
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the scientific principles and current developments shaping the field of biology today. This course covers the foundational concepts of cellular and molecular biology, genetics, evolution, and ecology, while emphasizing their application in modern research and biotechnology. Students will examine pressing global issues such as climate change, public health, genetic engineering, and biodiversity loss to understand how biological knowledge informs society and technological innovation. Through lectures, discussions, and case studies, the course encourages critical thinking about the ethical and societal implications of advances in biological science.
Recommended Textbook
LIFE 1st Edition by John H. Postlethwait
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Q1) Define the term evolution.
Answer: Evolution refers to descent with modification based on changes in the frequencies of genes within populations over time. (Please note that descent with modification alone does not indicate adequate understanding of the process.)
Q2) Scientists have found that ancient fossils
A)are very similar to present-day organisms.
B)are more similar to present-day organisms than more recent fossils.
C)are just as similar to present-day organisms as more recent fossils.
D)are less similar to present-day organisms than more recent fossils.
E)bear no resemblance to present-day organisms.
Answer: D
Q3) Some scientists believe that any Martian organisms would most closely resemble members of the Archaea on Earth. What is the basis for their thinking?
Answer: Members of the Archaea inhabit some of the most extreme environments on the planet. These are similar to the environments present on Earth soon after its formation. This suggests that the Archaea organisms are very ancient in origin. It is thought that any Martian environments are also very harsh and extreme, much like those inhabited by Archaea organisms today.
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Q1) Kool-Aid readily dissolves in water. This means that Kool-Aid is
A)an acid.
B)hydrophilic.
C)hydrophobic.
D)a base.
E)a buffer.
Answer: B
Q2) Describe the different distinct forms that regions of proteins can have. Why are these forms so important?
Answer: Alpha-helical protein regions are shaped like a spiral staircase and provide rigidity to the protein. Pleated sheet regions give the protein flat, box-like sides. Connecting these two types of regions are disordered loops. The relative positions of these protein regions determine the protein's unique shape, essential for the function of the protein.
Q3) How are the four major types of biological molecules similar in structure?
Answer: The most obvious answer is that they all have carbon backbones, but it is also important to recognize that they all are made up of repeating subunits linked together by dehydration synthesis.
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Q1) In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions
A)can take place day or night.
B)produce ADP and carbon dioxide.
C)are uncoupled from the light-independent reactions.
D)lead to carbon fixation.
E)produce ATP and energy stored in electron carriers.
Answer: E
Q2) A stone is pushed from the top of a hill. Halfway to the bottom of the hill, this rolling stone
A)has potential energy only.
B)has both potential energy and kinetic energy.
C)is using up chemical energy.
D)is constantly gaining more energy.
E)has kinetic energy only.
Answer: B
Q3) For the following chemical equation, label the reactants by placing an R beside them.
carbon dioxide__ + water__ + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen__
Answer: carbon dioxide(R) + water(R) + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen_
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Q1) Skin cancers typically develop in the
A)lower layers of the epidermis.
B)upper layers of the dermis.
C)upper layers of the epidermis.
D)lower layers of the dermis.
E)subcutaneous layer.
Q2) Describe the function of the mitotic spindle.
Q3) What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?
A)kinetochore
B)centromere
C)chromatin
D)cyclin
E)MPF
Q4) Describe the difference between cytokinesis in animal and plant cells.
Q5) Explain why radiation affects cancerous cells to a greater degree than noncancerous cells.
Q6) Describe the events that occur during metaphase.
Q7) Give a short, concise description of the difference between mitosis and meiosis.
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Q8) Explain why there is a difference in the mechanism by which an animal cell and a plant cell accomplishes cytokinesis.

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Q1) Explain how females with the chromosome constitution XXX are often fertile with normal intelligence and lead normal lives.
Q2) The physical characteristics of an organism resulting from its genes are known as the organism's A)alleles. B)hybrids.
C)recessive characteristics. D)genotype. E)phenotype.
Q3) Mendel determined that tall pea plants were dominant to short pea plants. Cross a homozygous short pea plant with a heterozygous tall pea plant. Which of the following is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
A)1:0
B)1:1
C)1:2:1
D)3:1
E)4:1
Q4) Compare and contrast the blending and particulate models of heredity.
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Q1) Genes are composed of A)DNA.
B)proteins.
C)chromosomes.
D)carbohydrates.
E)lipids.
Q2) The most important experimental result that suggested to Watson and Crick that DNA was in the form of a helix was
A)the finding of Chargaff that DNA always had equal amounts of A and T and equal amounts of G and C.
B)Griffith's results with transformation.
C)the discovery that DNA is wound around histone proteins.
D)X-ray data from Rosalind Franklin .
E)understanding DNA replication.
Q3) DNA evidence is sometimes used to address what legal issues? How reliable is DNA evidence in a court of law?
Q4) Why is it important that DNA replication be so accurate but not perfect?
Q5) Given a strand of DNA that "reads" GATTACGATT, what would the sequence of bases on the opposite side "read"?
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Q1) What enzymes are used to cut DNA molecules? How do they work?
Q2) Based on what you know about the genetic code, list one or two codons that would most likely code for the same amino acid. This is a hypothetical question; don't look at the table showing the genetic code.
Q3) The anticodon
A)is found on mRNA.
B)has the same sequence as the codon.
C)is a sequence found on DNA.
D)helps the ribosome begin translation.
E)helps bring in the correct amino acid to add to the growing polypeptide chain.
Q4) Explain the concept "the genetic code is almost universal." Why is it important?
Q5) We refer to the DNA code as being redundant or repetitive. This means that
A)each triplet codes for one amino acid.
B)some codons code for the same amino acid.
C)one codon codes for one amino acid.
D)each triplet codes for a different amino acid.
E)a single triplet may code for more than one amino acid.
Q6) If a certain stretch of DNA reads ATTACGAG, what would the corresponding tRNA sequence be?
Q7) What is the importance of a cell being able to regulate gene expression?
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Q1) Describe the process of ovulation.
Q2) Which of the following chemicals plays a part in a man's erection?
A)carbon dioxide
B)carbon monoxide
C)nitric oxide
D)phosphoric acid
E)carbonic acid
Q3) Chemical compounds secreted by mammals and insects to communicate sexual readiness are called A)pheromones. B)developers. C)hormones.
D)testosterones.
E)estrogens.
Q4) Describe the events occurring during gastrulation. What is the destination of the cells in the three layers?
Q5) What is a negative feedback loop? How does this apply to sperm production?
Q6) Name the male accessory sexual glands and characterize the organs and their secretions.
Q7) Put the major stages of development in order.
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Q1) How would reducing the load of antibiotics in our everyday environment reduce the number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria?
Q2) There are two types of genetic drift. Describe and give an example of the founder effect.
Q3) Provide evidence for the following statement. "At the time of Darwin's journey, geology was more influential in the development of evolutionary thought than was biology."
Q4) Most mutations lead to a decreased chance of survival for the mutant organism. Rarely, a mutation can provide an increased chance of survival. These rare mutations provide a(n)_____________________ for the mutant.
A)adaptive
B)directional shift
C)selective disadvantage
D)environmental susceptibility
E)selective advantage
Q5) Although Lamarck's hypothesis was wrong, it is significant. Why?
Q6) What can we learn about evolution from molecular evidence?
Q7) Explain the basic principle of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Q8) What can we learn about evolution from biogeography?
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Q1) During which geological era did Pangea break apart?
A)Archean
B)Paleozoic
C)Mesozoic
D)Cenozoic
E)Proterozoic
Q2) According to the endosymbiont hypothesis, what cellular components originated from free-living bacterial cells?
A)mitochondria and nucleus
B)nuclei and ribosomes
C)chloroplasts and ribosomes
D)chloroplasts and mitochondria
E)endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
Q3) Biologists think that the first photosynthetic cells
A)used water as an electron donor.
B)were the first living cells to develop.
C)lived more than 2.8 billion years ago.
D)released hydrogen into the atmosphere.
E)required oxygen rather than carbon dioxide.
Q4) Contrast homologous and analogous traits, giving examples.
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Q1) Organisms are included in the Protists (or Protoctista)based on what features?
Q2) Some bacteria can form resting structures called ___________ that can withstand extremes in temperature, moisture, and radiation.
A)prions
B)symbionts
C)capsids
D)viroids
E)endospores
Q3) Which form of bacterial cells is rod shaped?
A)spirilla
B)cocci
C)vibrios
D)bacilli
E)rhodius
Q4) Scientists think diplomonads and amoeboflagellates are primitive and that their characteristics are similar to those of the first eukaryotic cells. What does this tell you about what the first eukaryotes were like and what kind of environment they might have inhabited?
Q5) Explain how bioremediation works, using an oil spill as an example.
Q6) Discuss how the world might be different without bacteria.
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Q1) What reproductive advantage do flowers give a flowering plant?
Q2) Fungi exhibit certain characteristics. One of these characteristics is that they
A)reproduce using seeds and pollen.
B)are prokaryotes.
C)lack cell nuclei.
D)are capable of carrying on photosynthesis.
E)reproduce using spores.
Q3) Fungi and plants resemble each other because they both
A)have cells surrounded by cell walls.
B)are typically heterotrophic.
C)often cause disease.
D)are composed of cells with two different nuclei.
E)have flagellated cells.
Q4) Plants have adapted to dry land by evolving all of the following except Association with mycorrhizae to improve mineral uptake.
A)secreting a waxy coating to prevent water loss.
B)forms of chlorophyll more efficient at capturing light.
C)tissues to conduct water through the plant.
D)structures to protect reproductive cells and embryos.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a major defining chordate characteristic?
A)blocks of muscles from myomeres
B)a pair of eyes at the anterior
C)a hollow, dorsal nerve cord
D)a notochord
E)a tail extending beyond anus
Q2) Which of the following does (or did)not lay an amniotic (enclosed)egg?
A)birds
B)monotreme mammals
C)dinosaurs
D)frogs
E)snakes
Q3) All of the following are general characteristics of all animals except
A)diploid with haploid eggs and sperm.
B)develop from an embryo.
C)multicellular body.
D)heterotrophic.
E)possesion of nerves and muscles.
Q4) Compare the traits of hemichordates (acorn worms)to chordates.
Q5) Identify the major trends in primate evolution.
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Q1) Briefly describe the coevolution of predators and prey. Does this concept apply to parasites and hosts?
Q2) Applying what you know about animal populations that would exhibit an S-shaped population curve, what are some life history characteristics you would expect to see in this species?
Q3) A fire has swept through a mature forest and devastated the area. Virtually all vegetation is burned and considered a complete loss. Foresters, however, realize that plants will soon colonize the area starting the successional process that will eventually restore the forest. Will the pioneer plants that first colonize the area most likely be r-selection strategists or K-selection strategists? Explain your answer.
Q4) Which age structure diagram would be most indicative of the African country of Kenya?
A)pyramid-shaped with a wide base
B)bullet-shaped
C)middle section wider than both the relatively narrow base and top
D)tapering from a broad top to a narrow bottom
E)base and top both wider than the constricted center
Q5) Characterize the demographic transition seen in the human population. When did it occur?
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Q1) The most probable consequence of ozone depletion is
A)global warming.
B)an increase in skin cancers.
C)eutrophication.
D)fish kills in shallow lakes.
E)groundwater contamination.
Q2) Compare the movement of energy and materials through an ecosystem.
Q3) What does the phrase "eat low on the food chain" mean? Why is this sound advice ecologically?
Q4) Edith's checkerspot butterflies are considered "indicator species" because they
A)can determine the make up of the community of organisms through predation.
B)are signals for the presence of predators that prey on the butterflies.
C)are important signals of ecological change.
D)are only present during certain seasons.
E)indicate when food supplies are low by changing their behavior.
Q5) Your book lists several ways to live a more sustainable lifestyle (using alternative energy sources and natural fertilizers, rotating crops, and preventing soil erosion). What other sustainable activities can you list?
Q6) Explain an impact of human development on the water cycle.
Q7) Why are food chains limited to a small number of links?
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Q1) Astronauts who spend significant time at zero gravity often become somewhat anemic upon return to Earth. One way to compensate for the process that leads to this anemia might be to supply the astronauts with ________ during the mission in space.
A)a diet higher in protein and iron
B)a diuretic, which will cause them to excrete more fluid
C)a growth factor that leads to increased red blood cell production
D)higher levels of oxygen in the shuttle atmosphere
E)more opportunities to rest or sleep
Q2) Describe the production of urea in the mammalian body. Where is it finally excreted?
Q3) Freshwater fish must excrete ______ and actively accumulate _______.
A)water; urea
B)urea; water
C)salt; urea
D)water; salt
E)urea; water.
Q4) Define and put these terms in order from smallest to largest (in size): organ, tissue, cell, organ system.
Q5) Distinguish between endocrine and exocrine glands and give examples of each.
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Q1) Only ______ have a lung designed so that air can flow through them in one direction.
A)a few fish
B)amphibians
C)birds
D)mammals
E)insects
Q2) Many invertebrates have open circulatory systems and their blood is referred to as A)bile.
B)perilymph.
C)coelomic fluid.
D)pseudolymph.
E)hemolymph.
Q3) The alternate name for the mitral valve is
A)the left atrioventricular valve.
B)the aortic semilunar valve.
C)the tricuspid valve.
D)the right atrioventricular valve.
E)the pulmonary semilunar valve.
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