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Conceptual Chemistry is an introductory course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that govern chemical phenomena. Emphasizing a qualitative approach rather than heavy mathematical analysis, this course explores topics such as the structure of atoms and molecules, chemical reactions, states of matter, and the interactions and energy changes involved in chemical processes. Through real-world examples, demonstrations, and simple laboratory activities, students will gain an appreciation for the central role chemistry plays in everyday life, while cultivating scientific literacy and critical thinking skills essential for further study in science or for informed decision-making as citizens.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Chemistry 5th Edition by John A. Suchocki
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Q1) Which of the following statements about science is true?
A)Science deals only with testable hypotheses.
B)Science deals with observations and experimentation.
C)Scientists believe that natural phenomenon have natural explanations.
D)Experiments do not always go as planned.
E)a ll of the above
Answer: E
Q2) The gap between two brain cells is 2.0 × 10<sup>-3</sup> nm. How many meters is this?
A)2.0 × 10<sup>-12</sup> m
B)2.0 × 10<sup>-6</sup> m
C)2.0 m
D)2.0 × 10<sup>6 </sup>m
E)2.0 × 10<sup>-9 </sup>m
Answer: A
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Q1) Humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere. Why is humidity always very low inside your kitchen freezer?
A)The kitchen freezer is most often sealed off from the atmosphere.
B)The frost in the freezer absorbs this moisture.
C)It is not possible for water to be in the gaseous phase at temperatures below 0°C.
D)At the cold temperatures of your kitchen freezer, water molecules in the vapor phase are moving relatively slowly, which makes it easier for them to stick to inner surfaces within the freezer or to other water molecules.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the largest quantity of mass?
A)100 kg
B)100,000 g
C)100,000,000 mg
D)All of the masses are the same.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following elements is an alkali metal?
A)argon (Ar)
B)lead (Pb)
C)cerium (Cr)
D)indium (In)
E)lithium (Li)
Answer: E
Q2) Which of these is not a metal?
A)selenium (atomic no. = 34)
B)gallium (atomic no. = 31)
C)lithium (atomic no. = 3)
D)potassium (atomic no. = 19)
E)vanadium (atomic no. = 23)
Answer: A
Q3) A sample of iron weighs more after it rusts because ________.
A)it has expanded into a greater volume
B)rust contains twice as many iron atoms
C)of the additional oxygen it contains
D)Wrong. Iron actually weighs less after it rusts
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following experiments helped to determine the charge of an electron and (indirectly)its mass?
A)J.J. Thompson's cathode ray deflection experiments
B)R. Millikan's oil drop experiments
C)E. Rutherford's gold foil experiments
D)Avogadro's number experiments
E)Franklin's kite experiments
Q2) Another interesting periodic trend is the density of the elements. We find that osmium, Os (atomic number 76)has the greatest density of all elements, and, with some exceptions, the closer an element is positioned to osmium, the greater its density. Based upon this trend, list the following elements in order of increasing density: copper, Cu, gold, Au, platinum, Pt, and silver, Ag.
A)copper, Cu < gold, Au < platinum, Pt < silver, Ag
B)copper, Cu < silver, Ag < gold, Au < platinum, Pt
C)copper, Cu < silver, Ag < platinum, Pt < gold, Au
D)platinum, Pt < gold, Au < silver, Ag < copper, Cu
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Q1) Which of the following best describes an exothermic nuclear fission reaction?
A)The number of nucleons changes before and after the reaction.
B)The mass of the products is less than the mass of the reactants.
C)The energy released decreases with a greater loss of mass.
D)All of the above describe a fusion reaction.
E)None of the above describe a fusion reaction.
Q2) After a uranium fuel rod reaches the end of its fuel cycle (typically 3 years)most of its energy comes from the fissioning of plutonium because ________.
A)fissionable Pu-239 is formed as the U-238 absorbs neutrons from the fissioning U-235
B)fissionable Pu-239 is formed as the U-235 absorbs neutrons from the fissioning U-238
C)fissionable Pu-239 is formed as the U-238 absorbs alpha particles from the fissioning U-235
D)fissionable Pu-239 is formed as the U-235 absorbs alpha particles from the fissioning U-238
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Q1) Many analogies can be drawn between chemical bonds and human relationships. For example, which is more analogous to marriage: the ionic bond or the covalent bond? Which is more analogous to the single life?
A)marriage=covalent bond; single=ionic bond
B)marriage=covalent bond; single=covalent bond
C)marriage=ionic bond; single=covalent bond
D)marriage=ionic bond; single=ionic bond
Q2) A hydrogen atom does not form more than one covalent bond because it
A)has only one shell of electrons
B)has only one electron to share
C)loses its valence electron so readily
D)has such a strong electronegativity
Q3) There is more gold in 1 km<sup>3</sup> of the ocean than the amount of gold mined in all of recorded history. How come we do not mine the oceans?
A)It is too dilute to separate.
B)It would take too much energy.
C)It would cost too much.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Q1) What is a hydrogen bond?
A)a special type of dipole-dipole attraction involving hydrogen bound to a highly electronegative atom
B)a special type of dipole-dipole attraction involving hydrogen bound to any other atom
C)a special type of dipole-dipole attraction involving hydrogen bound to another hydrogen atom
D)a special type of attraction involving any molecules that contain hydrogens E)none of the above
Q2) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 15 L of a solution that has a concentration of 3.0 g per liter of solution?
A)30. g
B)141 g
C)5.0 g
D)45 g
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Q1) Why do ice skates work?
A)The pressure of the blades on the ice creates a temporary water layer.
B)The pressure of the blades cuts a hole in the ice and water flows in.
C)The blades are treated with a chemical that melts the ice temporarily, which creates a water layer.
D)Ice is naturally slippery.
Q2) Why does water have a high specific heat?
A)Much of the added energy is required to break hydrogen bonds.
B)Water is not very dense like metals and therefore doesn't conduct heat as readily.
C)Much of the heat that is added to water is converted to kinetic energy.
D)None of the energy is stored as potential energy.
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following would have the highest surface tension?
A)a molecule with very strong intermolecular forces
B)a molecule with very weak intermolecular forces
C)a molecule with a very small degree of cohesive forces
D)a molecule with very strong adhesive forces
E)a mixture of molecules with strong and weak adhesive forces
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Q1) Steel wool wetted with vinegar is sealed within a balloon inflated with air. After several hours, what happens to the volume of the balloon?
A)The balloon inflates.
B)The balloon deflates.
C)The balloon dissolves.
D)Nothing because the vinegar is acting on the steel wool, not upon the balloon.
Q2) Why might increasing the temperature alter the rate of a chemical reaction?
A)The molecules will have a higher kinetic energy and bump into one another harder. B)The molecules are less reactive at higher temperatures.
C)The molecules will more likely combine with other atoms at high temperature to save space.
D)The density decreases as a function of temperature and this leads to an increase in volume which drops the rate of reaction.
E)none of the above
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Q1) What atom in the hydronium ion, H<sub>3</sub>O , bears the positive charge?
A)the hydrogen atom
B)the oxygen atom
C)Neither atom bears a positive charge.
D)Hydrogen and oxygen equally share the positive charge.
Q2) What is the relationship between the hydroxide ion and a water molecule?
A)A hydroxide ion is a water molecule plus a proton.
B)A hydroxide ion and a water molecule are the same things.
C)A hydroxide ion is a water molecule minus a hydrogen nucleus.
D)A hydroxide ion is a water molecule plus two extra electrons.
Q3) Can an acid and a base react to form an acid?
A)No. Acids always react with bases to form salts.
B)Yes and No. The reaction can only occur if the substances reacting are true acids and bases.
C)Yes and No. The reaction can only occur if the reactants are organic/carboxylic acids and organic bases.
D)Yes. An acid and a base can react to form an acid if the acid is a strong acid and the base is a weak base.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about electrochemistry is not true?
A)It is the study of how electrical energy and chemical reactions are related.
B)It involves the use of a set of oxidation-reduction reactions to produce electrical current.
C)It involves the use of electrical current to produce an oxidation-reduction reaction.
D)It is the study of how electrons are transferred from one chemical compound to another.
E)All of the above are true.
Q2) A battery operates by ________.
A)oxidation
B)reduction
C)both oxidation and reduction
D)none of the above
Q3) Why is oxygen usually an oxidizing agent?
A)It is a very electronegative element.
B)It does not undergo reduction.
C)It likes to be oxidized.
D)It is very abundant and so it is easier to react than nitrogen.
E)all of the above
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Q1) What type of polymer would be best to use in the manufacture of stain-resistant carpets?
A)cellulose
B)nylon
C)Melmac
D)Teflon
Q2) The temperatures in a fractionating tower at an oil refinery are important, but so are the pressures. Where might the pressure in a fractional distillation tower be greatest, at the bottom or at the top? Defend your answer.
A)The pressure is greatest at the bottom because the higher temperature means a greater number of vaporized molecules.
B)The pressure is greatest at the top because the higher temperature means a greater number of vaporized molecules.
C)The pressure is greatest at the bottom because the lower temperature means a greater number of vaporized molecules.
D)The pressure is greatest at the top because the lower temperature means a greater number of vaporized molecules.
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Q1) How are carbohydrates usually produced in nature?
A)They are made by the process of photosynthesis.
B)They are extracted from the ground by plant roots.
C)They are generated in the decomposition of plants.
D)They are made by decomposition of sugars.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the above pairs of side chains could be involved in a hydrophilic interaction?
A)a and b
B)a and c
C)b and c
D)b and d
E)none of the above
Q3) Cellulose and starch are similar to each other in that they both
A)are made of a patchwork of crisscrossing long chains.
B)are polymers of glucose.
C)are in the formation of alpha helices.
D)contain periodic branching of the polymer chain.
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Q1) A medicine is a drug that ________.
A)has therapeutic properties
B)kills bacteria
C)provides a euphoric effect
D)is isolated from a plant
E)none of the above
Q2) When might two drugs taken together not exert a synergistic effect?
A)The synergistic effect is significant for any types of drugs taken together.
B)when one of the drugs is microencapsulated so that it is absorbed by the body at a later time
C)when the two drugs share no major or minor effects or side-effects
D)Sometimes a person's immune system is able to negate the effect of one drug, which allows the second drug to act alone.
Q3) Why does long term abuse of amphetamines and cocaine cause nervous system damage?
A)The ability to make neurotransmitters declines.
B)The neurons fire too much and become damaged.
C)The synaptic cleft becomes blocked with neurotransmitters.
D)The nerve cell dies.
E)none of the above
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Q1) A low soil pH ________.
A)helps the soil retain nutrients
B)displaces negatively charged nutrients
C)displaces positively charged nutrients
D)promotes percolation
Q2) How can a pheromone be used to limit pesticide use?
A)to lure pests to traps
B)to lure pests to locations where only a little pesticide has been applied
C)to suppress the sex drive of the pests
D)to sterilize the insects
E)only A or B
Q3) Which of the following is not part of integrated crop management?
A)passing legislation that lowers the restrictions on pesticide use
B)identifying the best set of crops for a given location
C)determining ideal crop rotation strategies
D)choosing the best crop for the current agricultural market
E)all of the above
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Q1) The surface of the Venus is 450°C. Why?
A)There is a lot of reflection of the absorbed radiation back to the surface.
B)The soil of Venus has a higher heat capacity than the soil of Earth.
C)There is no temperature inversion taking place.
D)Venus is closer to the sun and therefore gets more solar radiation.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about sewage is not true?
A)All municipalities must treat sewage the same way.
B)All municipalities must treat sewage.
C)Once treated, sewage is released to the environment.
D)Treated sewage becomes drinking water downstream.
E)None of the above are true.
Q3) Which of the following values reflects the approximate daily use of water by a person in the U.S.?
A)400 liters/day
B)40 liters/day
C)4 liters/day
D)1 liter/day
E)none of the above
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Q1) In 1973 the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries stopped exporting their oil for a time. What effect do you suppose this embargo had on the nuclear power industry?
A)There was little effect as most experts in the industry knew that the 1973 oil embargo was going to be short-lived.
B)This embargo boosted the support for building of many new nuclear power plants.
C)It lowered the price of electricity generated from nuclear power plants, which then held a greater share of the market.
D)Any positive effect of this embargo could have had on the nuclear power industry was promptly negated by the Chernobyl disaster.
Q2) At atmospheric pressure, water has a boiling point too high to allow it to be used as the turbine-pushing fluid in an OTEC electric generator. How might the generator be modified to overcome this problem?
A)Raise the temperature of the water.
B)Operate the generator only in warm climates.
C)Reduce the pressure above the water.
D)Use a relatively large generator.
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