Cognitive Neuroscience
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Cognitive Neuroscience explores the neural mechanisms underlying mental processes such as perception, memory, language, attention, and decision-making. Integrating principles from psychology, neuroscience, and neuroimaging, this course examines how brain structure and function give rise to cognitive abilities and behaviors. Students will learn about experimental methods used to study the brain, the impact of brain disorders on cognition, and recent advances in understanding the neural basis of complex mental functions. Through a combination of lectures, readings, and case studies, the course provides a comprehensive overview of the ways in which biological systems support human thought and behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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18 Chapters
2676 Verified Questions
2676 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Biopsychology as a Neuroscience: What is
Biopsychology, Anyway?
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of nervous system disorders is called __________.
Answer: neuropathology
Q2) According to the textbook, the science of biopsychology as it is practiced today emerged as a discipline in about A) 1549.
B) 1649. C) 1749.
D) 1849.
E) 1949.
Answer: E
Q3) The largest neural pathway that connects the left and right halves of the brain is called the __________.
Answer: corpus callosum
Q4) Scientists in many fields study the unobservable A) with electron microscopes. B) with microelectrodes. C) by scientific inference. D) by direct observation. E) by direct measurement.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Evolution, Genetics, and Experience: Thinking About the Biology of Behavior
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146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual has a recessive phenotype for a particular trait, it can be concluded that
A) both parents also had a recessive phenotype for that trait.
B) only one parent had a recessive phenotype for that trait.
C) both parents were homozygous for the dominant gene for that trait.
D) each parent had at least one recessive gene for that trait.
E) both A and C
Answer: D
Q2) Birds and reptiles are
A) amphibians.
B) chordates.
C) vertebrates.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Answer: E
Q3) The incidental nonadaptive by-products of an adaptive evolutionary change are called __________.
Answer: spandrels
Q4) Asomatognosia is typically produced by lesions to the right __________.
Answer: parietal lobe
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Chapter 3: The Anatomy of the Nervous System
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153 Verified Questions
153 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons are specialized to receive, conduct, and transmit
A) dendrites.
B) axons.
C) synapses.
D) electrochemical signals.
E) pizzas.
Answer: D
Q2) Bundles of axons in the CNS are called __________.
Answer: tracts
Q3) The back of your head is
A) posterior.
B) dorsal.
C) inferior.
D) anterior.
E) ventral.
Answer: A
Q4) The opposite of dorsal is __________.
Answer: ventral
Q5) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by tracts called cerebral __________.
Answer: commissures
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Chapter 4: Neural Conduction and Synaptic Transmission
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152 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are sometimes called electrical synapses.
Q2) Hyperpolarization is to depolarization as
A) inhibitory is to excitatory.
B) EPSPs are to IPSPs.
C) APs are to IPSPs.
D) APs are to EPSPs.
E) many APs are to few APs.
Q3) With respect to size, neuropeptides are the __________ neurotransmitters.
Q4) Which is considered to be the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the mammalian CNS?
A) GABA
B) glutamate
C) dopamine
D) acetylcholine
E) none of the above
Q5) The first event in the generation of an action potential is the opening of __________- activated sodium channels.
Q6) Endorphins and __________ are endogenous opioids.
Q7) There are two kinds postsynaptic potentials : EPSPS and __________.
Q8) Conduction in myelinated axons is referred to as __________ conduction.
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Chapter 5: The Research Methods of Biopsychology
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161 Verified Questions
161 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first time a wild rat encounters a food it has never tasted before, it usually displays
A) conditioned taste aversion.
B) neophobia.
C) thigmotaxis.
D) temporal contiguity.
E) an emetic reaction.
Q2) Hypertension is A) stress.
B) caused by excitement.
C) chronic high blood pressure.
D) chronic low blood pressure.
E) a sphygmomanometer.
Q3) Extracellular unit recording provides information about A) the magnitude of the membrane potential.
B) the wave form of action potentials.
C) EPSPs.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) A commonly used test of short-term memory is the __________ subtest of the WAIS.
7
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Chapter 6: The Visual System
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149 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the dorsal and ventral streams. Describe two theories of their functional difference and the evidence on which each theory is based.
Q2) The brightness of a light depends on its
A) intensity.
B) wavelength.
C) color.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q3) Which of the following colors does not exist?
A) greenish red
B) greenish blue
C) greenish yellow
D) greenish purple
E) greenish tan
Q4) The most widely studied form of visual agnosia is A) color agnosia.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) object agnosia.
D) bird watchers' agnosia.
E) name agnosia.
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Chapter 7: Mechanisms of Perception
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150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inability to recognize objects by touch is __________.
Q2) The perception of both pain and changes in skin temperature are largely mediated by
A) free nerve endings.
B) Pacinian corpuscles.
C) nociceptors.
D) temperoceptors.
E) red corpuscles.
Q3) Discuss current knowledge of auditory cortex, emphasizing both difficulties and successes.
Q4) Which ossicle is attached to the round window?
A) malleus
B) incus
C) hammer
D) both A and C
E) none of the above
Q5) A __________ is an area of the body that is innervated by the dorsal roots of one segment of the spinal cord.
Q6) The spinothalamic, spinoreticular, and spinotectal somatosensory tracts are all part of the __________ system.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Sensorimotor System
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscle spindles are receptors that respond to changes in muscle __________.
Q2) Neurons descending from the primary motor cortex in the corticorubrospinal tract synapse in the __________ before the tract reaches the spinal cord.
Q3) __________ inhibition is mediated by Renshaw cells and helps distribute the work among the motor neurons of a muscle's motor pool.
Q4) Which structure is thought to be involved in the integration of the sensory information that is the basis for initiating a movement?
A) posterior parietal cortex
B) primary somatosensory cortex
C) primary auditory cortex
D) frontal cortex
E) primary visual cortex
Q5) The only part of the primary motor cortex to receive sensory feedback from the skin is that part that controls the contralateral __________.
Q6) Patients with __________ have particular difficulty making accurate movements when asked to do so, particularly when they are asked to make them out of context.
Q7) The patellar tendon reflex is an example of a __________ reflex.
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Chapter 9: Development of the Nervous System
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125 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In mammals, substantial adult neurogenesis occurs only in the __________ and hippocampuses.
Q2) The neural plate is a patch of A) multipolar neurons.
B) ectodermal tissue.
C) mesoderm.
D) endodermal tissue.
E) growth cones.
Q3) The last part of the human brain to reach full maturity is the A) hippocampus.
B) prefrontal cortex.
C) amygdala.
D) occipital cortex.
E) hypothalamus.
Q4) Despite being intellectually handicapped, about 10% of autistic individuals display __________ abilities.
Q5) The growth of new neurons in adults is called adult __________.
Q6) Describe Sperry's eye-rotation experiments and the important theoretical point that they made.
Q7) Describe Williams syndrome and its genetic and neural correlates.
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Chapter 10: Brain Damage and Neuroplasticity
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181 Verified Questions
181 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell death produced by activation of a cell's genetic program for suicide is called A) apoptosis.
B) necrosis.
C) an infarct.
D) gliosis.
E) a tragedy.
Q2) The punch-drunk syndrome typically results from the cumulative effects of many minor
A) contusions.
B) concussions.
C) infarcts.
D) aneurysms.
E) embolisms.
Q3) The early stages of Alzheimer's disease are often characterized by A) disturbances of attention.
B) a selective decline in memory.
C) changes in personality.
D) all of the above
E) seizures.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Learning, Memory, and Amnesia
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146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do we have two memory systems - explicit and implicit - that are both capable of learning the same material? What advantage is there in having a second, conscious system? Recent evidence suggests that the answer is A) ischemia resistance.
B) evolution.
C) greater flexibility.
D) direct motor control.
E) the advantage of bilateral systems.
Q2) The brain operation performed on H.M. was a A) unilateral temporal lobectomy.
B) bilateral prefrontal lobotomy.
C) bilateral temporal lobotomy.
D) bilateral medial temporal lobectomy.
E) none of the above
Q3) Posttraumatic amnesia for events that occur in the period after a concussive blow to the head is called __________ amnesia.
Q4) Discuss medial temporal lobe amnesia, emphasizing the cases of H.M. and R.B. What have we learned from the study of this disorder?
Q5) H.M.'s main problem is that he cannot form new __________ long-term memories.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Hunger, Eating, and Health
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many people believe that hunger is a product of
A) high levels of insulin.
B) high levels of glucagon.
C) energy deficits.
D) meal times.
E) set points.
Q2) In our culture, most anorexics and bulimics have a history of strict __________.
Q3) In sham-eating experiments, the first sham eaten meal of a familiar diet is typically the same size as previous normal meals of the same diet. This suggests that the amount that we eat at a meal is influenced by
A) our previous experience of the physiological consequences of eating the same food.
B) the presence of anticipatory eating responses.
C) the amount of sodium in it.
D) the length of the meal.
E) the rate at which the meal is digested.
Q4) __________ (CCK) was one of the first satiety peptides to be studied.
Q5) Feelings of satiety are specific to the foods being consumed. Accordingly, satiety is said to be __________ specific.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Hormones and Sex
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158 Verified Questions
158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only the upper portion of the __________ is part of the Müllerian system.
A) vas deferens
B) vagina
C) fallopian tubes
D) uterus
E) penis
Q2) Which of the following is not true? Anabolic steroids
A) are similar to testosterone.
B) are often more effective than testosterone in promoting muscle development.
C) often increase male sex drive.
D) often induce gonadal atrophy.
E) increase anger and aggression in some users.
Q3) Two of the major classes of gonadal steroid hormones are
A) androgens and estrogens.
B) testosterones and estradiols.
C) progesterones and estradiols.
D) progesterones and testosterones.
E) testosterones and minestrones.
Q4) The pituitary dangles from a stalk connected to the __________.
Q5) Ear wiggling is a __________ (solicitation) behavior in female rats.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Sleep, Dreaming, and Circadian Rhythms
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187 Verified Questions
187 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The carousel apparatus has been used to study sleep deprivation in A) rats.
B) men and women.
C) children.
D) horses.
E) monkeys.
Q2) Strong evidence that REM-sleep is not essential for memory comes from the study of patients
A) with brain damage.
B) after electroconvulsive shock.
C) who can't sleep.
D) who get little or no REM sleep because they regularly take antidepressant drugs.
E) who get little or no sleep because they are narcotic addicts.
Q3) According to the default theory, REM sleep and
A) slow-wave sleep are similar.
B) delta sleep are similar.
C) wakefulness are similar.
D) dreaming rarely occur together in psychotic patients.
E) dreaming rarely occur together in children
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Drug Addiction and the Brains Reward Circuits
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153 Verified Questions
153 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although __________ is classified as a depressant, it has stimulant effects at low doses.
A) alcohol
B) tobacco
C) cocaine
D) amphetamine
E) morphine
Q2) According to Ramsay and Woods, the unconditional stimulus in drug conditioning experiments is
A) the drug.
B) what the experimenter measures.
C) the disruption of neural functioning that is directly produced by the drug.
D) the compensatory reactions to the conditional stimulus.
E) the test environment.
Q3) Modern approaches to the study of drug addiction are concerned with modeling
A) initial drug taking.
B) habitual drug taking.
C) drug craving and relapse.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 16: Lateralization, Language, and the Split Brain
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170 Verified Questions
170 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What proportion of patients with damage restricted to Broca's area display pure Broca's aphasia? Approximately __________%.
Q2) The strongest evidence for the linguistic theory of cerebral asymmetry comes from the study of
A) deaf people who use American Sign Language and subsequently suffer unilateral brain damage.
B) split-brain deaf people.
C) deaf monkeys with unilateral brain damage.
D) split-brain people with right-hemisphere damage.
E) deaf people with bilateral brain damage.
Q3) According to the Wernicke-Geschwind model, when we read, the output of the angular gyrus is transmitted to
A) Wernicke's area.
B) Broca's area.
C) the primary motor cortex.
D) the arcuate fasciculus.
E) the primary visual cortex.
Q4) PET and __________ are currently the main imaging techniques used by cognitive neuroscientists to study language.
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Chapter 17: Biopsychology of Emotion, Stress, and Health
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154 Verified Questions
154 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Le Doux and his colleagues found that bilateral lesions to the __________ blocked auditory fear conditioning but that bilateral lesions to the __________ did not.
A) septum; lateral geniculate nucleus
B) frontal lobe; cingulate
C) medial geniculate nucleus; auditory cortex
D) hypothalamus; septum
E) hippocampus; medial geniculate nucleus
Q2) Which of the following is not one of Ekman and Friesen's primary emotional expressions?
A) lust
B) fear
C) happiness
D) disgust
E) sadness
Q3) Charles Whitman, the Texas tower sniper, had a tumor in his __________.
Q4) Describe the circuit that is thought to control auditory fear conditioning in rats. Draw a diagram of the circuit. Explain the evidence on which this theory is based.
Q5) Lie detection is also known as __________.
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Chapter 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concordance rates for affective disorder are highest for A) bipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
B) bipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
C) unipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
D) unipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
E) unipolar disorders and siblings.
Q2) Reserpine is not currently used in the treatment of schizophrenia because it
A) is ineffective.
B) is an antihistamine.
C) can produce a dangerous decrease in blood pressure.
D) is an anxiolytic.
E) violates the dopamine theory of schizophrenia.
Q3) Anxiety disorders are
A) now reasonably rare.
B) the most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders.
C) often treated with benzodiazepines or serotonin agonists.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q4) Fluoxetine, or __________, is an SSRI.
Q5) Imipramine is a __________ antidepressant.
Page 20
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