Clinical Psychology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Psychology is the scientific study and application of psychological principles to assess, diagnose, and treat mental health disorders and emotional difficulties. This course explores the foundational theories, methods, and ethical considerations of clinical practice, providing students with an understanding of psychological assessment, therapeutic interventions, and evidence-based treatment approaches. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking skills and clinical competencies necessary for evaluating diverse client populations, as well as understanding the broader social, cultural, and biological factors that influence mental health and psychopathology.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
2107 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the score on one variable is high and the score on another variable is low, this is known as a __________ correlation.
Answer: negative
Q2) Discuss one disadvantage of developing a classification system for mental disorders.
Answer: Multiple possible answers: 1. There is a loss of information when a classification scheme is applied to behavior, as will happen when any single word is used to convey something as complex as a mental disorder. 2. In addition, there may be some stigma attached to receiving a psychiatric diagnosis. 3. Stereotyping may occur, leading to incorrect assumptions about and expectations of an individual who has received a psychiatric diagnosis.
Q3) A researcher who studies children who are home-schooled and compares them to children who attend school is using the ________ research method.
A) correlational
B) epidemiological
C) case study
D) experimental
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is lycanthropy?
A) A form of mass hysteria characterized by wild dance-like movements
B) A condition in which people believe themselves to be possessed by wolves
C) A form of mass madness seen only in men
D) A form of mass hysteria now known to have been drug-induced
Answer: B
Q2) What contribution to our thinking about abnormal behavior did Freud and Breuer make?
Answer: They made the discovery of the unconscious and argued that processes outside the person's awareness could help determine behavior. They showed that emotional tensions that patients were not aware of could cause hysteria.
Q3) Which of the following contributed to the virtual absence of moral management by the nineteenth century?
A) The fact that it was rarely effective in treating the mentally ill
B) The shrinking of the size of most mental hospitals
C) Society's displeasure with the idea that mentally ill people were morally inferior
D) Advances in biomedical science
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows ________
A) an evocative effect of genotype on environment.
B) a passive effect of genotype on environment.
C) an active effect of genotype on environment.
D) a lack of genotype-environment correlation.
Answer: A
Q2) Normal human cells have ________
A) twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes.
B) twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes.
C) twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs.
D) twenty-three chromosome pairs.
Answer: A
Q3) _____________ are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder. Answer: Sufficient causes
Q4) A(n) __________ is a person's total genetic endowment. Answer: genotype
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Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the purposes of the initial clinical assessment of a person?
Q2) What would determine whether the WISC-IV or the WAIS-IV is used to test intelligence?
A) The suspected level of impairment
B) The amount of time available for test administration
C) The age of the client
D) Whether organic brain damage is present
Q3) As in assessment, diagnostic interviews can be ________
A) structured or unstructured.
B) projective or objective.
C) difficult or easy.
D) empirical or conceptual.
Q4) Symptoms are to signs as ________ is to ________.
A) subjective; objective
B) complaints; treatment
C) assessment; diagnosis
D) projective; objective
Q5) ________should always be addressed before developing any assessment or treatment plans for clients.
Page 6
Q6) What are two problems with diagnostic labeling?
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In regards to stress research, a risk factor is ________
A) something about the nature of a stressor that makes it worse for most people.
B) something in a person's history that makes that person more vulnerable to stress.
C) something in a person's learning experiences that makes that person a thrill seeker.
D) something in a person's genetic makeup that makes that person respond well to stress.
Q2) A recent development in looking at personality in cardiovascular disease is the __________ personality, which includes insecurity and anxiety.
Q3) According to your textbook, which of the following is most stressful to people and animals?
A) Constant stressors
B) Predictable stressors
C) Uncontrollable stressors
D) Physical stressors
Q4) The kind of healthy psychological and physical functioning after a potentially traumatic event is called __________.
Q5) List four symptoms of PTSD.
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is one of the five primary types of anxiety disorders recognized in the DSM-5?
A) hypochondriasis
B) agoraphobia
C) dissociative fugue
D) bipolar disorder
Q2) Why do people with phobias continue to avoid the thing they fear?
A) Avoidance is reinforced by anxiety reduction.
B) There is something wrong with their fight or flight system.
C) They are cognitively unable to make any other decision due to their disorder.
D) Their low self-esteem causes them to choose not to fight their fear.
Q3) Which of the following is one of the five primary types of compulsive acts seen in individuals with OCD?
A) Cleaning
B) Fear of contamination
C) Fear of danger
D) Scanning
Q4) How do "safety behaviors" contribute to the persistence of panic disorder?
Q5) Describe the purpose of exposure therapy for specific phobia.
Q6) What benefit do those with GAD derive from worrying?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Freud, depression ________
A) and grief are the same thing.
B) must be treated with introjection.
C) is a consequence of loss.
D) reflects fixation in the anal stage.
Q2) A kind of depression related to the total amount of light a person receives is often called __________.
Q3) A review of several studies found that ________ increased the likelihood of developing a more severe depression.
A) experiencing a stressful life event
B) being in an intimate relationship
C) working outside of the home
D) having religious faith
Q4) According to Wang, Lane, et al., what percent of people with mood disorders receive no treatment or inadequate care?
A) 40
B) 50
C) 60
D) 70
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) DID is a condition in which aspects of memory such as identity and consciousness are _________
A) overly integrated.
B) no longer integrated.
C) implicitly segregated.
D) shared by separate people.
Q2) ______ involves a pattern in which symptoms or deficits affecting the senses or motor behavior strongly suggest that the patient has a medical or neurological condition.
Q3) Studies of individuals with DID compared to those trained to simulate the disorder
A) support the trauma model more than the sociocognitive model.
B) support the sociocognitive model more than the trauma model.
C) definitively demonstrate that DID is faked, whether intentionally or unintentionally.
D) suggest that DID is faked, but only unconsciously.
Q4) ______________is the disorder in the DSM-5 used to replace hypochondriasis without somatic symptoms.
Q5) What is dissociative fugue? Under what circumstances is this disorder likely to develop?
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following appears to be an enduring personality trait of people who are susceptible to developing an eating disorder?
A) Neuroticism
B) Perfectionism
C) Pessimism
D) Individualism
Q2) What factors put males at risk for developing eating disorders?
Q3) Rates of eating disorders tend to be much lower in black women than in white women. However, one factor that can increase risk in black women is ________
A) age-younger black women have higher rates of eating disorders than older.
B) assimilation into white culture and middle class values.
C) weight-very overweight black women have the same rates of eating disorders as whites do.
D) whether they were recent immigrants.
Q4) The neurotransmitter called __________ is made from tryptophan, which can only be obtained from food.
Q5) What are the differences between binge-eating disorder and bulimia nervosa?
Q6) What most clearly separates the anorexic from the bulimic?
Q7) What is leptin and how does it influence appetite and weight?
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the general characteristics of a personality disorder.
Q2) What are examples of dangerous behavior seen in borderline personality disorder?
Q3) According to the chapter, which of the following statements is correct?
A) There is more variance for personality disorders across cultures than within cultures.
B) There is more variance for personality disorders within cultures than between cultures.
C) There is no difference in variance for personality disorders across cultures and within cultures.
D) Personality disorders do not occur in cultures other than the United States.
Q4) In which of the following disorders is a comorbid diagnosis of depression most commonly seen?
A) Antisocial personality disorder
B) Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Histrionic personality disorder
Q5) Which of the personality disorders appears to be most related to schizophrenia? What evidence is there of this relationship?
Q6) Compare and contrast avoidant and schizoid personality disorders.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of the mesocorticolimbic dopamine pathway (MCLP)?
A) It is the area of the brain that is activated by drugs and that produces euphoria.
B) It is the area of the brain that is destroyed by alcohol and leads to amnestic disorder.
C) It metabolizes all psychoactive drugs.
D) It explains why genetically vulnerable individuals have altered brain wave patterns.
Q2) Problematic drinking behavior commonly develops during ________
A) a period of great success in an individual's life.
B) old age.
C) crisis periods in a marriage or other intimate personal relationship.
D) the transition to middle age.
Q3) Alcohol amnestic disorder may occur due to ________
A) low thiamine levels.
B) decreased GABA levels.
C) high opioid levels.
D) impaired serotonergic functioning.
Q4) Barbiturates are most commonly prescribed to allow for__________.
Q5) _______________are opium-like substances that the body produces.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pedophilia frequently involves ________
A) adolescents.
B) oral contact.
C) sadistic acts.
D) masochism.
Q2) Which statement below about the prevalence of childhood sexual abuse is accurate?
A) The prevalence of sexual abuse is probably lower than is commonly thought.
B) Estimated prevalence rates range from 25 percent to 75 percent.
C) Because of increased media attention, the prevalence has dropped dramatically in recent years.
D) Because definitions vary widely, estimates of prevalence vary widely, too.
Q3) How is sexual assault different from rape?
A) The age distribution of the victims
B) Whether the victim was also at fault
C) The type of unwanted sexual contact
D) The age of the perpetrator
Q4) Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response.
Q5) The________ theory, which developed in the 1750s, centered on the idea that semen is necessary for physical and sexual vigor in men.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is _________.
Q2) Recent data from the United Kingdom show that men with schizophrenia _______ about 15 years earlier than would be expected based on national norms.
Q3) What is a possible reason why schizophrenia patients in less industrialized countries tend to do better than those in more industrialized countries?
Q4) Schizophrenia occurs in about ________ of the general population.
A) 1 out of 1,000
B) 1 out of 100
C) 1 out of 10
D) 1 out of 10,000
Q5) Cognitive-behavioral treatment for people with schizophrenia tries to help them
A) learn a trade so they can earn a living.
B) gain the skills they need for daily living.
C) find the services they need in the community.
D) question their delusions to help reduce their intensity.
Q6) ______________are false beliefs that are firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary.
Q7) How is dopamine theorized to induce psychosis?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is delirium?
Q2) Positive outcomes following a traumatic brain injury are associated with ________
A) being young.
B) having higher educational attainment.
C) experiencing severe cognitive impairment.
D) later intervention.
Q3) One important difference between early-onset Alzheimer's disease and late-onset Alzheimer's disease is that in early-onset Alzheimer's ________
A) the condition is marked by cognitive decline.
B) only elderly people with Down syndrome are affected.
C) cognitive decline is quite slow.
D) cognitive decline is often rapid.
Q4) Delirium is ________
A) usually permanent.
B) usually reversible.
C) rarely a medical emergency.
D) characterized by a decline from a previously attained level of functioning.
Q5) In the United States, the most common cause of a traumatic brain injury is
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the clinical picture of oppositional defiant disorder? How is this disorder related to conduct disorder?
Q2) Throughout his young life, Quincy, age 7, rarely wakes up in the morning to a dry bed. Quincy would be diagnosed as having ________
A) primary functional encopresis.
B) secondary functional encopresis.
C) primary functional enuresis.
D) secondary functional enuresis.
Q3) The parrot-like repetition of speech seen in some children with autism is called __________.
Q4) Drugs used to treat enuresis, such as imipramine, are thought to ________, although the mechanism is unclear.
A) alleviate the anxiety that is leading to poor bladder control
B) increase water retention
C) inhibit reflexive bladder emptying
D) decrease the deepest stage of sleep
Q5) What are the vulnerabilities specific to children that contribute to the development of psychological problems?
Page 17
Q6) __________________ is(are) the most common of the childhood anxiety disorders.
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an element of a therapeutic alliance?
A) A sense of working together to solve a problem
B) Client acceptance of the therapist's theoretical orientation
C) Agreement between client and therapist about the goals of therapy
D) An affective bond between the client and therapist
Q2) Abby is participating in cognitive-behavioral therapy to treat her depression. Her therapist will ________
A) help her conduct "experiments" to test a variety of hypotheses about the accuracy of her cognitions.
B) use empathy and accurate reflection so that Abby will come to accept the ways she interprets her experience.
C) be nondirective in helping her change.
D) demonstrate ways of acting and then ask her to imitate these.
Q3) Psychodynamic interpersonally oriented therapies agree with classical psychoanalysis in the importance of ________
A) focusing on the transference neurosis.
B) the transformation of sexual energy into neurotic behaviors.
C) understanding the present in terms of the past.
D) the therapist being passive and impersonal.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be committed against their will to a psychiatric hospital?
A) Carole, who has schizophrenia and will not take her medications because they make her feel ill.
B) Tina, who has schizophrenia and is homeless.
C) Kathie, who has schizophrenia and has been threatening to hurt people on the street.
D) Any of these three, schizophrenia is a serious enough disorder for the person to be forced into the hospital.
Q2) The underlying basis of the insanity defense is ________
A) people who have a mental illness should not be punished.
B) people who have a mental illness cannot ever form the intent needed to commit a crime, so shouldn't be punished.
C) some people who have a mental illness are not able to fully comprehend their behavior, so are not able to form the needed intent for a crime, so should not be punished.
D) even if they had the required intent for a crime, the mentally ill still shouldn't be punished.
Q3) What is the importance of the Tarasoff case?
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Page 20