Community Nutrition Study Guide
Questions
Course Introduction
Community Nutrition explores the principles and practices of nutrition as they apply to populations and communities rather than individuals. This course examines the role of nutrition in promoting health and preventing disease at the community level, including an analysis of socio-economic, cultural, and environmental factors that influence food choices and nutritional status. Students will learn to assess community nutrition needs, design and implement effective nutrition programs, and evaluate public health initiatives. Emphasis is placed on current issues such as food security, government nutrition policies, and strategies for behavior change, equipping students to contribute to the well-being of diverse populations through nutrition education and advocacy.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by
Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many kcalories are provided by a food that contains 25 g carbohydrate, 6 g protein, and 5 g fat?
A) 172
B) 169
C) 142
D) 102
E) 225
Answer: B
Q2) A set of nutrient standards designed specificallyfor use on food labels is called the
A) Recommended Dietary Allowances
B) Dietary Reference Intakes
C) Daily Values
D) FAO recommendations
E) Measured Nutrition Standard
Answer: C
Q3) An excess intake of any energy nutrient can lead to weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The glycogen molecule is _____ branched with _____ ends bristling from each molecule's surface.
A) highly; hundreds of
B) weakly; ten
C) thinly; two
D) highly; thousands of
E) un-; no
Answer: A
Q2) The _____ are the basic units of all carbohydrates.
A) monosaccharides
B) disaccharides
C) polysaccharides
D) sucrose molecules
E) insoluble fibers
Answer: A
Q3) Experts agree that moderate amounts of sugar in the diet may pose a number of major health risks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rich sources of polyunsaturated fatty acids are found in ____.
A) lamb
B) egg yolk
C) milk
D) sunflower oil
E) fish eggs
Answer: D
Q2) Not all fatty acids have the same cholesterol-raising effect.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Food manufacturers are required to list the amount of ____ fatty acids on food labels.
A) trans
B) polyunsaturated
C) monounsaturated
D) essential
E) disaturated
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protein requirement of a child compared to an adult is ____.
A) the same as adults, until the child turns 10 years of age
B) higher
C) much lower
D) dependent on the activity level of the child
E) exactly the same
Q2) The protein RDA for adults is ____ grams per kilogram of body weight.
A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.8
D) 1.0
E) 1.2
Q3) The nitrogen-containing excretion product of protein metabolism is ____.
A) a buffer
B) hemoglobin
C) urea
D) water
E) electrolytes
Q4) What are the possible risks associated with overconsumption of protein?
Q5) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately before passing into the large intestine, the food mass must pass though the ____.
A) pyloric sphincter
B) lower esophageal sphincter
C) ileocecal valve
D) bolus
E) pancreas
Q2) Enzymes ____.
A) facilitate chemical reactions
B) draw water into the small intestine
C) are present in all parts of the GI tract
D) encourage bacterial growth
E) discourage water removal by the duodenum
Q3) Chyme is a(n) ____.
A) semiliquid mass of partially digested food
B) portion of food swallowed at one time
C) enzyme in the stomach needed for the digestion of protein
D) esophageal secretion
E) digesting liquid, similar to pepsin
Q4) Describe the role of the stomach in the process of digestion.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Q1) Which health risk associated with obesity causes elevated fasting glucose levels?
A) hypertension
B) heart disease
C) sleep apnea
D) insulin resistance
E) low blood pressure
Q2) The health risks associated with central obesity has to do with _____.
A) an imbalance in adipokines
B) the proximity of the excess fat to the gallbladder
C) an imbalance in cytokines
D) the proximity of excess fat to the small intestine
E) an imbalance in ketones
Q3) The production of glucose from protein or fat is called _____.
A) glyconeogenesis
B) gluconeogenesis
C) glycolysis
D) glycogenolysis
E) triglycerolysis
Q4) Explain how the body maintains its constant normal temperature of 98.6° F.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement could you credibly make for meaningful weight loss?
A) Laxatives promote weight loss.
B) Hot baths speed up metabolism.
C) Grapefruit juice melts body fat.
D) Unwise weight-loss techniques can be dangerous.
E) Certain creams rubbed on the skin can break up fat.
Q2) Ghrelin is a hormone produced in the stomach that acts much like leptin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In order to lose one pound per week, you would need to reduce your food intake by about _____ kcalories per day.
A) 100
B) 250
C) 500
D) 1000
E) 1500
Q4) Herbal dietary supplements are automatically deemed safe because they are natural.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dietary deficiency of vitamin A can produce _____.
A) rickets
B) night blindness
C) a prolonged blood-clotting time
D) light sensitivity
E) beta-carotenosis
Q2) Thiamin is involved in _____.
A) the formation of red blood cells
B) blood coagulation
C) collagen formation
D) energy metabolism
E) stem cell creation
Q3) Many of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency, such as blindness and an increase in respiratory infections, are related to the role of vitamin A in _____.
A) blood clotting
B) synthesis of visual pigment
C) maintenance of epithelial cells
D) synthesis of some hormones
E) synthesis of nephrons
Q4) Discuss the potential problems with vegetarianism and vitamin B deficiency.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the foods listed, the best source of phosphorus is _____.
A) tofu
B) chicken
C) noodles
D) cheese
E) spinach
Q2) What is the minimum amount of urine the body must excrete each day to remove waste products?
A) 500 mL
B) 700 mL
C) 2300 mL
D) 3000 mL
E) 3500 mL
Q3) The percentage of dietary iron normally absorbed is about _____.
A) 10-15%
B) 20-25%
C) 25-40%
D) 45-65%
E) 70-80%
Q4) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does iron deficiency impair physical performance and how can this be remedied?
Q2) To enhance muscle cell growth, _____.
A) train hard and eat well
B) take protein supplements.
C) consume more dietary protein.
D) become more flexible
E) take iron supplements
Q3) Only about _____ percent of adults in the U.S. meet physical activity guidelines set by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
E) 40
Q4) Areas of the body that have the most fat to spare donate the greatest amounts of fatty acids to the blood during exercise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The developing infant from 8 weeks after conception until its birth is called a(n)
A) fetus
B) embryo
C) ovum
D) blastocyst
E) lanugo
Q2) To encourage breastfeeding, maternity facilities would be wise to adopt which of these policies?
A) Give artificial nipples or pacifiers to breastfeeding infants.
B) Help mothers initiate breastfeeding as early as one week after birth.
C) Train all health care staff in the skills necessary to implement the breastfeeding policy.
D) Force mothers to breastfeed their infants even when they are asleep.
E) Keep babies in the nursery until feeding time to allow new mothers to rest.
Q3) Improper breastfeeding position is a frequent cause of sore nipples.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
Page 13
Q5) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) lactoferrin
A)the chief protein in human breast milk
B)a milk-like secretion from the breasts that is rich in protective factors
C)a protein in breast milk that binds iron and keeps it from supporting the growth of the infant's intestinal bacteria
D)factors in colostrum and breast milk that favor the growth of the "friendly" bacterium
Lactobacillus bifidus in the infant's intestinal tract
E)a protein in breast milk that attacks diarrhea-causing viruses
F)to gradually replace breast milk with infant formulas or other foods appropriate to an infant's diet
G)together with another protective factor, kills bacteria
H)a life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction to an offending substance
I)one of the stress hormones secreted whenever emergency action is needed; prescribed therapeutically to relax the bronchioles during allergy or asthma attacks
J)the period of growth from the beginning of puberty until full maturity
Q2) How might a pregnant woman's diet and health routine affect the health of her unborn fetus?
Q3) Describe an ideal treatment program for childhood obesity.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many older people take in adequate amounts of _____.
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin D
C) folate
D) zinc
E) calcium
Q2) Vision problems in older adults may be due to _____.
A) being underweight
B) low intake of vitamins D and E
C) being overweight
D) low intake of vitamins C and E
E) high intake of vitamins D and E
Q3) Describe why energy needs decline with advancing age.
Q4) The DRI Committee found that _____% of adults 51 years and older have atrophic gastritis due to the inability to absorb vitamin B .
A) 5 to 10
B) 10 to 30
C) 30 to 35
D) 40 to 45
E) 50 to 60
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If either the appetite or the sense of taste is affected by illness, the health practitioner should work with the patient to identify foods that are the most enjoyable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In some facilities, the diet manual is compiled by ____.
A) the hospital administrator
B) several physicians
C) the nursing staff
D) the staff of dietitians
E) pharmacists and nurses
Q3) It is most helpful to think about modified diets in terms of ____.
A) the diseases they are used to treat
B) the organ systems they relate to
C) the conditions they are used to treat
D) their interactions with medications
E) the symptoms they relieve
Q4) Differentiate between regular and modified diets.
Q5) List the steps in the nutrition care process.
Q6) Describe how nutrients alter gene expression.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) An example of guided imagery is when a person tries to reverse the disease process by using mental pictures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Valerian
A)used to treat erectile dysfunction
B)used to treat enlarged prostate
C)relieves menopausal symptoms
D)relieves insomnia with little side-effects
E)used to treat cancer and arthritis; may cause hepatitis and liver failure
F)used for wound healing; can cause liver damage
G)used to improve memory
H)treatment of anxiety, stress, insomnia
I)treatment of digestive system disorders; has possible interactions with diuretics, causing excessive potassium loss
J)used to reduce blood pressure and blood cholesterol; side effects include breath and body odor
Q3) Do any of the drugs Mr. Hare is taking prevent him from safely consuming grapefruit? If so, which ones and why?
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-term TPN may result in complications such as _____.
A) gallbladder disease
B) heart disease
C) diabetes
D) cancer
E) COPD
Q2) To prevent bacterial contamination during tube feedings, care givers must follow all of these recommendations except ____.
A) use fresh formula every 48 hours
B) store open or mixed formula in the refrigerator
C) never add fresh formula to formula that has been hanging
D) change the feeding container and tubing every 24 hours
E) clean the formula lid with alcohol before opening
Q3) The main source of energy in parenteral solutions is _____.
A) amino acids
B) glucose
C) lipid emulsions
D) fluids and electrolytes
E) vitamins
Q4) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common causes of acute gastritis is _____.
A) food allergies
B) viral infections
C) repeated use of NSAIDS
D) radiation therapy
E) repeated use of proton pump inhibitors
Q2) All of these symptoms are characteristic of dumping syndrome except _____.
A) diarrhea
B) lightheadedness
C) difficulty breathing
D) rapid heartbeat
E) hypertension
Q3) It is possible to meet all nutrient needs with a mechanically altered diet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the complications of gastritis.
Q5) Why does fat malabsorption occur in patients who have undergone gastrectomy?
Page 19
Q6) Define oropharyngeal dysphagia and explain the symptoms.
Q7) What type of ulcer does Kelly likely have? Why? Is this the most common type of ulcer?
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) The most common complication of diverticulosis is _____.
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) weight gain
C) fistula development
D) Crohn's disease
E) diverticulitis
Q2) Why was Mr. Fruge unaware of his condition until now?
Q3) Which dietary adjustment is not recommended for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome?
A) avoid fried and fatty foods
B) avoid alcohol
C) consume small, frequent meals
D) increase consumption of milk products
E) gradually increase fiber intake
Q4) A high-fiber diet increases stool weight and fecal water content.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The patient with a colostomy or ileostomy should restrict fluid intake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Many lactose-intolerant individuals can tolerate up to 2 cups of milk per day, especially when intake is divided throughout the day and taken with food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) About 70 to 80 percent of acute cases of pancreatitis are caused by autoimmune diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organ senses low oxygen content and releases chemicals that stimulate RBC production?
A) lungs
B) kidney
C) bone marrow
D) heart
E) liver
Q4) What is the cause of cystic fibrosis?
Q5) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Q6) Explain how enzyme replacement preparations avoid digestion by the acid of the stomach.
Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) fatty liver
A)an accumulation of fat in the liver
B)enlargement of the liver
C)an advanced stage of liver disease in which extensive scarring replaces healthy liver tissue, causing impaired liver function and liver failure
D)elevated blood pressure in the portal vein due to obstructed blood flow through the liver
E)blood vessels that enlarge in order to allow an alternative pathway for diverted blood
F)abnormally dilated blood vessels
G)yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an accumulation of bilirubin
H)liver inflammation that is associated with fatty liver
I)an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity
J)excess triglycerides packaged and exported to the blood
Q2) Strict dietary sodium restriction is part of the treatment for ascites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are Marcia's risk factors for cholelithiasis?
Q4) Describe ways to help a patient with cirrhosis consume enough nutrients.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) In people with diabetes, claudication may be due to polyuria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glycosuria generally occurs when blood glucose exceeds _____ milligrams per deciliter.
A) 120
B) 140
C) 160
D) 200
E) 300
Q3) Describe the different methods of insulin delivery.
Q4) Excessive urine production is called _____.
A) polydipsia
B) polyuria
C) ketonuria
D) glycosuria
E) polyphagia
Q5) Describe how glycated hemoglobin is used to evaluate long-term glycemic control.
Q7) What is the "honeymoon period"? Page 24
Q6) Describe the primary criteria used to confirm a diagnosis of diabetes.
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) Describe the role of fish and fish oil supplements in preventing coronary heart disease.
Q2) To lower LDL cholesterol levels, saturated fatty acids should be restricted to _____% of daily kcalories.
A) 7
B) 11
C) 15
D) 22
E) 25
Q3) Mrs. Smith is a 59-year-old African-American female who is 5' 2" tall and weighs 180 pounds (BMI 33). She is a smoker who engages in no physical activity, and her diet history shows a high intake of saturated fat and sodium, as well as excess kcalories. Her lipid profile shows elevated LDL and decreased levels of HDL. In order to improve Mrs. Smith's blood lipid profile, the nurse makes all of these recommendations except _____.
A) quit smoking
B) eat less saturated fat
C) increase physical activity
D) reduce intake of fatty fish
E) lose weight
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) hypercalcemia
A)the solution used in dialysis to draw wastes and fluids from the blood
B)abrupt decline in kidney function over a period of hours or days
C)blood in the urine
D)elevated serum potassium levels
E)elevated serum phosphate levels
F)elevated urinary oxalate levels
G)increased urine production
H)low serum potassium levels
I)elevated serum calcium levels
J)elevated urinary calcium levels
Q2) Prior to the need for dialysis, most renal patients are unable to handle normal intakes of potassium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which medications are used to prevent or treat calcium oxalate stones?
Q4) Individuals at risk of PEM and wasting should consume foods with high energy density
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory
Stress
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Q1) Which chemical messenger is not produced by the liver during inflammation, infection or severe injury?
A) C-reactive peptide
B) complement
C) cortisol
D) hepcidin
E) prothrombin
Q2) Respiratory distress is characterized by _____.
A) C-reactive peptide action
B) elevated cortisol
C) decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide
D) histamine secretion
E) elevated blood pressure
Q3) The symptoms associated with the whole-body inflammatory response to severe illness are collectively called the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the body's hormonal responses to stress.
Q5) What kind of medications might be prescribed for Caroline? Why?
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) malignant
A)describes a cancerous cell or tumor, which can injure healthy tissue and spread cancer to other regions of the body
B)destruction of donor tissue by the recipient's immune system, which recognizes the donor cells as foreign
C)infections from microorganisms that normally do not cause disease in healthy people, but are damaging to persons with compromised immune function
D)cells infected by HIV
E)closely resembles folate
F)foodborne illness caused a parasite
G)an abnormal tissue mass that has no physiological function
H)the use of X-rays, gamma rays, or atomic particles to destroy cancer cells
I)inflammation of intestinal tissue caused by exposure to radiation
J)low white blood cell count
Q2) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
Q3) A buffalo hump and lipomas are common side effects of drug treatments for HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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