Consumer Behavior
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Consumer Behavior explores the psychological, social, and cultural factors that influence how individuals and groups select, use, and dispose of products, services, and ideas. The course examines decision-making processes, the impact of perception, motivation, learning, attitude formation, and personality on consumer choices, as well as the roles of family, social class, and culture. Students will gain practical insights into consumer research methods and learn how marketers apply behavioral theories to develop effective marketing strategies, segment target markets, and build customer loyalty.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Marketing Research 4th
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Chapter 1: Marketing Research for Managerial Decision Making
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Q1) If a respondent does not want a researcher to find out the truth, it is ethical for the respondent to lie on a survey.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What are the key skills that recruiters look for in a candidate when they are hiring for marketing researcher positions?
Answer: The top five skills executives hope to find in candidates for marketing research positions are (1) the ability to understand and interpret secondary data, (2) presentation skills, (3) foreign-language competency, (4) negotiation skills, and (5) information technology proficiency.
Q3) As marketing research firms expand their geographic scope, many fundamental skill requirements will change and negotiation skills will be replaced by statistical skills.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Marketing Research Process and Proposals
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Q1) Which of the following helps generate insights that will help define the problem situation confronting a researcher?
A) Exploratory research
B) Descriptive research
C) Causal research
D) Demographic research
E) Narrative research
Answer: A
Q2) In the information research process, examining measurement issues and scales involves _____.
A) examining quantitative data to answer a research question and measure the sampling errors
B) determining if the population represented by the secondary data is relevant to the current research problem
C) identifying the concepts to study and measuring the variables related to a research problem
D) specifying the research objectives and confirming the information value
E) selecting the correct type, sequence, and format of questions
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Secondary Data, Literature Reviews, and
Hypotheses
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Q1) A _____ is an empirically testable though yet unproven statement developed in order to explain phenomena.
A) construct
B) law
C) sample statistic
D) fact
E) hypothesis
Answer: E
Q2) The logical starting point in searching for secondary data is to look for data in government documents and websites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Unlike popular sources of secondary data, scholarly sources can be tracked using web-based bookmarking.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Exploratory and Observational Research
Designs and Data Collection Approaches
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Q1) What are some of the advantages of conducting online (instead of in-person, face-to-face) focus groups?
Q2) The process of selecting sample members so that groups can be compared is known as _____.
A) stratified purposive sampling
B) simple random sampling
C) convenience sampling
D) accidental sampling
E) opportunity sampling
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of qualitative research?
A) It allows researchers to make accurate predictions about relationships between market factors and behaviors.
B) It is considered more reliable than quantitative research.
C) It provides preliminary insights useful in developing ideas about how variables are related.
D) It eliminates the need for well-trained investigators and interviewers.
E) It allows for generalizability of research findings unlike quantitative research.
Q4) Discuss the unique characteristics of observation methods.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Descriptive and Causal Research Designs
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of person-administered survey methods?
A) They eliminate the possibility of the interviewer-respondent interaction error.
B) They ensure that there are no recording errors.
C) Overall cost of data collection using an interviewer is lower than other data collection methods.
D) Interviewers can help ensure respondents are screened to represent the target population.
E) In-home and in-office interviews are less time consuming.
Q2) Which of the following is True about sampling errors?
A) They are caused by the size of the sample.
B) They can be reduced by decreasing the sample volume.
C) They cannot be measured statistically.
D) They cannot be measured directly.
E) They occur when the findings based on the sample and the True values for a population overlap.
Q3) In-home interviewing may be completed through door-to-door canvassing of geographic areas.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Sampling: Theory and Methods
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Q1) The difference between simple random sampling and systematic random sampling is that systematic random sampling:
A) requires a special code to be assigned to the sampling units prior to drawing a sample.
B) requires that a defined target population be ordered in some way.
C) is a nonprobability sampling procedure.
D) is a sampling procedure in which every sampling unit has a known and equal chance of being selected.
E) is based on intuitive judgment or researcher knowledge.
Q2) In a systematic sampling study, if the sampling frame has 2,000 names and the desired sample size is 50, the skip interval should be:
A) 25.
B) 0.03.
C) 50.
D) 40.
E) 15.
Q3) Distinguish between sampling error and nonsampling error.
Q4) List the steps to be followed in developing a sampling plan.
Q5) List the advantages and disadvantages of simple random sampling.
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Chapter 7: Measurement and Scaling
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Q1) Only ordinal data can be obtained using rank-order scales.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is True of measurement?
A) As part of the measurement process, researchers assign labels to phenomena they measure but do not assign numbers to them.
B) As part of the measurement process, researchers assign numbers to phenomena they measure but do not label them.
C) The goal of the construct development process is to precisely measure each construct.
D) It is the process of developing methods to systematically characterize or quantify information about persons, events, ideas, or objects of interest.
E) The process of measurement begins with scale measurement followed by construct development.
Q3) Internal consistency is the degree to which the individual questions of a construct are correlated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Designing the Questionnaire
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Q1) With online surveys, response order bias is not a problem because:
A) the sequence of presentation of questions can be randomized.
B) they are likely to incorporate skip questions.
C) they are not introduced by cover letters.
D) there is no quota associated with them.
E) the introductory section is likely to contain screeners.
Q2) Which of the following is True of a pretest?
A) The pretest form serves as a blueprint for training people on how to execute the interviewing process in a standardized fashion.
B) The final version of a questionnaire is evaluated using a pretest.
C) The number of respondents for a pretest is most often between 500 and 700 individuals.
D) A pretest is prepared when the order of the questions, or of the closed-end responses to a particular question, influences the answer given.
E) For pretests, the survey questionnaire is given to a large group of respondents.
Q3) What are the two functions performed by a transition phrase in a survey?
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of unstructured questions as compared to structured questions.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Qualitative Data Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following is generally included in the last section of the research report?
A) Literature review
B) Data displays
C) Summary of the findings
D) Recommendations
E) Research questions
Q2) Discuss the process of triangulation.
Q3) _____ is the process through which researchers build theory that is grounded, or based on the data collected.
A) Member checking
B) Peer reviewing
C) Verification
D) Triangulation
E) Integration
Q4) Member checking and peer review are reported in the methodological section of research reports.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Is qualitative analysis inductive? Explain.
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Chapter 10: Preparing Data for Quantitative Analysis
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Q1) Codes must be assigned to facilitate quantitative data analysis only after responses are reviewed and themes and common words and patterns are identified.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cross-tabulation is most often used with nominal or ordinal scaled data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first step in error detection is to:
A) reject an error value when it is very large or very small for a particular scaled item on the questionnaire.
B) determine whether the software used for data entry performs "error edit routines" that identify the wrong type of data.
C) categorize the number of errors in two or more questions, thus showing the relationship between those two variables.
D) determine the amount of nonresponse to individual questions.
E) identify the number of respondents who did not answer various questions on the questionnaire.
Q4) What are the several ways of dealing with missing data?
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Chapter 11: Basic Data Analysis for Quantitative Research
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Q1) What is perceptual mapping?
Q2) Which of the following is True of the median?
A) It cannot be determined for data that are skewed to either the right or left.
B) It is the distance between the smallest and largest values in a set of responses.
C) It is the value that appears in a distribution most often.
D) If the number of data observations is even, the median is generally considered to be the average of the first and last values.
E) It is especially useful as a measure of central tendency for ordinal data.
Q3) A researcher is told that the average age of respondents in a survey is 49 years. She is interested in finding out if most respondents are close to 49 years old. The measure that would most accurately answer this question is:
A) mean.
B) median.
C) mode.
D) range.
E) standard deviation.
Q4) Which test would you use to determine if the frequencies reported in cross-tabulations are statistically different?
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Chapter 12: Examining Relationships in Quantitative Research
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Q1) The pattern of covariation around the regression line which is not constant around the regression line and varies in some way when the values change from small to medium and large is known as _____.
A) multiple regression
B) homoskedasticity
C) heteroskedasticity
D) normal distribution
E) constant association
Q2) _____ is a statistical technique that uses information about the relationship between an independent or predictor variable and a dependent variable to make predictions.
A) Non-parametric hypothesis coefficient
B) Covariation
C) Beta coefficient analysis
D) Bivariate regression analysis
E) Multiple regression analysis
Q3) Discuss the concept of multicollinearity.
Q4) Discuss multiple regression analysis.
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Q5) What are the several assumptions made while calculating the Pearson correlation coefficient?
Chapter 13: Communicating Marketing Research Findings
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Q1) A report or presentation of marketing research is often the only part of a marketing research project that will be seen by those commissioning the report.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the organization format common to all marketing research reports.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the limitations of a research project is True?
A) Certain research studies are flawless and have no limitations.
B) Treatment of limitations normally excludes a discussion of results.
C) Treatment of limitations normally excludes a discussion of accuracy.
D) The researcher should make the client aware of the study's limitations.
E) Researchers should refrain from openly addressing any limitations in a project.
Q4) Clients are seldom knowledgeable about sampling methods and statistics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the objectives of a professional marketing research report?
Q6) What are the issues addressed in the methods-and-procedures section of a marketing research report?
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