Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology
Exam Materials
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental principles and emerging frontiers of modern biological science. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, while integrating current advancements and issues in biotechnology, medicine, and environmental science. Students gain a deeper understanding of the scientific methods used in biological research and how discoveries in biology relate to society, health, and global challenges. Through interactive discussions and laboratory experiments, the course encourages critical thinking about the ethical and practical implications of biological knowledge in the contemporary world.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Burkholder hypothesized that Pfiesteria was associated with the massive die-offs of estuarine fish. Her hypothesis was supported when A)Pfiesteria was shown to be capable of living within the climatic ranges of North Carolina.
B)a predicted increase in Pfiesteria populations coincided with a fish die-off.
C)new observations revealed Pfiesteria could kill laboratory fish.
D)a virulent toxin was isolated from Pfiesteria cultures grown in the laboratory.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following questions could not be used to develop a testable hypothesis?
A)Does exposure to secondhand smoke affect the probability of developing lung cancer?
B)Do organic vegetables contain harmful substances?
C)Should everyone drink bottled water only?
D)Does a can of vegetable juice contain more salt than the same size can of iced tea?
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The infective strategy seen in the retroviruses involves _____ the host cell.
A)the insertion of RNA and its conversion to DNA within
B)the integration of the viral genetic material into the DNA of
C)an initial symptom-free period with no pathology evident in D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) In addition to the Bacteria, which other kingdom is comprised exclusively of prokaryotic organisms?
A)Archaea
B)Fungi
C)Protista
D)Plantae
Answer: A
Q3) The emergence of each new branch on the evolutionary tree represents
A)the addition of a new Linnaean taxon within that lineage.
B)the completion of a generation for that particular organism.
C)the introduction of the most important features of a group.
D)a common ancestor and the introduction of a new shared derived feature.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The hyphal mass, or body, of a fungus is constructed from interwoven filaments called mycelia.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) In addition to a process similar to binary fission, some eukaryotes can also reproduce asexually by A)hermaphroditism.
B)releasing gametes.
C)the formation of zoospores.
D)all of the above
Answer: C
Q3) As a major plant group the bryophytes are characterized by A)the absence of vascular tissue.
B)the absence of seed production.
C)a flagellated sperm.
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ____________________.
Answer: flower
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Q1) More than 95 percent of all living mammals are classified as ____________________; the remainder are classified either as marsupials or monotremes.
Q2) Some mollusks feed on cnidarians, absorb intact cnidocytes, and migrate these cnidocytes into their body surface. What possible benefit could the mollusk derive from this behavior?
A)By disguising themselves as cnidarians they can better approach their prey.
B)Because some cnidarians use cnidocytes for protection their defensive functions could be transferred intact to the mollusk.
C)Mollusks with cnidocytes may increase their reproductive fitness by appearing more attractive to potential mates.
D)Cnidocyte toxin may incapacitate cnidarian prey species allowing for quicker consumption and more efficient food gathering.
Q3) Ectothermy describes a strategy to homeostatically regulate a body temperature to be below the ambient temperature; thus leading to the phrase cold-blooded.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionic bonds
A)result from the sharing of electrons between atoms.
B)form only between polar molecules.
C)form between atoms that develop opposite charges.
D)result from the natural repulsion that develops between protons.
Q2) Which of the following is not a role of fatty acids in living organisms?
A)energy storage
B)storage of genetic information
C)membrane construction
D)building blocks of fats
Q3) One of the symptoms of kidney disease is the presence of proteins in a patient's urine. To quickly test for kidney disease using a urine sample, a doctor might add a chemical that causes a color change when
A)nitrogen, but not oxygen, is present.
B)nitrogen, but not phosphorus, is present.
C)only oxygen and hydrogen are present.
D)only carbon and hydrogen are present.
Q4) ____________________ are the most hydrophobic of the four classes of organic compounds because they are made of hydrocarbon chains that repel water.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Until recently public health officials had mistakenly believed that the mosquitoes responsible for transmitting malaria primarily live indoors, and thus officials had concentrated eradication efforts on dwellings.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The movements of wound-healing fibroblasts in your body depend on pseudopodia that can extend and retract, because the microfilaments in them can rapidly change their length.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At the most basic level of life, organic compounds are organized into energy-dependent, self-replicating units known as ____________________.
Q4) All of the energy in the food we eat is produced when organelles in plants called ____________________ convert the energy in sunlight to chemical energy.
Q5) The ____________________includes the entire contents of a cell except for the nucleus.
Q6) During the process of photosynthesis, ____________________ is given off as a by-product.
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Short-lived signaling molecules are most effective for
A)long-distance cell-to-cell communication.
B)local cell-to-cell communication.
C)activating genes in the nucleus.
D)breaking down receptor proteins.
Q2) All steroid hormones are hydrophobic. Where would you expect the receptor proteins for these hormones to be located?
A)in the hydrophobic portion of the cell membrane
B)in the hydrophilic portion of the cell membrane
C)in the cytoplasm of a cell
D)in the extracellular matrix
Q3) As a biological process, osmosis
A)requires an input of cellular energy.
B)moves solute from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.
C)is a type of passive transport.
D)requires reorganization of the plasma membrane.
Q4) Osmoregulation refers to balancing water concentrations in organisms and cells.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) The compartmentalization present within the mitochondrion improves the efficiency of the ATP production pathway by concentrating the reacting molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The application of modern biological research methods have shown that the most successful strategy for permanent weight loss almost always involves A)simply eating less and exercising more.
B)consuming BMR activators (supplements that elevate the basal metabolic rate) like caffeine.
C)body composition changes, particularly changing connective tissue to muscle. D)altering the body surface area to volume ratio.
Q3) ____________________ are the organelles where the breakdown products of food are oxidized, thereby generating most of a cell's ATP.
Q4) Chemical reactions can occur without the input of any energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Catabolic reactions are tightly coupled to ____________________ reactions that require energy.
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Alcohol is a by-product of fermentation by yeast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During exercise, the increase in respiration rate and heartbeat speed are driven by the need to replenish the oxygen used to support A)lactic acid fermentation.
B)carbon dioxide synthesis in the lungs.
C)oxidative phosphorylation in muscle cell mitochondria.
D)in-the-dark reactions of photosynthesis.
Q3) Acetyl CoA is a substrate of A)glycolysis.
B)the Krebs cycle.
C)the electron transport chain.
D)the Calvin cycle.
Q4) Cellular respiration is, essentially, the opposite of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Electrons gain energy as they move through the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the S phase, the cell
A)duplicates its DNA.
B)grows in size to prepare for DNA synthesis.
C)completes its preparation for mitosis.
D)rests between divisions.
Q2) As the ____________________ separate during prophase, they determine opposite ends, or spindle poles, of a cell that is beginning mitosis.
Q3) The successful union of one male and one female gamete forms a new single cell known as a A)histone.
B)zygote.
C)vesicle.
D)gametocyte.
Q4) The parthenogenetic whiptail lizards have maintained their population levels primarily because they live in an extremely stable environment, a situation that minimizes the value of genetic diversity within a population.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Q1) The cells in many large polyps in the human colon usually contain A)normal tumor suppressor genes and at least one oncogene.
B)one inactive and one active copy of a tumor suppressor gene and normal proto-oncogenes.
C)two inactive copies of a tumor suppressor gene and two proto-oncogenes.
D)two inactive copies of a tumor suppressor gene and one oncogene.
Q2) A virus can insert its genes into the DNA of the host cell, thus ensuring that all daughter cells receive a copy of the viral genes.
A)True B)False
Q3) Positive growth regulators increase the rate of ____________________.
Q4) People who quit smoking live longer than those who do not quit smoking. A)True B)False
Q5) Under normal conditions, growth factors activate ____________________ and inactivate ____________________ genes.
Q6) A harmless proliferation of cells in a human colon would be called a(n)____________________ polyp.
Q7) Cancer-causing genes are known as ____________________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Is it possible for two organisms with the same genotype to have different phenotypes?
A)No; identical genotypes lead to identical phenotypes.
B)No; the DNA of the recessive alleles not expressed in the phenotype is degraded within each cell.
C)Yes; the expression of the genotype can be affected by the environment.
D)Yes; the phenotype expressed determines what the genotype will be.
Q2) The leaf color of a certain plant is controlled by one gene. For that gene, the allele G = orange and g = green. You have a plant with orange leaves, but do not know whether that plant's genotype is GG or Gg. Which of the following would help you determine the plant's genotype?
A)Cross the plant to another plant with orange leaves.
B)Cross the plant to a plant with green leaves.
C)Cross two true-breeding, orange-leaved plants to each other and then cross one of their offspring to the plant with the unknown genotype.
D)Change the environment in which the plant grows to find the conditions that cause the leaves to produce the orange color.
Q3) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ____________________.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During translocation, A)pieces of DNA are exchanged between the non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair.
B)a segment of DNA is broken off of a chromosome and reattached to the same chromosome, but backward in orientation.
C)segments of DNA involved in crossing-over undergo somatic mutations.
D)a segment of DNA breaks off one chromosome and is attached to a nonhomologous chromosome.
Q2) Chromosomes that are not involved in determining gender are known as A)autosomes.
B)sex chromosomes.
C)homologous.
D)linked.
Q3) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
Q4) The chromosome theory of inheritance states that A)chromosomes are made of DNA.
B)genes are located on chromosomes.
C)genes are inherited.
D)patterns of inheritance are based on probability.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Q1) DNA consists of two twisted strands of ____________________.
Q2) Enzymes proofread base pairing during DNA replication. A)True
B)False
Q3) One level of DNA packing involves the DNA being wound around A)histone proteins.
B)an RNA molecule.
C)cytoplasmic organelles.
D)translation enzymes.
Q4) The adenine bases in a DNA molecule are radioactively labeled. The DNA is then placed in a solution containing unlabeled nucleotides and the enzymes needed for DNA replication. The DNA molecule is allowed to replicate twice, forming four new DNA molecules. You would find the radioactively labeled adenine in A)each of the eight strands.
B)two of the eight strands.
C)all but one strand.
D)six of the eight strands.
Q5) The sequence of bases along a single strand of DNA is complementary. A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) ____________________ is the specific type of nucleic acid found in ribosomes, which are important in protein synthesis.
Q2) Which of the following is not a feature of the genetic code?
A)Every individual has a different genetic code.
B)Each codon in the genetic code specifies only one amino acid.
C)The genetic code is redundant.
D)The same genetic code can be applied to virtually every organism on Earth.
Q3) During transcription,
A)the DNA strands replicate, producing four mRNA molecules.
B)each strand in the DNA molecule directs the production of an mRNA molecule.
C)a template strand of DNA directs the production of an mRNA molecule.
D)a template strand of DNA directs the production of all of the tRNA molecules needed for producing the gene's protein product.
Q4) Most molecules of RNA are ____________________-stranded.
Q5) Which of the following does not take place in the nucleus?
A)transcription
B)intron removal
C)replication
D)translation
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) To make recombinant DNA,
A)two nonhomologous chromosomes are induced to undergo crossing-over during meiosis.
B)the entire genome of one organism is fused to a plasmid.
C)pieces of DNA from different organisms are cut with restriction enzymes and then glued together with ligase.
D)DNA polymerase is used to make multiple copies of the DNA sequences of two organisms at the same time.
Q2) Genetic engineering has been used to mass produce insulin for diabetics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the two strands of the DNA being amplified must be separated by exposing the DNA to high
Q4) It is theoretically impossible for two individuals (other than identical twins)to have the same DNA fingerprint.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Individuals evolve, not populations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Continental drift predicts that fossils of species that evolved after Pangaea split apart should be found on only one or a few present-day continents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The wings of a bird and the wings of a bat both form from the front appendages (arms). The bird wing is covered by feathers and the bat wing consists of a thin layer of skin stretched between the "finger" bones. Are the wings of the bird and bat homologous or analogous?
A)homologous because they evolved from the same body part
B)analogous because birds' flight requires feathers and bats use skin; both are wings, but they evolved differently
C)both; they are homologous because they both evolved from a front appendage, but analogous because they evolved differently
D)neither, because birds and bats do not share a recent common ancestor
Q4) Evolutionary changes on a small scale are called ____________________.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The increase in antibiotic resistance in E. coli as a result of treating healthy animals with antibiotics is an example of ____________________ driving evolution.
Q2) Although they are protected in many countries, humans still hunt elephants for their ivory tusks. A mutation that results in tuskless elephants is increasing in frequency in some elephant populations as a result of the evolutionary mechanism of
Q3) A fisherman catches one trout from each of two ponds. Pond A contains 100 trout and pond B contains 1,000 trout. Which population is more affected by the fisherman?
A)Pond A; the fisherman has a greater likelihood of completely removing alleles from the gene pool by taking a fish from the smaller population.
B)Pond A; fewer fish are able to move into a small pond and find mates.
C)Pond B; the fisherman is more likely to catch a fish that is undergoing evolution in a bigger population.
D)Pond B; the process of evolution occurs more slowly in large populations and removing a fish speeds up the process.
Q4) Genetic drift causes random changes in ____________________ frequency.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) Populations within a species are connected by A)gene flow.
B)speciation.
C)continental drift.
D)genetic drift.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A)Adaptations are complex and always predesigned.
B)Some adaptations are so complex that they may appear to be predesigned.
C)Adaptations often involve more than a single characteristic of organisms.
D)Some adaptations help organisms defend against predators.
Q3) ____________________ speciation occurs when a new species arises in the absence of geographic isolation.
Q4) Mutations in developmental genes may provide an advantage at some stages of life, but be fatal at other stages of life.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When speciation is caused by a rapid change in chromosomal number such as ____________________, new species form in a single generation.
21
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) Scientists use existing fossils to predict what the transitional forms between organisms might look like. Why is it so hard for scientists to find fossils of these transitional forms?
A)Scientists have no way to determine how deep in a rock to look for a transitional fossil, so they just have to dig and dig until they find the right fossil.
B)Because of continental drift, the exact location of where a transitional fossil should be found cannot be determined. Looking for a particular fossil that could be anywhere on the planet is like looking for a needle in a haystack.
C)Fossils of transitional species may have never formed due to environmental conditions, or if they did form, natural processes like erosion may have destroyed them.
D)The transitional form of any organism is only hypothetical in nature; it never truly existed on the planet and, therefore, could never become a fossil.
Q2) After the extinction of the dinosaurs the adaptive radiation of ____________________ set the stage for the eventual evolution of humans.
Q3) The first members of the genus Homo originated on the continent of
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) When a predator is removed or displaced from its ecosystem, numerous additional species of both plants and animals can be affected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During an El Niño event,
A)sea surface temperatures in the Pacific Ocean become significantly warmer.
B)a reversal of the Peru current brings Pacific Ocean water to the tip of South America where it mixes with Atlantic Ocean water.
C)the Earth's rotational axis tilts beyond its normal 23.5°.
D)sea surface temperatures in the Atlantic Ocean become significantly warmer.
Q3) The four atmospheric convection cells significantly affect the amount of solar radiation reaching the Earth's equator.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atmospheric circulation occurs primarily within one of the ____________________ major convection cells.
Q5) Despite the absence of photosynthesis, the continuous settling of detritus makes the ____________________ zone of the coastal ocean a stable habitat.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Lynx feed on rabbits, and the growth curves for these two species fluctuate together. This relationship is an example of a(n)
A)S-shaped growth curve.
B)J-shaped growth curve.
C)irregular fluctuation.
D)tightly linked cycle.
Q2) The size of a population can be decreased by A)a higher birth rate.
B)immigration.
C)emigration.
D)a reduced death rate.
Q3) If humans reduced the current growth rate to 2.1, the replacement level, today, the human population would stop growing within just 5 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an S-shaped growth curve levels it is an indication that a population may have reached its carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) A praying mantis captures and devours many pest insects. The relationship between a mantis and a grasshopper it is eating is one of
A)parasite/host.
B)pathogen/prey.
C)parasite/prey.
D)predator/prey.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Predators can drive their prey to extinction.
B)Predators can cause the abundance of their prey to rise.
C)Predators can alter the behavior of their prey.
D)Predators can restrict the distribution of their prey.
Q3) A community may begin when a new ____________________ is formed, such as when rock and soil are deposited by a retreating glacier.
Q4) ____________________ competition occurs when one organism directly keeps another organism from using a resource; for example, when two species of birds attempt to use an abandoned woodpecker cavity.
Q5) Mutualism is rare in nature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) If there are 50 kcal of energy in the tertiary consumer trophic level, how many kcal would you expect to find in the primary consumer level?
A)50
B)100
C)500
D)5,000
Q2) As the northern latitudes warm, frozen peat is thawing and decaying in the tundra, releasing _____, a greenhouse gas.
A)methane
B)propane
C)oxygen
D)nitrogen
Q3) Secondary productivity can never exceed primary productivity because A)secondary productivity is limited by the amount of energy produced by primary producers.
B)secondary productivity is less efficient than primary productivity.
C)energy loss to the surroundings in an ecosystem depends mostly on tertiary consumers.
D)nutrient cycling is much slower in secondary productivity.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) The effects of global warming have already been detected in both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a source of naturally occurring carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A)cellular respiration by living organisms
B)the combustion of plant material ignited by lightning
C)volcanic eruptions
D)all of the above
Q3) The cutting and burning of forests has led to an increase in global ____________________ levels.
Q4) Ample evidence now exists that demonstrates that human activities are strongly associated with global warming.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When biologically usable nitrogen is increased in terrestrial communities, net primary productivity usually ____________________.
Q6) The conversion of N to NH is called ____________________.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Why do animals that live in cold climates have thick fur coats?
A)Fur reduces convection and traps a layer of air heated by conduction close to the skin, keeping the animal's body warmer.
B)Thicker fur allows animals to better blend into the environment, providing protection from other animals.
C)Fur decreases the ratio of surface area to volume of the animal so it does not lose as much heat.
D)Fur prevents the formation of ice crystals next to the skin of the animal, which prevents cells from freezing and being damaged by ice.
Q2) Because the brain controls all body functions, the ____________________ system is the only system that communicates with all other body systems.
Q3) A molecule of ammonia leaving a cell would first move into
A)a capillary.
B)the interstitial fluid.
C)the blood plasma.
D)a nephron.
Q4) The lack of water, otherwise known as ____________________, can lead to heatstroke.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The nutrients in food enter our body by crossing through the epithelial cells lining the ____________________ intestine.
Q2) The gallbladder
A)stores bile.
B)secretes digestive enzymes.
C)breaks down fats.
D)absorbs fats.
Q3) The human liver produces bile, a substance that
A)aids in the absorption of vitamin K.
B)allows fats to dissolve more easily in the watery contents of the gut.
C)neutralizes the acids produced by pepsin.
D)breaks the bonds between amino acids.
Q4) The lower region of the small intestine is structured to create large amounts of surface area so that it can more efficiently
A)produce enzymes to break food down into smaller molecules.
B)grind food down into smaller molecules.
C)absorb the chemical building blocks produced by digestion.
D)eliminate waste products.
Q5) Vitamins are either water soluble or ____________________ soluble.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Red blood cells are produced in the ____________________.
Q2) If an individual has bronchitis, it may also be accurately referred to as an upper-respiratory infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Air leaving the lungs has
A)a higher concentration of both oxygen and carbon dioxide than outside air.
B)a lower concentration of oxygen and a higher concentration of carbon dioxide than outside air.
C)equal concentrations of carbon dioxide and oxygen.
D)a lower concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide than outside air.
Q4) The process of inhalation requires more energy than the process of exhalation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The higher the gas concentration in the environment relative to the gas concentration inside an organism, the more quickly the gas will passively enter the organism.
A)True
B)False
30
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) The high levels of progesterone seen after ovulation in the human female are produced by a specific region of the ovary known as the ____________________, which disappears if pregnancy does not occur.
Q2) Which of the following acts to lower blood glucose levels?
A)glucagon
B)norepinephrine
C)insulin
D)parathyroid hormone
Q3) The parathyroid gland of a person with hyperparathyroidism produces very high levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). You would expect a person with this condition to have
A)high levels of calcium in the blood.
B)low levels of glucose in the blood.
C)strong bones that resist fractures.
D)low levels of calcitonin in the blood.
Q4) In humans, sex hormones only begin to work after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)is used to ease or reduce the symptoms of
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) Researchers have suggested a fifth taste in humans known as umami and attribute the taste to the compound glutamate. Which of the following would support the belief that umami is a real "taste"?
A)Identifying a chemoreceptor in the nasal cavity that glutamate can bind to.
B)The isolation of a sensory neuron that creates nerve impulses in response to pressure from glutamate.
C)Finding chemoreceptors in a taste bud that create nerve impulses in response to an interaction with glutamate.
D)Identification of glands in the oral cavity that release saliva in response to the presence of glutamate.
Q2) Everyone who abuses drugs from an early age will become an addict.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The use of ear plugs in areas of loud sounds has been shown not to reduce the risk of hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nodes of Ranvier are found only in ____________________ neurons.
Q5) The brain and spinal cord make up the ____________________ nervous system.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Ostriches are huge nonflying birds that can run at speeds of up to 40 miles per hour over long distances and maintain speeds of 30 miles per hour over longer distances. The legs of ostriches probably contain mostly ____________________ muscle fibers.
Q2) An increase in muscle strength can result from either an increase in muscle fiber number or an increase in the thickness of existing muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the skeleton of a house cat, compact bone forms the hard, white outer region, and ____________________ bone lies inside the compact bone.
Q4) Cardiac muscles branch to interconnect with other cardiac cells to create a coordinated heartbeat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Red meat contains more of the oxygen-carrying pigment ____________________ as compared with white meat.
Q6) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
Q7) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) The ____________________ is a coordinated combination of specialized cells and molecules that give us the ability to resist specific pathogens.
Q2) Which of the following statements about fighting invasions of disease-causing agents in humans is false?
A)The organism must be able to distinguish between itself and foreign invaders.
B)Antibodies are produced.
C)Antibodies result in the production of antigens.
D)Cells engulf some of the invaders.
Q3) A disease-causing agent is called a(n)____________________.
Q4) ____________________ cells remain in our body after the initial exposure to a disease organism and help the immune system recognize that particular organism during a second exposure.
Q5) A lymphocyte is activated when unique ____________________-binding proteins on its surface recognize specific molecules found on the surface of a specific pathogen.
Q6) Infected cells release interferon in order to protect other cells from infection.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Some organisms switch from male to female or vice versa. The most likely rationale for the change is the
A)loss of reproductive ability.
B)loss of chromosomes from one year to the next.
C)availability of environmental resources.
D)male/female status of nearby organisms.
Q2) Which of the following behaviors is not specialized to help an animal find a mate?
A)bees carrying pollen between flowers
B)the flashing lights of fireflies
C)fragrant chemicals released by female moths
D)the chirping sound of a male cricket
Q3) Animal sperm cells tend to be larger than animal egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following does not affect development in animals?
A)morphogens
B)hemoglobin
C)genes
D)hormones
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Genetic influences play a larger role in
A)fixed behaviors such as imprinting.
B)learned behaviors such as a dog fetching a stick.
C)fixed behaviors such as nest cleaning in honeybees.
D)learned behaviors such as cats covering their excretions.
Q2) In the waggle dance of the honeybee the angle of the "waggle" relative to up and down indicates the
A)direction to the food source.
B)richness of the food source.
C)type of food at the source.
D)distance to the food source.
Q3) Animals exhibit more behaviors than the organisms in other kingdoms because they have a more complex ____________________ system.
Q4) Genetics play a role in learned behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Herring gull chicks beg for food when they see a red dot, whether it is on their parent's beak or on an odd-shaped model. This begging is an example of a(n)____________________ behavior.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Dermal tissues typically
A)regulate what enters and leaves the plant.
B)participate in wound healing.
C)transport food and water.
D)carry out photosynthesis.
Q2) The basic plant body consists of a root system and a ____________________ system.
Q3) The reason that the cell walls of tracheids are so thick is to prevent them from collapsing under the tension created by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A plant's root cap would be found
A)where the soil meets the air.
B)between the active growing area of the root and the soil.
C)within and just behind the active growing area of the root.
D)at the base of each root hair, near the main root.
Q5) Plants have two types of vascular tissue: xylem, which transports ____________________, and phloem, which transports
Page 37
Q6) ____________________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Spores undergo mitosis to form the haploid ____________________, one of the two stages in the life cycle of plants.
Q2) After plant gametes fuse, they undergo mitosis to produce the A)spore.
B)sporophyte.
C)gametophyte.
D)flower.
Q3) Because its cells are diploid, the ovule is considered to be a part of the A)gametophyte.
B)carpal.
C)embryo sac.
D)sporophyte.
Q4) Growth of the cells of the lateral meristem is responsible for increasing the A)number of lateral roots.
B)number of formant buds.
C)thickness of the stem.
D)length of the stem.
Q5) Most flowering plants rely on animals rather than wind to transport pollen.
A)True
B)False
38
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