Conceptual Physics Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Conceptual Physics provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of physics with an emphasis on conceptual understanding rather than extensive mathematical analysis. Topics include motion, forces, energy, waves, electricity, magnetism, and the structure of matter, approached through real-world examples and hands-on learning. This course aims to build scientific literacy and critical thinking skills, enabling students to appreciate the relevance of physics in everyday life and to form a solid foundation for further study in science.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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29 Chapters
3515 Verified Questions
3515 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) You're lying on the sand on a breezy day when a pesky fly wishes to join you. The breeze is blowing at a steady 2 m/s. In order for the fly to land on you it should hover over you while flying
A)against the breeze at 2 m/s.
B)with the breeze at 2 m/s.
C)faster than 2 m/s.
D)about 4 m/s relative to the breeze.
Answer: A
Q2) Whenever the net force on an object is zero, its acceleration
A)may be zero.
B)is zero.
C)and velocity are the same.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Galileo's demonstration at the Leaning Tower of Pisa
A)confirmed Aristotle's teachings.
B)refuted Aristotle's teachings.
C)failed in their purpose.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arnold Strongman and Suzie Small have a tug-of-war on a polished floor. Arnold wears socks and Suzie wears gym shoes. The likely winner is A)Arnold.
B)Suzie.
C)neither, a tied score
D)no basis for predicting
Answer: B
Q2) How many forces act on an upwardly tossed coin when it gets to the top of its path?
A)one; the force due to gravity
B)two; gravity and the force in the coin itself
C)three; gravity, the coin's internal force, and a turnaround force
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Earth pulls on the Moon. Similarly the Moon pulls on Earth, evidence that A)Earth and Moon pull on each other.
B)Earth's and Moon's pulls comprise an action-reaction pair.
C)both
D)none of the above
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider driving into a massive concrete wall with no "give," versus having a head-on collision at the same speed with an identical car moving toward you at the same speed. It would be more damaging to hit the A)car.
B)wall.
C)the same
Answer: C
Q2) A jack system will increase the potential energy of a heavy load by no more than 1000 J with a work input of 2000 J. The efficiency of the jack system is at most A)10%.
B)20%.
C)50%.
D)80%.
E)not enough information
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Newton, the closer gravitationally interacting objects are to each other, the
A)less the gravitational force between them.
B)more the gravitational force between them.
C)constancy of the force between them.
Q2) A projectile is fired horizontally. With no air resistance it maintains its horizontal component of velocity because
A)no forces act on it.
B)no horizontal forces act on it.
C)of no initial vertical component of velocity.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were closer to Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be
A)less than 28 days.
B)more than 28 days.
C)unchanged at 28 days.
Q4) How is stepping off a curb similar to taking a ride aboard the space shuttle?
Q5) Why do satellites remain in orbit while the force of gravity pulls downward on them?
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Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider two tubes filled with water at the same height, one with fresh water and the other tube with salt water. The pressure is greater at the bottom of the tube with A)fresh water.
B)salt water.
C)both the same
D)depends on whether the tubes have the same cross-sectional area.
Q2) The density of a submarine cruising beneath the ocean surface has the same density as A)a crab.
B)iron.
C)a floating submarine.
D)water.
E)none of the above
Q3) When gas in a container is squeezed to half its volume, its density A)halves.
B)doubles.
C)quadruples.
D)remains the same.
Q4) Why is an umbrella in danger of being turned inside out on a windy day?
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motion of particles that contribute to temperature are A)translational.
B)rotational.
C)circular.
D)orbital.
Q2) If the temperature of a sample of 0°C water slightly increases, the sample of water
A)expands.
B)contracts.
C)neither
Q3) The thermal energy in a substance is related mostly to the A)average translational kinetic energy of particles.
B)total kinetic energy of particles.
C)average potential energy of particles.
D)movement of energy from particle to particle.
E)none of the above
Q4) If a room is cold it is due to a A)presence of cold air.
B)lack of adequate thermal energy.
C)low air pressure.
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of convection occurs in A)solids.
B)liquids.
C)gases.
D)fluids.
E)none of the above
Q2) When salt is introduced to water, the temperature at which freezing occurs is A)quite unaffected.
B)lowered.
C)increased.
D)dependent on the shape of salt and ice crystals.
Q3) Why is a steam burn more damaging than a burn by boiling water of the same temperature?
Q4) Increased air pressure on the surface of hot water tends to A)prevent boiling.
B)promote boiling.
C)neither
Q5) From a molecular point of view, explain why evaporation is a cooling process. What cools?
Q6) Why does a hot dog pant?
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A negatively-charged balloon touching a wooden wall
A)pulls positive charge on the wall surface toward it.
B)pushes negative charge in the wall away from it.
C)polarizes molecules in the wall.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) Two lamps, one with a thick filament and one with a thin filament, are connected in series. The current is greater in the lamp with the A)thick filament.
B)thin filament.
C)same in each
Q3) A pair of 1-ohm resistors connected in parallel has a combined resistance of A)1 ohm.
B)2 ohms.
C)1/2 ohm.
D)none of the above
Q4) The electric force between charges is strongest when the charges are A)close together.
B)far apart.
C)either
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metal detectors that travelers walk through at airports operate via A)Ohm's law.
B)Faraday's law.
C)Coulomb's law.
D)Newton's laws.
E)civil laws.
Q2) A magnet will become weaker if it is A)dropped on a hard surface.
B)held in a hot flame.
C)either
D)neither
Q3) Changing the magnetic field intensity in a closed loop of wires induces A)current.
B)voltage.
C)both
D)neither
Q4) Surrounding our planet Earth are A)cosmic rays.
B)magnetic fields.
C)both
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bow wave is produced in water when the speed of an object
A)matches the speed of waves in water.
B)exceeds the speed of waves in water.
C)is less than the speed of waves in water.
D)none of the above
Q2) The object with the natural frequency of higher pitch is a A)small bell.
B)large bell.
C)either
D)neither
Q3) A wave is a vibration in A)space.
B)time.
C)both
D)neither
Q4) All other things being the same, strings having more mass than other strings will produce
A)higher frequency notes.
B)lower frequency notes.
C)the same frequency notes.
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the atmosphere were about 40 times thicker, at noon the Sun would appear
A)red-orange.
B)orange-green.
C)green-blue.
D)blue-violet.
E)none of the above
Q2) Red sunsets are due to light of lower frequencies that
A)is scattered from larger particles in the air.
B)is refracted from larger particles in the air.
C)is reflected by clouds and relatively large particles in the air.
D)survive being scattered in the air.
E)appear reddish orange to the eye.
Q3) Which of the following occupies the smallest percentage of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A)radio waves
B)microwaves
C)visible light
D)gamma rays
Q4) Describe a model for explaining how light is transmitted through glass.
Q5) Explain why the sky is blue.
13
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you remove two protons and two electrons from a sulfur atom (S), what new element is formed?
A)Si
B)Si<sup>+2</sup>
C)Al<sup>+2</sup>
D)Al
E)Ar<sup>-2</sup>
Q2) What is the approximate mass of a carbon atom in atomic mass units (amu)? How about a carbon dioxide molecule?
A)A carbon atom has a mass of about 12 amu. Carbon dioxide would then have a mass of 28 amu.
B)A carbon atom has a mass of about 6 amu. Carbon dioxide would then have a mass of 32 amu.
C)A carbon atom has a mass of about 12 amu. Carbon dioxide would then have a mass of 44 amu.
D)A carbon atom has a mass of about 6 amu. Carbon dioxide would then have a mass of 22 amu.
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Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alpha particle has twice the electric charge of the beta particle but deflects less than the beta in a magnetic field because it
A)moves much slower.
B)moves much faster.
C)has much more inertia.
D)has much less inertia.
Q2) Which process would release energy from gold, fission or fusion? From carbon?
A)gold: fission; carbon: fusion
B)gold: fusion; carbon: fission
C)gold: fission; carbon: fission
D)gold: fusion; carbon: fusion
Q3) Why are smaller nuclei such as carbon-14 often radioactive? (carbon-12 is the most common and most stable form of carbon.)
A)The attractive force of the nucleons has a limited range.
B)The isolated neutron is not stable and will undergo spontaneous transformation into a proton and an electron.
C)Hmmm... mysterious are the ways of the force.
D)both A and B
E)none of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you describe the volume of the following object? the amount of water in a swimming pool
A)microscopic
B)macroscopic
C)submicroscopic
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) How many atoms of Oxygen (O)are in H<sub>3</sub>OClO<sub>4</sub>
A)5
B)2
C)3
D)7
E)1
Q3) What is the name of the following compound? SF<sub>3</sub>
A)sulfur trifluoride
B)sulfur fluoride
C)trifluorosulphide
D)fluorine sulphide
E)none of the above
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is more polar, a sulfur-bromine (S-Br)bond or a selenium-chlorine (Se-Cl)bond?
A)A selenium-chlorine bond should be more polar because of a greater difference in effective nuclear charge.
B)A selenium-chlorine bond should be more polar because of a smaller difference in effective nuclear charge.
C)A sulfur-bromine bond should be more polar because of a greater difference in effective nuclear charge.
D)A sulfur-bromine bond should be more polar because of a smaller difference in effective nuclear charge.
Q2) Which of the following is the weakest?
A)A chemical bond
B)An ion-dipole attraction
C)A dipole-dipole attraction
D)A dipole-induced dipole attraction
E)An induced dipole-induced dipole attraction
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on atomic size, which would you expect to be more soluble in water: helium, He, or nitrogen, N<sub>2</sub>?
A)Although He is smaller, its outer orbital is filled and the atom will have little attraction to the water molecules.
B)Since He atoms are smaller, more of them can fit into solution, so it has a higher solubility in water.
C)Nitrogen atoms are bigger and so nitrogen molecules should be more soluble in water due to greater dipole-induced dipole attractions.
D)He atoms are bigger and so helium molecules should be more soluble in water due to greater dipole-induced dipole attractions.
Q2) What is the purpose of adding aluminum salts and a base to water during water treatment?
A)The two together gel and trap dirt and bacteria.
B)The higher pH kills bacteria.
C)The aluminum removes the rust taste from the water
D)The base dissolves the dirt.
E)It improves the taste.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are given two samples of elements, and each sample has a mass of 10 grams. If the number of atoms in each of these samples is the same, what must be true of the two elements?
A)The density of the two elements are the same.
B)The elements are likely be located in the same position in the periodic table.
C)Their spectral patterns will likely be identical.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes the action of ozone?
A)It absorbs UV radiation and undergoes fragmentation.
B)It reflects UV radiation back into space.
C)It reflects heat back into space.
D)It emits UV radiation when excited by sunlight.
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following has the greatest mass?
A)1 mole of Pb
B)1 mole of H<sub>2</sub>
C)1 mole of Be
D)1 mole of Na
E)All have the same mass.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the above images represents a solution of the strongest acid (HA)?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)All of the above are strong acids.
E)None of the above are strong acids.
Q2) How does an atom's electronegativity relate to its ability to become oxidized?
A)The greater the electronegativity of an atom, the greater its ability to become oxidized.
B)The lower the electronegativity of an atom, the lower its ability to become oxidized.
C)The greater the electronegativity of an atom, the lower its ability to become oxidized.
D)Electronegativity does not effect the atom's ability to become oxidized.
Q3) What is an acid?
A)Anything that donates hydrogen ions.
B)Anything that accepts hydrogen atoms.
C)Anything that donates hydrogen atoms.
D)Anything that dissolves metal.
E)Anything that donates hydronium ions.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suggest an explanation for why aspirin has a sour taste.
A)It is the acidic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
B)The sour flavor is added to help prevent overdosing.
C)Aspirin is made sour as a mandated child safety feature.
D)It is the basic nature of aspirin that gives rise to its sour taste.
Q2) Where would you expect to isolate molecules in a fractionating tower that have a large number of interatomic forces?
A)near the bottom
B)near the top
C)near the middle
D)Fractional distillation takes advantage of molecular weight.
E)Fractional distillation takes advantage of the number of isomers.
Q3) Which of the above molecules is a phenol?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)a and d
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Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metamorphic rock that is weathered and broken down into small pieces can become
A)igneous rock.
B)recrystallized.
C)sediments which can then become sedimentary rock.
D)fossilized.
Q2) Relate silica content to crystallization from a magma.
Q3) What effect do fluids have on metamorphism?
Q4) Basaltic volcanic eruptions tend to be
A)slow moving and highly viscous.
B)very fluid and highly viscous.
C)slow moving with a low viscosity.
D)very fluid and have a low viscosity.
Q5) Some ________ rock is formed from minerals that were once dissolved in water.
A)sedimentary
B)igneous
C)metamorphic
D)igneous and metamorphic
Q6) What is partial melting?
Q7) Can metamorphism, caused solely by elevated temperature, occur without the presence of magma? Why or why not?
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Body waves can be divided into two types-primary waves and secondary waves. What is the difference between these two types of body waves?
Q2) How did seafloor spreading suggest a driving force for continental drift?
A)Youngest seafloor is found near continents.
B)Seafloor spreading pushes continents.
C)Mantle convection causes irreversible slippage.
D)Subduction creates the youngest seafloor.
Q3) Detailed mapping of the ocean floors revealed
A)huge mountain ranges beneath the oceans.
B)deep trenches near some of the continents.
C)that the oceans are equally deep at all locations.
D)huge mountain ranges on the ocean floor, and deep trenches near some of the continents.
Q4) and destroyed (subduction zones). At transform boundaries, plates slide horizontally past each other.
Q5) Volcanoes do not form at which type of convergent plate boundary?
A)Oceanic-oceanic boundaries.
B)Oceanic-convergent boundaries.
C)Continental-continental convergent boundaries.
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under what conditions does a glacier front advance? Under what conditions does a glacier front retreat?
Q2) Landforms created by glacial erosion include
A)hanging valleys, cirques, and drumlins.
B)cirques, drumlins, and roches moutonnees.
C)eskers, kettle lakes, and hanging valleys.
D)hanging valleys, cirques, and roches moutonnees.
Q3) Most of Earth's fresh water is located in A)polar ice caps and glaciers.
B)groundwater.
C)rivers, lakes, and streams.
D)the atmosphere.
Q4) The flow of groundwater is dependent on A)topography of the ground surface.
B)gravity only.
C)pressure only.
D)hydraulic conductivity and pressure.
Q5) Why are glacial striations so important?
Q6) Why does a clay rock body generally have a medium-to-high porosity but a poor hydraulic conductivity?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surface of erosion between rocks that represents a gap in Earth history is A)called a dike.
B)an unconformity.
C)a faunal conformity.
D)none of the above
Q2) The oldest known fossils of single-celled organisms are
A)4.6 billion years old.
B)3.9 billion years old.
C)3.3-3.5 billion years old.
D)1.3-1.5 billion years old.
Q3) The most important event during the Cambrian period was the A)emergence of the fishes.
B)ability of organisms to form an outer skeleton.
C)emergence of the trilobite.
D)ability of organisms to develop lungs.
Q4) The Paleozoic era begins with the Cambrian and concludes with the A)Ordovician period.
B)Silurian period.
C)Permian period.
D)Triassic period.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Warm air aloft is associated with A)low air pressure aloft.
B)warm summer nights.
C)high surface pressure.
D)high air pressure aloft.
Q2) If evaporation exceeds precipitation, the salinity of the ocean in the area
A)decreases.
B)stays the same.
C)gets denser.
D)increases.
Q3) The origin of Earth's oceans is from A)comet debris.
B)melting of polar ice caps.
C)volcanic eruptions.
D)comets and volcanic eruptions.
Q4) The atmosphere is divided into several layers. The troposphere is the A)lowest and thickest layer, where Earth's weather occurs.
B)lowest and thinnest layer, where Earth's weather occurs.
C)atmosphere's third and thickest layer.
D)lowest and least dense layer in the atmosphere, where Earth's weather occurs.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Q1) Symbols on a weather map are called:
A)Isobars.
B)Data.
C)Weather elements.
D)Weather codes.
Q2) A weather map has many symbols and lines. Isobars are lines that
A)depict wind speed and direction.
B)connect points of equal temperature.
C)connect points of equal pressure.
D)none of the above.
Q3) The energy released by a hurricane comes from
A)cold Atlantic waters.
B)spiraling winds.
C)warm, moist air above warm, tropical oceans.
D)the Sun.
Q4) Heat can be added to air by solar radiation, moisture
A)condensation, or contact with warm ground.
B)evaporation, or contact with warm ground.
C)condensation, or contact with cool ground.
D)evaporation, or contact with warm ground
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solar wind blows in a direction
A)away from the Sun.
B)toward the Sun.
C)coplanar to the plane of the solar system
D)primarily along the Sun's polar axis
Q2) On which body (other than Earth)is life in our solar system most likely to be found?
A)Mars
B)Venus
C)Europa
D)Scientific evidence suggests that life elsewhere in our solar system is not possible.
Q3) Asteroids orbit the A)Sun.
B)Earth.
C)Moon.
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q4) Only one side of the Moon faces Earth. Is this because the Moon spins about its axis, or doesn't spin about its axis? Defend your answer.
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the energy during the collapse of the iron core of a supergiant star is released in the form of neutrinos-nearly massless subatomic particles that rarely interact with matter. So how is it they can blow away a stars outer shells?
A)Although they rarely interact with matter, the sheer number released during the collapse is enough to move most of the star's mass into surrounding space at incredibly high rates of speed
B)By creating a massive magnetic field that convulses in on itself, ripping away the stars outer shells
C)When neutrinos exceed a certain speed, 22,300 km/s, they interact with matter quite effectively.
D)By developing a temporary, but relatively strong positive charge
Q2) Luminosity is
A)the total amount of light energy that star emits into space.
B)the stars apparent brightness.
C)the stars particular color spectrum output.
D)the stars total infrared output.
Q3) Describe the fate of planet Earth if the Sun were to collapse to a black hole.
Q4) What happens to a star when the fusion cycle gets to the element iron?
Q5) What event marks the birth of a star, and what event marks its death?
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) Technically, its not mass that causes the curvature of spacetime, but A)mass density.
B)energy density.
C)thermal mass.
D)thermal mass fluctuations.
Q2) General relativity is most concerned with A)acceleration.
B)gravitation.
C)space-time geometry.
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q3) If the orbit of Mercury were perfectly circular, its rate of precession would be A)larger than it is now.
B)smaller than it is now.
C)the same as it is now.
D)zero.
Q4) Space and time are A)bound together.
B)independent entities.
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientific equations in a conceptual course are mainly A)recipes for plugging in numerical data.
B)guides to thinking about the relationships between concepts. C)for mathematical problem solving.
D)unfortunately a confusing way of explaining ideas.
Q2) A hypothesis that is scientific must have a test for proving it A)right.
B)wrong.
C)either.
Q3) In science, a theory is A)an educated guess.
B)less than a fact.
C)a synthesis of a large body of well-tested knowledge. D)unchangeable.
Q4) The scientific method is most effective in A)making hypotheses.
B)gaining, organizing, and applying new knowledge.
C)discovering new things.
D)making theories.
E)performing experiments.
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