactions must be balanced.
B) the flow of energy connects living things to their environment. C) energy can be created but not destroyed. D) systems tend to become more disorderly.
Q2) High temperatures generally cause the three-dimensional configuration of most enzymes to be destroyed.Enzymes that have been affected by high temperatures in this way have been ________.
Q3) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
Q4) In the chemical reaction C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6 O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 6 CO<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 6 H<sub>2</sub>O,the 6 CO<sub>2</sub> molecules are some of the A) substrates. B) products. C) enzymes. D) reactants.
Q5) A rotted log exemplifies the operation of the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q6) During a chemical reaction,a cell uses all the chemical energy in ATP. A)True B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The molecular energy carrier that has less energy than other energy carriers but is more versatile because of its ability to be used in a larger variety of chemical reactions is ________.
Q2) The series of chemical reactions that begins with rubisco adding oxygen to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)and ends with the release of CO<sub>2</sub> is called ________.
Q3) The light reactions in photosynthesis result in three output products: molecular oxygen,ATP,and ________.
Q4) Because inorganic carbon cannot be used by living organisms to build biological molecules,carbon fixation may be the most important metabolic process in the biosphere;if so,the most important enzyme in the biosphere would be
A) chlorophyll.
B) ATP synthase.
C) sucrase.
D) rubisco.
Q5) The most common cause of death by poisoning around the world is ________.
Q6) During the Calvin cycle,the enzyme rubisco forms an unstable carbohydrate by combining CO<sub>2</sub> with a compound that contains ________ carbons.(Hint: The answer is a number. )
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lily plants sometimes have twice as many chromosomes per cell as their parent plants.Which of the following statements explains how this phenomenon might have happened?
A) The lily's sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis.
B) The lily's chromosome number went from 2n to 1n.
C) The lily's gametes fused during mitosis.
D) The parent plant lost half of its chromosomes during mitosis.
Q2) The procedure that enables a young woman to freeze her eggs when she is single and save them for later use,up to age 50,is called ________.
Q3) The two sister chromatids of a single chromosome are held together by a A) centrosome.
B) spindle fiber.
C) centromere.
D) chromatin.
Q4) Cytokinesis occurs during interphase.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A zygote contains 16 chromosomes.The diploid number of this cell is ________ [2n = ?].
Page 9
Q6) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) HeLa cells display a variety of abnormalities.Which is most associated with their ability to divide repeatedly?
A) The cell line shows evidence of having been infected with HPV (human papillomavirus).
B) HeLa cells express the telomerase gene and are able to reconstruct the ends of their chromosomes after each round of cell division.
C) The cell line is quadraploid (having four sets of chromosomes)rather than diploid (having two sets of chromosomes)like all normal somatic cells.
D) The HeLa cell line was exposed to cosmic radiation prior to developing its unusual reproductive capabilities.
Q2) Even though all people are exposed to potential carcinogens on a daily basis,we do not all develop cancer.Why?
A) The carcinogens are too weak to cause mutations in our DNA.
B) Human cells are resistant to carcinogens until we are approximately 50 years old.
C) DNA repair mechanisms are able to correct some of the mutations that occur.
D) Oncogenes protect cells from most carcinogen exposures.
Q3) Mutations that cause an inherited risk for cancer occur in the ________ cells.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) One of the first medical tests a newborn receives determines if the child has phenylketonuria (PKU).PKU is the result of a mutation in a single gene that causes mental retardation and a host of other phenotypes (light hair and skin color,eczema,and a "mousy" smell).By detecting PKU early,doctors are able to reduce the effect of this condition with a modified diet.PKU is an example of A) epistasis.
B) a polygenic trait.
C) pleiotropy.
D) codominance.
Q2) Which of the following observations refutes the theory of blending inheritance?
A) When a red plant is crossed with a white plant,the resulting offspring are pink.
B) Most of the features of offspring are not intermediates of their parents' traits.
C) Gametes carrying different types of alleles cannot fuse successfully.
D) After meiosis,two copies of a given gene end up in the same gamete.
Q3) A genotype is always expressed in the phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During meiosis,two copies of a gene separate and end up in different ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Translocation occurs when homologous chromosomes exchange equal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following processes is NOT a method of generating new combinations of alleles in the offspring of two individuals?
A) crossing-over between chromosomes
B) fertilization of an egg by a sperm
C) independent assortment of chromosomes
D) linkage of genes
Q3) Chromosomes that are NOT involved in determining gender are known as A) autosomes.
B) sex chromosomes.
C) homologous.
D) linked.
Q4) All inherited diseases are the result of mutations of single genes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ gene is responsible for activating many genes involved in "maleness" during embryonic development.
Q6) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or ________-linked.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) If their food source changes from lactose to arabinose,bacteria turn off their genes for lactose enzymes and turn on their genes for arabinose enzymes.Why don't bacteria express the genes for both lactose and arabinose enzymes all the time?
A) To prevent the waste of energy and resources on unneeded protein production.
B) Ribosomes will only transcribe one gene at a time in prokaryotes.
C) The unneeded proteins will bind to noncoding DNA and interfere with transcription.
D) The lactose and arabinose enzymes will destroy each other.
Q2) What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
A) sugar
B) phosphate
C) base
D) polymerase
Q3) Most eukaryotic DNA is
A) single-stranded.
B) noncoding.
C) regulatory sequences.
D) prokaryotic.
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13
Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If a molecule of mRNA is a sentence,its bases are the letters and the codons are the
Q2) The specific type of nucleic acid found in ribosomes,which are important in protein synthesis,is ________.
Q3) The position of the start codon is important because every molecule of mRNA can be read by a ribosome in three different ways.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A gene affects an organism's phenotype by controlling A) protein production.
B) the mutation rate.
C) the organism's environment.
D) the organism's ribosomes.
Q5) As transcription begins,RNA polymerase binds to a segment of a gene called a(n) A) promoter.
B) intron.
C) start codon.
D) anticodon.
Q6) For translation to begin,mRNA must first bind to a ________.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suspect DNA is isolated from a murder scene.The DNA is used to create a DNA fingerprint for the suspect,but it does not match the DNA fingerprint of any of the known suspects,and it does not have a match in CODIS.The murderer is not identified and the crime remains unsolved.Although there are no matches,forensic officers enter the murder scene DNA fingerprint into CODIS because
A) it may exonerate someone who was wrongly imprisoned for another crime.
B) a match may be entered into CODIS at a later date,solving the case.
C) it may be used in a paternity suit.
D) making it public will help civilians solve the case.
Q2) In RNA ________,the expression of a specific gene is blocked by small pieces of RNA.
Q3) DNA that contains genetic information from two different sources is ________ DNA.
Q4) Genetically modified foods
A) have been shown to cause allergies in humans.
B) undergo extensive safety testing.
C) have no advantages compared to foods obtained by conventional breeding.
D) have only possible environmental costs,no social costs.
Q5) Genetically modified organisms may contain proteins,DNA,and ________ from another organism.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic variation within a population is the result of the expression of the different ________ of a gene.
Q2) Which of the following statements is an example of a behavioral adaptation?
A) Polar bears have white fur and are nearly invisible in their native habitat.
B) Pacific salmon spend the early part of their lives in fresh water but then migrate to the ocean to grow and mature.
C) Caterpillars that hatch on oak trees in the summer resemble twigs,whereas caterpillars that hatch in the spring resemble oak flowers.
D) Deer mice forage at night and are normally inactive during the day.
Q3) Plate tectonics causes the ________ of Earth's landmasses over geologic time.
Q4) A hurricane could cause genetic drift by
A) increasing the mutation rate of a population.
B) randomly killing more males than females in a population.
C) randomly killing more individuals of one genotype than another in a population.
D) relocating a population to a different habitat.
Q5) The fossils of organisms that existed when the continents were connected are distributed across ________ continents than the fossils of organisms that evolved after the continents separated.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) ________ barriers cause speciation to occur by preventing fertilization when two individuals of different populations attempt to mate.
Q2) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ________,the formation of new species.
Q3) The offspring of two individuals of different species that interbreed are known as ________.
Q4) Sympatric speciation
A) occurs only in plants.
B) is impossible,because the populations of a species must be isolated from one another for speciation to occur.
C) is always a result of polyploidy.
D) occurs when a new species emerges from a population in the absence of a geographical barrier.
Q5) ________ speciation occurs when a new species arises in the absence of geographic isolation.
Q6) Terrestrial plants radiated onto land because of a mass extinction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) Scientific advances in the study of evolutionary developmental biology (evo-devo)have demonstrated that another factor has had as much of an impact as specific alterations in the genes on the macroevolutionary changes in body plans that have been observed through time.This factor is _____________.
Q2) Evidence that the Cretaceous mass extinction was created by the impact of an asteroid is the existence,buried under sediments off the coast of Mexico,of a huge ____________________.
Q3) Members of all of Earth's different species (past and present)have been (or will be)converted into some type of fossil after their death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a correct scientific name?
A) Homo sapiens
B) Homo erectus
C) Habilis homo
D) Gallus gallus
Q5) About 220 million years ago,mammals evolved from ____________________.
Q6) Among the first organisms to colonize land were descendants of ____________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) A viral particle is very simple,consisting of a core of DNA or RNA surrounded by a
Q2) Staphylococcus aureus are bacteria that frequently cause infections in surgery patients.What is the shape of a Staphylococcus aureus cell?
A) sphere
B) rod
C) helical
D) corkscrew
Q3) Which of the following is a kingdom?
A) Plantae
B) Eukarya
C) Bacteria
D) Archaea
Q4) Which of the following is NOT part of the modern system of biological classification?
A) Fungi
B) Archaea
C) Eukaryote
D) Prokaryote
Q5) Bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another during ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The flower is the basic reproductive structure of a plant;thus,all plants produce flowers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kingdom Plantae consists of four major groups;among the first to colonize the land are believed to be the ________.
A) angiosperms
B) ferns
C) gymnosperm
D) mosses
Q3) Sexual reproduction can be observed in all the Eukarya kingdoms,although not in all Eukarya species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Non-human species throughout the world are imperiled by habitat loss,climate change,and introduced species,but the greatest threat to biodiversity and the immediate cause of each specific problem,is the rate of human population ________.
Q5) Most protists are motile,using cilia,flagella,or ________ for propulsion.
Q6) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Reptiles display many adaptations supporting a terrestrial lifestyle;the most significant in reducing their dependency on an aquatic habitat is ________.
A) keratinized scales
B) ectothermy
C) the amniotic egg
D) the three-chambered heart
Q2) The mesoglea in a cnidarian is not considered a true tissue because it originates as a ________ rather than from cell division.
Q3) Chitin occurs in several kingdoms and numerous animal phyla,but its greatest adaptive expression is seen in the:
A) annelid tube worm cases.
B) tunicate notocord.
C) echinoderm water vascular system.
D) arthropod exoskeleton.
Q4) For the insects that undergo complete metamorphosis,the larva matures to form a ________.
Q5) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all members possess an internal ________.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) An easterly wind blows from the east toward the west.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the primary forces that cause atmospheric circulation is convection,which occurs when
A) the rotation of Earth exerts friction on the atmosphere.
B) warm air at the surface rises and displaces the cooler air above it.
C) winds blowing north or south are deflected to the left or right by the Earth's rotation.
D) the tilt of the Earth's axis of rotation causes the atmosphere to slide toward the equator.
Q3) In the northern ocean basins,ocean currents generally flow ________ between continents.
A) from the equator to the South Pole
B) along the lines of longitude
C) counterclockwise
D) clockwise
Q4) The biosphere is defined as all the living organisms on Earth along with the ________ in which they live.
Q5) The Earth's tropical areas are found at ________ latitudes than temperate areas.
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Populations generally change in size over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using the environment in ways that can continue indefinitely,neither depleting essential resources nor causing environmental damage,is defined as ________ use.
Q3) If everyone lived a lifestyle as consumptive as American college students,the total acreage required would be the equivalent of ________ Earths.
Q4) Factors such as the age of reproductive maturity,maximum litter size,and the gestation period combine to produce an upper limit for the growth rate of any population;under what circumstances is that rate most likely to be seen?
A) when the population approaches a density that's 50 percent of its carrying capacity
B) when there are very few individuals in the population,for example,the initial colonists in a new habitat or the first few individuals of an introduced species
C) when the population reaches its carrying capacity
D) when the survivors following a population crash begin to reproduce
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A worker ant that defends the colony and gives up the ability to reproduce is exhibiting an orientation behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about learned behaviors is true?
A) Learned behaviors provide animals with flexible responses.
B) Learned behaviors are not influenced by an organism's surroundings.
C) Learned behaviors are totally under genetic control.
D) Learned behaviors develop only when an animal interacts with another animal.
Q3) A predictable,well-defined response due to a first encounter with a stimulus is known as a ________ behavior.
Q4) Which of the following examples does NOT illustrate an advantage gained by communication?
A) Animals can resolve territory conflicts without physically fighting.
B) Bees are able to tell their nest mates where to find a good food source.
C) Young deer hide well from predators because the spots on their fur coat blend into the environment.
D) Wolves are able to coordinate their activities during a hunt.
Q5) For a gosling,________ means forming an image of who is a parent early in life.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) A species can participate in several symbiotic relationships simultaneously;for example,Scotch broom,an invasive shrub,competes with native vegetation for soil nutrients and maintains a mutualistic relationship with root bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following can occur when the climate of an area changes?
A) Natural selection usually causes the community to adapt and survive the change with little visible effect.
B) That area becomes uninhabitable to all species and is abandoned.
C) That community may relocate to an area with a climate similar to that of the original location.
D) Continental drift restores communities to climates similar to those from which the communities came.
Q3) The bacteria in yogurt can colonize the human intestine and participate in a symbiotic relationship called ________.
Q4) Secondary succession is more likely to follow a disturbance to a mature community than primary succession because ________ typically remain intact.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following is the dominant type of organism in a natural terrestrial ecosystem that has the greatest net primary productivity (NPP)?
A) grass
B) trees
C) food crops
D) fish
Q2) Nutrients that have an atmospheric cycle
A) include carbon,nitrogen,and phosphorus.
B) may be affected by events that occur in distant parts of the globe.
C) may become trapped in ocean sediments until tectonic processes elevate the ocean floor.
D) can quickly become locally depleted and limit NPP.
Q3) Biologists use the term ________ to refer to the weight of organisms per unit area.
Q4) Human actions such as logging,building on a floodplain,or diverting rivers increase the probability of severe ________.
Q5) Each level of an energy pyramid corresponds to a step in a food chain and is called a(n)________ level.
Q6) Rainfall with a low pH is called ________.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) The highest concentrations of environmental pollutants are typically found in the predators at the top of the food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compared with past estimates,extinction rates are currently high.What is the most plausible explanation for this increase?
A) Natural fluctuations in climate are causing extinctions.
B) Continental drift is causing rapid changes in climate;these changes,in turn,cause extinctions.
C) Previous extinctions make survival of contemporary species more difficult.
D) Humans are affecting many aspects of the global environment.
Q3) The example of cheetahs blinded by thorny plants indicates that the effects of chemical cycle disruption
A) produce a chain reaction of results that cannot always be predicted.
B) can all be predicted by ecologists who are experts in their field.
C) are very limited and probably won't affect humans.
D) will not be observed for decades.
Q4) Plants remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through the process of ________.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) The physical movement of heat that results from the movement of air or water is known as
A) convection.
B) conduction.
C) evaporation.
D) radiation.
Q2) Ammonia is produced by the metabolism of A) fatty acids.
B) glucose.
C) proteins.
D) carbohydrates.
Q3) The lack of water,otherwise known as ________,can lead to heatstroke.
Q4) Heat can be gained or lost by radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In order for the skin to provide protection,it is made of only one type of tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Secretion and ________ take place in the U-shaped kidney tubule.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The lower region of the small intestine is structured to create large amounts of surface area so that it can more efficiently
A) produce enzymes to break food down into smaller molecules.
B) grind food down into smaller molecules.
C) absorb the chemical building blocks produced by digestion.
D) eliminate waste products.
Q2) Whole-grain foods are good components of a diet when trying to reduce cancer risk. A)True
B)False
Q3) Omega-3 fatty acids are found primarily in red meat. A)True
B)False
Q4) The colon contains bacteria that produce ________,a small organic compound that is involved in blood clotting.
Q5) The eight essential amino acids required by adult humans
A) are produced by the human body.
B) can be obtained by eating any one type of vegetable.
C) are not found in meat products.
D) are used as building blocks for human proteins.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Oxygen molecules are polar and dissolve so poorly in blood plasma that there is NOT enough oxygen to meet the metabolic demands of a vertebrate.However,red blood cells contain ________,which greatly increases the oxygen content of blood.
A) carbon dioxide
B) alveoli
C) nodules
D) hemoglobin
Q2) Carbon dioxide
A) is carried by carboxy-carotenoid,the other gas pigment in the blood.
B) is converted to the highly soluble bicarbonate ion and dissolves in the plasma for its journey to the lung.
C) moves from regions of cellular respiration to the alveoli dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
D) attaches to hemoglobin and causes structural changes that strengthen the oxygen binding,ensuring that more oxygen is collected when the metabolic level is high.
Q3) Hemoglobin,like many other oxygen-binding pigments,contains the metallic element ________.
Q4) Red blood cells are produced in the ________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the activity of adrenaline?
A) It strings glucose molecules together to form glycogen.
B) In times of stress or danger,it causes glucose to be released for use as fuel.
C) It stimulates the movement of glucose out of the blood into storage tissues.
D) It promotes the storage of fatty acids.
Q2) The high levels of progesterone seen after ovulation in the human female are produced by a specific region of the ovary known as the ________,which disappears if pregnancy does NOT occur.
Q3) The development of all female reproductive structures is under the control of a single hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When blood glucose levels drop to a set point,the production of insulin drops off.This is an example of
A) positive feedback.
B) negative feedback.
C) neutralization.
D) hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) The area of the brain that filters and sorts signals from the spinal cord also determines which signals require an action without awareness and which signals need to be sent to the conscious perception centers.This area of the brain is known as the A) cerebrum.
B) pituitary gland.
C) thalamus.
D) cortex.
Q2) At resting potential,the charge outside the neuron's plasma membrane is
A) positive because of the movement of myelin out of a neuron.
B) negative because of the sodium ions being pumped out of a neuron.
C) positive because sodium channels open in the axon but not in the cell body.
D) negative because sodium channels close in the dendrite but not in the axon.
Q3) To best help it sniff out a fox,a hunting dog probably has a high concentration of
A) chemoreceptors in its nasal cavity.
B) mechanoreceptors in its ears.
C) proprioceptors in its nasal cavity.
D) thermoreceptors in its front paws.
Q4) Nodes of Ranvier are found only in ________ neurons.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Skeletons,Muscles,and Movement
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Q1) Cardiac muscles branch to interconnect with other cardiac cells to create a coordinated heartbeat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In human embryos,the skeleton starts out as cartilage and is later replaced by bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following series correctly describes the organization of muscle tissue from smallest to largest component?
A) sarcomeres to myofibrils to muscle fibers
B) myofibrils to sarcomeres to muscle fibers
C) muscle fibers to sarcomeres to myofibrils
D) muscle fibers to myofibrils to sarcomeres
Q4) Which of the following animals has a skeleton made of carbohydrates linked with proteins?
A) a mouse
B) a housefly
C) a shark
D) a swallow
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Chapter 32: The Immune System
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Q1) A disease-causing agent is called a(n)________.
Q2) Mammals use several strategies to prevent inhaled pathogens from entering the body through the lungs;in this instance the
A) lung secretions create an acidic and inhospitable environment for pathogens.
B) mucus secreted into the bronchioles traps pathogens and is eventually removed by the action of the cilia lining the airway.
C) multiple layers of dead epithelial cells within the lungs that create a virtually impenetrable barrier to pathogen movement.
D) macrophages in the lungs produce the immobilizing toxins that paralyze pathogens before they can infect the body.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the human immune response is true?
A) Host cells are never destroyed by macrophages,even if they are damaged.
B) Neutrophils mount a specific response to particular species of invading organisms.
C) The immune response is more effective during the second exposure to an invader.
D) Lymphocytes are one of the components of blood clots.
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34
Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The cells of the morula are totipotent,meaning they can differentiate into any cell type.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general,why does a female animal tend to choose her mate more carefully than does a male?
A) Males tend to live longer than females.
B) Males do not produce as much sperm as females do eggs.
C) A female has more resources tied up in an egg than a male does in sperm.
D) Females use more of their resources in mate-attracting displays.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT usually associated with sexual reproduction?
A) germ line cells
B) gametes
C) genetic clones
D) zygotes
Q4) Chemicals that disrupt normal gene expression during development are
A) teratogens.
B) morphogens.
C) homeotic.
D) chorionic.
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Chapter 34: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) While walking in the forest,you come across a plant with a flower that has three petals and leaves with parallel veins.You would classify this plant as a
A) dicot.
B) monocot.
C) tricot.
D) cotyledon.
Q2) Fungi can clog tracheids and vessels,which causes a plant's ________ system to wilt.
Q3) Water and nutrients are taken up from soil by A) guard cells.
B) root hairs.
C) root caps.
D) xylem in taproots.
Q4) Most carnivorous plants obtain energy through photosynthesis;they consume insects to obtain ________ and ________.
Q5) A carrot is an example of a taproot system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The most abundant plant cell type in ground tissue is ________.
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Chapter 35: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT help a plant deter herbivores,insects,or bacteria?
A) antimicrobial chemicals
B) the production of auxin
C) dermal hairs on the stem and leaves
D) gene-for-gene recognition
Q2) Some plants can sense the duration of light or dark during a 24-hour period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In flowering plants,seeds are haploid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following would be haploid?
A) pollen
B) guard cells
C) root hairs
D) parenchyma cells
Q5) Endosperm is the origin of the sperm that fertilizes the embryo.
A)True
B)False
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