Course Introduction
Clinical Pathology
Textbook Exam Questions
Clinical Pathology focuses on the study and diagnosis of diseases through the examination of blood, urine, and other body fluids. This course explores the principles and techniques used in laboratory medicine, including hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students learn how laboratory test results are interpreted and correlated with clinical conditions to aid in the management of patients. Emphasis is placed on understanding pathophysiological processes, laboratory quality control, and the essential role of the clinical laboratory in modern healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20000
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be considered a pathogenic mechanism for causing cellular injury?
A) Toxins
B) Microbial pathogens
C) Genetic disturbances
D) Coagulation
E) Hypoxia
Answer: D
Q2) Inhibition of ATP production by hypoxia causes all of the following except:
A) Increased production of lactic acid in the cytoplasm
B) Degranulation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Dilation of the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Swelling of the mitochondria
E) Alkalinization of the hyaloplasm
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation except:
A) Calor (heat)
B) Rubor (redness)
C) Tumor (swelling)
D) Dolar (pain)
E) Odor (smell)
Answer: E
Q2) Inflammation involves all of the following except:
A) Soluble mediators
B) Nerves
C) Blood cells
D) Vessels
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A liver transplant between monkeys and humans is an example of:
A) Allograft
B) Isograft
C) Homograft
D) Xenograft
E) Heterograft
Answer: D
Q2) When incompatible blood types are mixed,the antibodies in the serum attach to red blood cells,causing which reaction?
A) Agglutination
B) Rh incompatibility
C) Maternofetal incompatibility
D) Hemolytic disease
E) Erythroblastosis fetalis
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important risk factor(s)for breast and colon cancer is (are):
A) Hormonal imbalance and advanced age
B) Smoking and promiscuity
C) Sun exposure and family history
D) Smoking
E) Family history of cancer in those locations
Q2) Which of the following conditions is characterized by a defect of a DNA repair enzyme?
A) Neurofibromatosis
B) Hereditary polyposis coli
C) Xeroderma pigmentosum
D) Wilms' tumor
E) Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q3) Teratomas originate from:
A) Germ cells of the ovary
B) Brain cells
C) Thyroid cells
D) Endocrine cells of the pancreas
E) Fallopian tubes
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children born with a small cranium and jaw,a thin upper lip,and palpebral abnormalities,and have a lower than normal IQ demonstrate classic signs of:
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Fetal alcohol syndrome
C) Cleft lip
D) Dwarfism
E) TORCH syndrome
Q2) Sudden infant death syndrome typically occurs:
A) At the time of birth
B) During the first few hours after birth
C) During the first week after birth
D) During the first month of life
E) Any time between 2 and 9 months of life
Q3) Congenital rubella occurs only in which of the following situations?
A) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus before conception
B) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus during the first trimester
C) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus during the second trimester
D) Unimmunized mother is infected with rubella virus during the third trimester
E) Baby is exposed to rubella in the first 24 to 48 hours after birth
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoptysis denotes bleeding from the:
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Stomach
D) Large intestine
E) Kidneys
Q2) Firm fibrous scars are typically found in healed infarcts of organs,except the:
A) Heart
B) Lung
C) Spleen
D) Brain
E) Kidney
Q3) Which organ is most affected by venous embolism?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Liver
E) Kidneys
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Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph fluid is different than blood because it contains:
A) Red blood cells and white blood cells
B) Red blood cells and clotting factors
C) Red blood cells only
D) White blood cells only
E) Clotting factors only
Q2) The patient presents with edema in the lower extremities,ascites,dyspnea with activity,and inability to concentrate.You suspect the patient is suffering from:
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Ventricular aneurysm
D) Severe hypertension
E) Angina pectoris
Q3) Atherosclerotic narrowing of which artery causes hypertension?
A) Middle cerebral artery
B) Anterior descending branch of the left coronary artery
C) Right coronary artery
D) Renal artery
E) Femoral artery
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following lung lesions has been linked to asbestos exposure?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Pneumoconiosis
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci
D) Tuberculosis
E) Mesothelioma
Q2) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Lobular pneumonia
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Interstitial pneumonia
E) Abscesses
Q3) Which form of pneumonia is caused by a fungus and is usually seen in patients who have been diagnosed with AIDS?
A) Pseudomonas pneumoniae
B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
C) Atypical pneumonia
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Escherichia coli
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common symptom of lymphomas is:
A) Lymph node enlargement
B) Infection
C) Fever
D) Pruritus
E) Sweating
Q2) The diagnostic feature of multiple myeloma is best documented by:
A) Peripheral blood smear analysis
B) Serum electrophoresis
C) Measurement of serum osmolarity
D) Measurement of serum calcium
E) Molecular biology
Q3) Overall,the most common form of leukemia is:
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E) Plasma cell leukemia
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11
Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma of the oral cavity presenting as a white,slightly elevated plaque is clinically described as:
A) Leukoplakia
B) Erythroplakia
C) Ulcer
D) Crater
E) Nodule
Q2) Most pedunculated colonic neoplastic polyps are classified as:
A) Hyperplastic polyp
B) Juvenile polyp
C) Inflammatory polyp
D) Tubular adenoma
E) Villous adenoma
Q3) Atrophic gastritis is characterized by:
A) Xerostomia
B) Achlorhydria
C) Gastric hyperacidity
D) Achalasia
E) Reflux esophagitis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which aspect of cirrhosis accounts for the development of esophageal varices?
A) Portal hypertension
B) Decreased level of fibrinogen in blood
C) Retention of sodium
D) Low osmolality of the plasma
E) Hypersplenism
Q2) In Wilson's disease,serum contains decreased amounts of:
A) Hemosiderin
B) Transferrin
C) Ferritin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Haptoglobin
Q3) Which hepatitis virus is a DNA virus with a protein envelope that contains several distinct antigens,such as surface antigen?
A) HAV
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most prominent histologic feature of chronic pancreatitis is:
A) Metaplasia
B) Hyperplasia
C) Fibrosis
D) Ongoing necrosis
E) Apoptosis
Q2) A major biochemical abnormality typical of diabetes mellitus that can be detected by blood analysis is:
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperamylasemia
D) Hypoalbuminemia
E) Hypercalcemia
Q3) Histologically,most carcinomas of the pancreas are classified as:
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Oat cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Transitional cell carcinoma
E) Acinic cell carcinoma
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys secrete which hormone necessary to raise blood pressure?
A) Erythropoietin
B) Renin
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) Aldosterone
E) Atrial natriuretic hormone
Q2) Which of the following is the most prevalent metabolic disease that affects the kidneys?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Lupus
C) Hypertension
D) Heart disease
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) The most important developmental disorder of the urinary tract is known as:
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) One-sided renal agenesis
E) Glomerular disease
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical symptoms of localized or diffuse redness,swelling,or ulceration of the mucosa of the glans penis is associated with which disease?
A) Prostatitis
B) Urethritis
C) Balanitis
D) Orchitis
E) Epididymitis
Q2) Most carcinomas of the prostate:
A) Present with symptoms of cystitis
B) Present early in their course with urinary obstruction
C) Invade early into the urethra
D) Occur in the peripheral part (posterior lobe) of the prostate
E) Tend to secrete androgens
Q3) Elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase in a patient with an enlarged prostate indicates:
A) Prostatitis
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C) Carcinoma in situ of the prostate
D) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate that has spread to the urinary bladder
E) Carcinoma of the prostate that has metastasized to the bone
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Condyloma acuminatum is caused by:
A) Herpes simplex virus type 1
B) Herpes simplex virus type 2
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Treponema pallidum
Q2) Endometrial hyperplasia is typically a result of prolonged exposure to:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Thyroid hormones
D) Estrogen
E) Progesterone
Q3) Most tumors of the endometrium are:
A) Benign
B) Premalignant
C) Composed of striated muscle cells
D) Found in postmenopausal women
E) Found in prepubertal girls
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17
Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Invasive duct carcinoma
D) Lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
Q2) Approximately 75% of all the lymph draining from the breast flows into the:
A) Axillary lymph nodes
B) Internal mammary lymph nodes
C) External mammary lymph nodes
D) Substernal lymph nodes
E) Cervical lymph nodes
Q3) Which statement is not true regarding breast cancer in males?
A) Most men do not think that they can develop breast cancer.
B) Most men do not perform breast self-examination.
C) Breast cancer in males is less common than in females.
D) Males usually have a worse prognosis than females.
E) Breast cancer in males has different histologic features than breast cancer in women.
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18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pituitary hypofunction,which causes circulatory disturbances such as ischemia,is typical known as:
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Sheehan's syndrome
C) Cushing's disease
D) Adrenogenital syndrome
E) Graves' disease
Q2) Secondary hyperaldosteronism is typically a complication of chronic:
A) Adrenal disease
B) Renal disease
C) Diabetes
D) Idiopathic hypertension
E) Emphysema
Q3) ACTH,which is normally produced by pituitary cells,can also be produced by cells of a(n):
A) Brain tumor
B) Adrenal tumor
C) Carcinoma of the thyroid
D) Small-cell carcinoma of the lung
E) Ovarian carcinoma
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Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generalized genetic hypopigmentation is known as:
A) Vitiligo
B) Keratosis
C) Albinism
D) Nevus flammeus
E) Ichthyosis congenita
Q2) Bacteria that have developed resistance to antibiotics have become a major source of hospital-acquired infections.The most prominent is:
A) MRSA
B) AIDS
C) Staphylococci
D) Streptococci
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Jeanne received second-degree burns from suntanning.How would this be classified?
A) Thermal injury
B) Mechanical trauma
C) Electrical injury
D) Radiation injury
E) Weather-related injury
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Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteosarcomas most often arise in the bones of the:
A) Skull
B) Vertebrae
C) Fingers
D) Toes
E) Knee
Q2) The bone lesions in renal osteodystrophy are caused by an excess of:
A) ACTH
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Aldosterone
E) Androgens
Q3) Which of the following diseases has the highest incidence among postmenopausal women?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteomalacia
D) Achondroplasia
E) Osteomyelitis
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Destruction of muscle fibers in polymyositis is characterized by a release of enzymes,of which the most specific for muscle disease is:
A) Lactate dehydrogenase
B) Acid phosphatase
C) Alkaline phosphatase
D) Creatine kinase
E) Alanine aminotransferase
Q2) Frontal baldness,testicular atrophy,and muscle spasm are typical of which autosomal dominant muscular dystrophy?
A) Duchenne's
B) Becker's
C) Facioscapulohumeral
D) Limb-girdle
E) Myotonic
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) St.Louis encephalitis is transmitted by:
A) Dust inhalation
B) Living in close quarters
C) Mosquito and tick bites
D) Sexual contact
E) Kissing
Q2) Which tumor can be surgically resected with no residual consequences?
A) Astrocytoma
B) Oligodendroglioma
C) Ependymoma
D) Medulloblastoma
E) Meningioma
Q3) Most primary malignant tumors of the brain originate from:
A) Neurons
B) Astrocytes
C) Oligodendroglia cells
D) Microglia cells
E) Meninges
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Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) The innermost sensory layer of the eye,composed of rods and cones,is called:
A) Iris
B) Cornea
C) Sclera
D) Retina
E) Choroid
Q2) Known as the "blind spot," this part of the retina cannot receive light signals.It is known as the:
A) Optic nerve
B) Optic disk
C) Fovea
D) Rods
E) Cones
Q3) Age-related macular degeneration,a common cause of blindness in elderly persons,is:
A) Immune mediated
B) Caused by diabetes
C) Of unknown pathogenesis
D) Found only in myopic persons
E) Caused by high blood pressure
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Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common and treatable cause of conductive hearing loss is:
A) Glaucoma
B) Otosclerosis
C) Impacted cerumen
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
Q2) The ceruminous glands produce a greasy substance known as earwax and are located in the:
A) External auditory canal
B) Internal auditory canal
C) Middle ear
D) Inner ear
E) Tympanic membrane
Q3) Accumulation of fluid in the inner ear is known as:
A) Purulent otitis media
B) Purulent otitis externa
C) Acute otitis media
D) Serous otitis media
E) Serous otitis externa
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Page 25