Contemporary Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Contemporary Biology explores the fundamental concepts and advancements shaping modern biological science. This course covers key topics such as genetics, cell biology, evolution, ecology, and biotechnology, with an emphasis on how new discoveries impact society and everyday life. Students will develop scientific literacy by analyzing current research, understanding ethical issues, and discussing real-world applications of biology. By connecting foundational principles with emerging trends, the course provides a broad and relevant overview of biology in the 21st century.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of The Living World 4th Edition by George B Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) The proper order for the scientific process is
A) predictions-experiment-observation-hypothesis.
B) experiment-observation-predictions-hypothesis.
C) hypothesis-observation-experiment-predictions.
D) observation-hypothesis-predictions-experiment.
Answer: D
Q2) The most inclusive group in taxonomy is a A) population.
B) domain.
C) kingdom.
D) species.
Answer: B
Q3) The theory that relates to the diversity of life is the theory of ___________________.
Answer: evolution
Q4) Many people think the term "theory" means someone's idea about something.Explain the scientific use of the term "theory",especially as it relates to the biological concept of evolution.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) The second shell in an atom contains ________ orbitals and holds up to ________ electrons.
A) 4;4
B) 3;2
C) 4;8
D) 3;8
E) 8;24
Answer: C
Q2) We use the __________ scale to measure concentrations of hydrogen ions in a solution.
Answer: pH
Q3) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the
Answer: atomic number
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) Which polymer serves as the information storage molecule for cells?
A) Carbohydrate
B) Nucleic acid
C) Protein
D) Lipids
Answer: B
Q2) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) There are no bonds connecting the chains.
Answer: C
Q3) Many mammals supply energy to their young in the form of ___________.
Answer: lactose
Q4) Lipids are insoluble in water because they are nonpolar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) A semi-fluid matrix called ____________ fills the inside of a cell.
Q2) The _________________ of a eukaryotic cell is the organelle that houses the genetic material known as DNA.
Q3) Cells engulfing large particles is called ___________________.
Q4) Which of the following is not found in animal cells?
A) Nucleus
B) Lysosomes
C) Golgi complex
D) Central vacuole
E) Chromosomes
Q5) In addition to a plasma membrane,plant cells have ______________ which protect and support the plant cell.
Q6) What is the function of the nucleolus?
A) The site of protein synthesis.
B) The site of ribosome subunit assembly.
C) Packages proteins for export form the cell.
D) Site of photosynthesis.
E) Isolate particular chemical activities from the rest of the cell.
Q7) Why are most cells so tiny?
Q8) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) Which of the following activities does NOT require cellular energy?
A) Swimming movements of some types of cells
B) Driving endergonic reactions
C) Movement of organelles within cells
D) Movement of water across the cell membrane
Q2) In reference to enzyme activities,repressors _____ the active site,while activators ________ it.
A) restore,disrupt
B) promote,disrupt
C) disrupt,restore
D) disrupt,bind to E) stimulate,repress
Q3) The First Law of Thermodynamics states
A) that energy can be changed from one form to another,but cannot be created or destroyed.
B) that energy is constantly being created by entropy events.
C) that energy can be used and then destroyed because of entropy's actions on it.
D) that energy can be destroyed while it is producing entropy.
Q4) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Q1) Three turns of the Calvin cycle produces
A) glucose.
B) oxygen.
C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
D) rubisco.
E) 3-phosphoglyerate.
Q2) ____________ catalyzes the first step in the Calvin cycle and is also the most abundant enzyme on Earth.
Q3) In the light-dependent reactions in plants,electrons flow from photosystem ___________ to photosystem ___________.
Q4) In chemiosmosis,a(n)_________ gradient drives the production of ATP using ATP synthase channels.
A) pigment
B) chlorophyll
C) proton
D) electron
E) NADPH
Q5) Stoma open at night in plants that use _______ photosynthesis.
Q6) What is photorespiration and under what conditions does it occur?
Q7) Explain the role that water plays in the light-dependent reactions.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) Glycolysis takes place in the _____________ and the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain take place in the ___________.
A) mitochondrial matrix;inner mitochondrial membrane
B) cytoplasm;endoplasmic reticulum
C) intermembrane space of the mitochondria;mitochondrial matrix
D) cytoplasm;mitochondria
E) mitochondria;cytoplasm
Q2) Which stage in cellular respiration evolved first?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Electron transport chain
D) Fermentation
Q3) The Krebs cycle turns _______ times per glucose.
Q4) Which of the following is(are)products of the Krebs cycle?
A) CO<sub>2</sub> and ATP
B) CO<sub>2</sub>,ATP,FADH<sub>2</sub>
C) ATP and NADH
D) CO<sub>2</sub>,ATP,NADH,FADH<sub>2</sub>
E) ATP,NADH,FADH<sub>2</sub>
Q5) Common end products of fermentation include __________ and ______.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Q1) You look in the microscope and see sister chromatids moving to opposite sides of the cell.You conclude the cell is in
A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) prophase.
D) telophase.
E) interphase.
Q2) Mitosis results in the production of two ____________ daughter cells,cells that have two of each type of chromosome.
Q3) All of the following are correct about cancer except A) malignant tumors are invasive.
B) malignant tumors can produce metastases.
C) cancer cells can sometimes spread into the bloodstream.
D) an oncogene is a cancer cell.
E) cancers are the direct result of mutations in growth-regulating genes.
Q4) The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is A) 76.
B) 24.
C) 23.
D) 46.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) The arrangement of the chromosomes in metaphase I does not affect which homologues end up in which gametes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which scientist is credited with proposing in 1887 that an egg and a sperm fuse to form a zygote?
A) Watson
B) Crick
C) Fleming
D) Muller
E) van Beneden
Q3) How many possible gametes are there if a cell has 4 chromosome pairs?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) Impossible to determine.
Q4) What is the difference between a gamete and a zygote and what are the processes that give rise to them?
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of crossing over?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) When homologous chromosomes or chromatids fail to separate properly in meiosis,this is called _________________.
Q2) Mendel tested for heterozygotes by using a A) dihybrid cross.
B) testcross.
C) monohybrid cross.
D) true-breeding cross.
Q3) A central role for chromosomes in heredity was first suggested by A) Karl Correns.
B) Gregor Mendel.
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan.
D) Walter Sutton.
Q4) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?
Q5) Gregor Mendel's work was different from that of other researchers working on inheritance in his day because he alone
A) was a religious man.
B) worked with pea plants.
C) knew how to grow plants.
D) actually counted the numbers and types of offspring.
Q6) Mendel's "factors" for inheritance are now known to be ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) When Frederick Griffith infected mice with S.pneumoniae that lacked a capsule,the mice
A) remained healthy.
B) died of blood poisoning.
C) became ill but lived.
D) reproduced quicker.
Q2) The place where the parent DNA molecule becomes unzipped for replication is called the ___________________.
Q3) The building blocks of DNA are called
A) proteins.
B) bases.
C) nucleotides.
D) acids.
Q4) Which choice describes how the DNA molecule replicates?
A) Semiconservative
B) Dispersive
C) Conservative
D) Either dispersive or semiconservative depending on the pH
E) Either dispersive or conservative depending on the organism.
Q5) A change in the genetic message is called a ____________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Q1) Which is incorrect about the lac operon?
A) A repressor binds to the operator.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) CAP blocks RNA polymerase.
D) The operon is transcribed if RNA polymerase can bind.
E) It is an example of prokaryotic transcriptional control.
Q2) The process of bringing the appropriate amino acid into position along the mRNA and building a polypeptide is A) translation.
B) transcription.
C) transduction.
D) promotion.
Q3) The nucleotide sequences on DNA that actually have information encoding a sequence of amino acids are A) introns.
B) exons.
C) proteins.
D) enhancers.
Q4) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Q5) Explain why eukaryotic mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Q1) In gene transfer procedures,why is it necessary to use processed mRNA molecules to make cDNA to transfer to another organism?
Q2) Which is correct about cDNA?
A) It represents the gene without the introns.
B) Reverse transcriptase is used on the primary transcript.
C) Bacteria possess reverse transcriptase.
D) It is normally found in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
Q3) A clear distinction between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning is that A) the embryo is implanted into a surrogate mother in therapeutic cloning.
B) stem cells are harvested from the early embryo in therapeutic cloning.
C) therapeutic cloning involves the production of an individual that is identical to that of the donor cell.
D) reproductive cloning involves the use of other species' cells for humans,whereas therapeutic cloning does not.
Q4) An adult stem cell differs from an embryonic stem cell in that it is not
A) capable of further cell divisions.
B) totipotent.
C) able to accept methyl groups.
D) able to produce a blastocyst.
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) Selection that favors one extreme of the array of phenotypes is called _____________ selection.
Q2) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.
Q3) In 1859,naturalist ______________ suggested an explanation for why evolution occurs.
A) Robert McKormick
B) Charles Darwin
C) Charles Lyell
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Peter Grant
Q4) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is based on a number of assumptions.Which of the following is NOT one of those?
A) Mating occurs nonrandomly,and mates exert preferences.
B) The size of the population is large.
C) There is no migration.
D) There are no mutations.
Q5) ______________ are created when the bodies of dead organisms are buried in the sediments or sand and mineralize over time.
Q6) What does the fossil record tell us?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Exploring Biological Diversity
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Q1) A multi-level system of grouping allows scientists to ___________ organisms.
A) discover
B) identify
C) classify
D) dissect
Q2) Mitochondria are present in organisms in the following kindoms except A) plantae.
B) fungi.
C) protista.
D) archaea.
E) animalia.
Q3) _______________ is the construction of phylogeny based on descent.
A) Logistics
B) Statistics
C) Clastistics
D) Systematics
Q4) A cladistic analysis will group birds,crocodiles,and dinosaurs together among the reptiles because they share many ____________ characters.
Q5) Biologists currently recognize ______ different kingdoms.
Q6) What are some advantages to using cladistics rather than traditional taxonomy?
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Chapter 16: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) How are fungi used by humans?
Q2) A ___________ is a symbiotic association between fungi and either green algae or cyanobacteria.
Q3) In a mycorrhiza,the filamentous fungi increase the plant's uptake of A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) mineral nutrients.
D) glucose.
E) carbon.
Q4) The fungal phyla are distinguished primarily by A) their color.
B) their size.
C) their mode of sexual reproduction.
D) whether they make spores or not.
E) their habitat.
Q5) The mutualistic associations between plant roots and fungi are called _______. A) molds
B) lichens
C) mycorrhizae
D) truffles
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) _________ surround the seed(s)in flowering plants,aiding in dispersal.
Q2) Which group has the tallest living specimens today?
A) Vascular plants
B) Mosses
C) Hornworts
D) Liverworts
Q3) List two of several of the adaptations plants evolved to enhance their survival on land.
Q4) In a seed plant,the pollen grains are actually tiny
A) female gametophytes.
B) seeds.
C) male gametophytes.
D) eggs.
Q5) All of the following are correct about dicots except
A) they are likely the first angiosperms.
B) they have netlike (reticulate)leaves.
C) they have flower parts in fours and fives.
D) grasses are an example.
E) oak trees are an example.
Q6) What features serve to distinguish vascular plants from nonvascular plants?
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) The type of cleavage seen in deuterostomes is called _____________ cleavage.
Q2) About 300 million years ago,amphibians gave rise to a more successful group of land dwellers,the ______________.
Q3) The function of the notochord is taken over by the ____________ in vertebrates.
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) vertebral column
D) ribs
Q4) Which of these is not a characteristic of fishes?
A) Gills
B) Nutritional deficiencies
C) Amniotic egg
D) Single-loop blood circulation
Q5) Bony fishes possess an operculum to
A) regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood.
B) cleanse the blood from toxins.
C) detect changes in water pressure.
D) pump water over the gills.
E) regulate their buoyancy.
Q6) Bodies which have a right half and a left half show ________________ symmetry.
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Chapter 19: Populations and Communities
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Q1) In what manner does predation reduce competition?
Q2) What type of survivorship curve is typical of many oyster species?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Choose the best definition of the term "ecology."
A) Ecology is the study of how animals behave and how those behaviors evolved.
B) Ecology is the study of how biological and non-biological components cycle through ecosystems.
C) Ecology is the study of the diversity of life.
D) Ecology is the study of interactions of organisms with each other and with their habitat.
Q4) Which of the following are not types of adjustments made by organisms to cope with environmental challenges?
A) morphological adaptations
B) physiological adaptations
C) behavioral adaptations
D) K-selected adaptations
Q5) ______________ occurs when one organism comes to resemble another organism.
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Chapter 20: Ecosystems
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Q1) Herbivores are at what trophic level within an ecosystem?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Q2) Plants are the ____________ in the food chain in an ecosystem.
Q3) Which of the following is a decomposer?
A) Worms
B) Vulture
C) Fungi
D) Crabs
Q4) When you eat fried chicken,you are the
A) decomposer.
B) producer.
C) primary consumer.
D) secondary consumer.
E) tertiary consumer.
Q5) How have humans intruded into the global water cycle?
Q6) Why would few reptiles be found in the tundra?
Q7) The flow of energy is one way,but nutrients in ecosystems _____________.
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Chapter 21: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) Behavior can be defined as the way an animal responds to a ________ in its environment.
Q2) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
Q3) The field of _____ focuses on the study of animal behavior in natural conditions.
Q4) Having information and responding in a manner that suggests thinking is an example of animal behavior called A) cognitive behavior.
B) territoriality.
C) maternal behavior.
D) reciprocity.
Q5) This behavioral ecologist pioneered study of seagull nesting behavior.
A) Lorenz
B) Timbergen
C) Wilson
D) Von Frisch
Q6) Infants born blind will not smile or frown because they have never seen anyone exhibit these expressions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: How Human Influence the Living World
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Q1) Humans have been able to expand the _____________ of environments in which they live.
Q2) Which population has benefited from captive propagation efforts?
A) Peregrine falcon
B) Black rhino
C) Flying foxes
D) Brown pelicans
Q3) The carbon dioxide released by burning ethanol was recently captured by plants during the process of
A) photorespiration.
B) cellular respiration.
C) fermentation.
D) photosynthesis.
Q4) Los Angeles is a brown air city because of the formation of _________.
Q5) How might the aesthetic value of biodiversity relate to economic value?
Q6) Acid rain can lead to the destruction of A) trees.
B) fish.
C) aquatic invertebrates
D) All of these choices are correct.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) _________________________ are chemicals secreted into the space between two nerve cells to transmit a message.
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Hormones
C) Synapses
D) Glia
Q2) Each heart muscle cell is coupled to its neighbors electrically by tiny holes called A) pores.
B) gap junctions.
C) tight junctions.
D) striations.
E) axons.
Q3) Another name for red blood cells is ____________________.
Q4) Walking and lifting objects all require this type of muscle.
A) Smooth
B) Cardiac
C) Skeletal
Q5) An __________________ is composed of several different tissues grouped together into a larger structural and functional unit.
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Chapter 24: Circulation
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Q1) All vertebrates have a closed circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mollusks and arthropods have closed circulatory systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fibrinogen's main function is as an osmotic counterforce.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Exchange of nutrients and gases between tissue cells and the blood takes place through the walls of
A) veins.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
Q5) _________________ are the blood cells that carry oxygen throughout the body.
A) Erythrocytes
B) Leukocytes
C) Thrombocytes
D) Platelets
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Chapter 25: Respiration
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Q1) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to the same sites on the hemoglobin molecule at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about gills?
A) In fish,the gills are protected by an operculum.
B) Fish pump water over the gills.
C) In echinoderms,the gill is a thin sheet of tissue that waves through the water.
D) Terrestrial arthropods also have gills.
Q3) Which of the following is incorrect concerning hemoglobin?
A) Hemoglobin is made of amino acids.
B) Hemoglobin is made inside red blood cells.
C) Hemoglobin never leaves red blood cells.
D) Hemoglobin can bind to carbon dioxide.
E) Hemoglobin is composed of 3 protein chain subunits.
Q4) Explain the role of both carbonic anhydrase and chloride shift in keeping the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood plasma low.
Q5) Red blood cells are packed with iron-containing ____________ molecules that can carry oxygen.
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Chapter 26: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) The first site of protein digestion in the digestive system is A) in the small intestines. B) in the stomach. C) the mouth.
D) the esophagus.
Q2) Microvilli are present to increase the area available for absorption in the A) small intestine. B) large intestine. C) stomach.
D) gallbladder.
Q3) An example of a trace element in the diet is A) cobalt.
B) carbohydrates. C) protein.
D) calcium.
Q4) Humans cannot synthesize certain amino acids and must obtain them in the diet. A)True B)False
Q5) The digestive tube leading from the mouth to the stomach is the ________________.
28
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Chapter 27: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) The ureter carries urine to the outside of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mammals and birds can produce urine that is ____________,such that wastes are excreted in a small volume of water.
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the normal glomerular filtrate?
A) Blood cells
B) Glucose
C) Amino acids
D) Ions
E) Water
Q4) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called
Q5) Which simple excretory structure is present in the flatworm?
A) Malpighian tubules
B) Nephridia
C) Nephron
D) Protonephridia
Page 29
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Chapter 28: How the Body Defends Itself
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Q1) The self-identifying proteins on self body cells are called A) perforins.
B) MHC proteins.
C) plasma proteins.
D) interleukin-1.
E) antibodies.
Q2) Which are responsible for the humoral immune response?
A) Neutrophils
B) Macrophages
C) T cells
D) B cells
E) Helper cells
Q3) ________________ is the introduction into your body of a dead or disabled pathogen,or proteins from the pathogen,to trigger an immune response that protects you against a future infection by the pathogen.
Q4) How is it that vertebrates are able to produce antibodies to virtually every foreign antigen with which they come in contact?
Q5) During an infection,B cells divide to form ___________________ cells that will be ready for the next time the B cells encounter the same microbe.
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Chapter 29: The Nervous System
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Q1) The junction between the axon of one neuron and the membrane of a second neuron is called a ____________.
Q2) Instead of having synapses between two nerves cells,why not just "wire" the two cells together somehow?
Q3) Balance is associated with the movements of particles called __________ in the inner ear.
Q4) List the types of information animals can sense about their internal environments.
Q5) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.
A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye
B) optic nerve
C) fovea
D) parallax
Q6) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
Q7) The hippocampus and amygdala,along with parts of the hypothalamus,make up an area of the brain called the _________________.
Q8) A local reversal of charge moving along a nerve axon is called a(n)____________.
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Q9) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adrenal ___________ releases adrenaline and norepinephrine,while the adrenal ____________ releases cortisol and aldosterone.
Q2) A hormone travels from the gland that releases it to the target cell via __________.
A) the bloodstream.
B) nerve axons.
C) the digestive tract.
D) the respiratory tract.
Q3) A second messenger
A) is cyclic AMP.
B) serves to amplify the signal.
C) activates protein kinases.
D) All of these are correct.
Q4) ____________ regulates the kidney's retention of water.Its secretion is suppressed by alcohol.
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Thyroxin
D) Vasopressin (ADH)
Q5) Peptide hormones employ ______________ that amplify the response of the cell.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sertoli cells in the testes secrete testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following encloses the embryo?
A) Chorion
B) Placenta
C) Blastocoel
D) Amnion
Q3) Which of the following is a method that ends an early pregnancy by causing the endometrium to slough off?
A) RU486
B) Condoms
C) Birth control pills
D) Diaphragm
E) Spermicidal foams or jellies
Q4) At birth,a human female's gametes are fully mature egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During which period of prenatal development is it especially critical not to consume alcohol and why?
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Chapter 32: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of water up through a plant is a passive process that requires no energy expenditure by the plant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The aboveground part of a vascular plant is called the shoot and the belowground part is called the
A) stem.
B) node.
C) root.
D) pith.
Q3) The two principal types of conducting cells in the xylem are _________ and
A) tracheids;vessel elements
B) sieve tubes;companion cells
C) sieve cells;sieve tube members
D) guard cells;tracheids
E) protoderm cells;pericycle cells
Q4) The vascular bundles in the stem of a dicot plant are arranged in a ring.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 33: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Early in the development of an angiosperm embryo,the embryo becomes dormant.This dormancy occurs
A) after fertilization.
B) once the root and shoot have penetrated the seed coat.
C) after the apical meristems and the cotyledons are differentiated.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) The response of plants to touch is known as
A) phototropism.
B) gravitropism.
C) thigmotropism.
D) photoperiodism.
Q3) Flowering plants respond to day and night length in part through the pigment ________________,which exist in two interconvertible forms.
Q4) Who wrote the book "The Power of Movement in Plants"?
A) Linus Pauling
B) Louis Pasteur
C) Charles Darwin
D) Francis Crick
E) Fritts Went
Q5) The first leaves that emerge from a seed are the _________________.
Page 36
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