Clinical Pathology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathology is a branch of medical science that focuses on the diagnosis of diseases through the laboratory analysis of bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and tissue homogenates. This course introduces students to the principles and techniques of clinical laboratory testing, including hematology, clinical chemistry, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on the interpretation of laboratory results, understanding the underlying pathophysiological processes, and correlating findings with clinical presentations. Students will gain practical skills in laboratory procedures, quality control, and the safe handling of specimens, preparing them for roles in medical diagnostics and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
22 Chapters
562 Verified Questions
562 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3821 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76262
Sample Questions
Q1) The function(s)of macrophages/monocytes in the host immune response is (are):
A) antigen presentation
B) phagocytosis
C) secretion of cytokines
D) all of these
Answer: D
Q2) Diapedesis is:
A) movement of cells in response to increasing concentration of a cytokine
B) attachment of immunoglobulin to target cells
C) cells squeezing through endothelial cells to leave the circulation
D) engulfment of target cells
Answer: C
Q3) Measurement of CRP levels could be used for which of the following?
A) to determine risk of a heart attack
B) to determine flare-up of rheumatoid arthritis
C) to detect an inflammatory process
D) all of the above
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76261
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following exhibits allelic exclusion in its expression?
A) T-cell receptor
B) class I
C) class II
D) killer inhibitory receptor
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a cytotoxic T cell membrane-bound factor that is involved in inducing apoptosis in target cells?
A) perforin
B) IL-2
C) granzyme
D) Fas ligand
Answer: D
Q3) Immunoglobulin and T-cell receptors are similar in which of the following properties?
A) multiple gene segments encoding the variable region
B) antigen-binding site that recognizes conformational epitopes
C) requirement for antigen presentation
D) antigen-dependent somatic mutation
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76260
Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the invariant chain (Ii,CD74)is to block the peptide-binding site of:
A) antibody molecules
B) class II molecules
C) class I molecules
D) T cell receptors
Answer: B
Q2) MHC class II antigens are recognized by which of the following cells?
A) CD4+ T cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) B cells
D) macrophages
Answer: A
Q3) If a patient's red cells agglutinate with anti-A reagent antibody and the serum agglutinates B cells,what is the blood type?
A) type A
B) type B
C) type O
D) cannot determine
Answer: A
Page 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76259
Sample Questions
Q1) Bence-Jones proteins are identical to which of the following?
A) secretory IgA
B) heavy chains
C) light chains
D) IgG molecules
Q2) Which antibody is able to cross the placenta?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgE
Q3) Which of the following pairings of immunoglobulin and a property are true?
A) IgA: crosses the placenta
B) IgG: most abundant in serum
C) IgM: immunoglobulin produced by a T cell
D) IgE: major immunoglobulin of secondary response
Q4) Which best describes monoclonal antibody?
A) antibody made against multiple epitopes
B) antibody made by a variety of B cells
C) antibody made from a single antibody-producing cell
D) all antibody of any one particular class
6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Cytokines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76258
Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells produce interleukin-1?
A) T helper cells
B) cytotoxic T cells
C) B cells
D) macrophages
Q2) IL-2 is produced by one cell and the same IL-2 stimulates that same cell.This type of cytokine activity is called:
A) autocrine
B) paracrine
C) endocrine
D) pleotropic
Q3) IL-2 is a cytokine that could be more specifically called which of the following because of the cells that produce it?
A) lymphokine
B) monokine
C) basokine
D) eokine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Complement System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76257
Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane attack unit of complement is represented by which of the following?
A) C2a4b3b
B) C1qrs
C) C3bBbP
D) C5b6789
Q2) Which of the following is cleaved first by C1qrs in the classical pathway of complement activation?
A) C2
B) C3
C) C4
D) factor B
Q3) The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of which of the following?
A) antibody
B) C3
C) mannose
D) C1qrs
Q4) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76256
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is part of the federal Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Act ?
A) All employees must practice universal precautions at all times.
B) Only workers who come in contact with patients need to wear gloves.
C) Taking a cup of coffee into the lab is okay as long as it doesn't spill.
D) A blood spill can be mopped up at the end of the day.
Q2) Information on any potentially toxic substance used in a laboratory test kit would be found in:
A) OSHA's Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
B) chemical hygiene plan
C) material safety data sheet
D) exposure control plan
Q3) Which of the following applies to recapping of needles?
A) It can be done carefully as long as gloves are worn.
B) A sheath can be placed back on the needle with the other hand.
C) Transport needles back to the lab for disposal.
D) Never manually recap a needle.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76255
Sample Questions
Q1) The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal concentrations so that they form a large insoluble lattice together is called the:
A) equivalence zone
B) postzone
C) prozone
Q2) A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to antibody is called:
A) prozone
B) postzone
C) equivalence zone
Q3) The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?
A) immunofixation
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) double diffusion
D) passive agglutination
Q4) A situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to antigen is called:
A) postzone
B) prozone
C) equivalence zone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Agglutination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76254
Sample Questions
Q1) Coombs' reagent is used for what purpose?
A) to link small antigens on patient red cells
B) to enhance agglutination with IgG coated red blood cells
C) to enhance agglutination with IgM coated red blood cells
D) to cause a precipitation reaction with small amounts of antibody
Q2) What would be the best test to determine evidence of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) direct antiglobulin testing
B) passive agglutination
C) coagglutination testing
D) indirect antiglobulin testing
Q3) Which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize the reaction?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgE
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76253
Sample Questions
Q1) An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for an Ag in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known Ab are added together and incubated.Unbound material is washed off.The amount of labeled Ag is then measured.What assay is performed?
A) homogeneous EIA
B) competitive EIA
C) sandwich EIA
D) ELISA
Q2) An ELISA assay was performed on a patient's serum sample.What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to the amount of patient analyte measured?
A) directly proportional
B) indirectly proportional
Q3) Which of the following best describes competitive binding assays?
A) A limited number of binding sites are present.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
C) All patient antigen present is allowed to bind.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76252
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of RNA is used to directly translate the DNA code into making functional proteins?
A) transfer RNA
B) ribosomal RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) probe RNA
Q2) In which technique is the signal amplified instead of the actual target DNA?
A) branched DNA amplification
B) PCR
C) transcription-mediated amplification
D) solution hybridization
Q3) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Their DNA base sequences are the same.
B) Different DNA bases result in cleavage at different places.
C) They are detected by gel electrophoresis.
D) Different patterns can be used for identification purposes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76251
Sample Questions
Q1) In flow cytometry,if there are two light detectors,what does the amount of side scatter indicate?
A) size of the cell
B) granularity of the cell
C) surface markers
D) shape of the cell
Q2) A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which markers?
A) CD3,CD4,and CD8
B) CD4,CD3,and CD5
C) CD5,CD8,and CD3
D) CD8,CD3,and CD2
Q3) Which of the following is an intrinsic parameter that can be measured by a flow cytometer?
A) surface expression of CD3
B) internal complexity
C) fluorescence intensity
D) nuclear morphology
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76250
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are involved in killing of large parasites EXCEPT:
A) degranulation of mast cells
B) action of eosinophil basic protein
C) production of IgE
D) activation of complement
Q2) A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by presence of IgG that reacts with soluble antigen best describes:
A) type III hypersensitivity
B) contact dermatitis
C) type II hypersensitivity
D) asthma
Q3) The normal activity of a type I hypersensitivity response is protection primarily against which of the following?
A) parasites
B) viruses
C) bacteria
D) fungi
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76249
Sample Questions
Q1) Reasons for autoimmunity may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) inheritance of certain HLA antigens
B) molecular mimicry
C) polyclonal B cell activation
D) normal antibody production
Q2) An autoimmune disease characterized by pain and progressive destruction of the joints,weight loss,morning stiffness,and presence of an antibody directed against IgG best describes:
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) lupus
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) hemolytic anemia
Q3) A disease characterized by hypoactivity of the thyroid with weight gain and a sluggish metabolism due to destruction of thyroglobulin best describes:
A) Graves' disease
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) myasthenia gravis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76248
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the interpretation of the following patient results? (normal values)WBC = 90.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL,),with 89% lymphs (20-40%); CD3 = 90% (60-80%); CD5 = 87% (60-80%); CD10 = 0% (< 1%); CD4 = 88% (30-65%); CD20 = 12% (5-20%); CD34 = 0% (< 1%); CD8 = 3% (10-40%); kappa = 10% (3-15%); lambda = 5% (2-10%); CD19 = 15% (5-20%).
A) normal
B) B-cell acute leukemia
C) T-cell acute leukemia
D) B-cell chronic leukemia
E) T-cell chronic leukemia
Q2) What is the interpretation of the following patient results? (normal values)WBC = 25.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL),with 78% blasts; CD3 = 83% (60-80%); CD5 = 90% (60-80%); CD10 = 2% (< 1%); CD4 = 85% (30-65%); CD20 = 1% (5-20%); CD34 = 0% (< 1%); CD8 = 87% (10-40%); kappa = 1% (3-15%); lambda = 0% (2-10%); CD19 = 2% (5-20%).
A) normal
B) B-cell acute leukemia
C) T-cell acute leukemia
D) B-cell chronic leukemia
E) T-cell chronic leukemia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76247
Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-month-old infant is seen by a physician due to a persistent skin infection.His white and red blood cell counts are normal.However,immunofixation electrophoresis indicates a low level of IgG.When the infant returns to the physician for a follow-up visit in a month,his IgG level has increased.What condition do these results indicate?
A) SCID
B) transient hypogammaglobulinemia
C) common variable immunodeficiency
D) DiGeorge anomaly
Q2) A male baby who has suffered from persistent Candida fungal infections and several bouts of pneumonia all before the age of 6 months is found to have some developmental problems as well as low-set ears.Lab testing reveals an absence of T cells.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) selective IgA deficiency
B) common variable immunodeficiency
C) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
D) DiGeorge syndrome
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76246
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigens are most important in matching for tissue transplants?
A) HLA A and B
B) blood group antigens A or B
C) HLA DR1 and DQ1
D) all of the above
Q2) Which term applies to the type of graft rejection that begins within a few weeks or months after transplantation of an organ and is due to CD8 reactive T cells?
A) acute rejection
B) hyperacute rejection
C) chronic rejection
D) accelerated rejection
Q3) The type of rejection that occurs within minutes to hours due to preformed antibody is known as:
A) delayed rejection
B) chronic rejection
C) accelerated rejection
D) hyperacute rejection
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76245
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main reason testing for cold agglutinins is no longer recommended to diagnose infection with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
A) It is difficult to perform.
B) False-positives may be caused by certain viruses.
C) Very few people develop anti-I antibodies.
D) It requires expensive instrumentation.
Q2) Acute glomerulonephritis is due to:
A) deposition of immune complexes in the kidney
B) destruction of glomeruli by Streptolysin O
C) formation of cross-reacting antibodies
D) invasion of the kidney by Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) Antibodies detected by reacting rickettsial antigens with specific antibody followed by use of an anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorescent tag could be used to diagnose:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) stomach ulcers
D) rheumatic fever
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76244
Sample Questions
Q1) A host's immunological response to parasites includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) formation of IgG,IgM,and IgA antibodies
B) production of cytokines
C) gamma-interferon production by natural killer cells
D) sequestering the parasite in host cells
Q2) When is antibody testing for Cryptococcal antibodies most useful?
A) in determining patient prognosis
B) in diagnosing immunocompromised patients
C) in ruling out the disease in young patients
D) as a screening test after exposure to the fungus
Q3) Which statement best describes antigenic variation seen in parasites?
A) The host immune system can respond more quickly.
B) Different parasites have different antigens.
C) Parasites can periodically change their surface antigens.
D) Parasites become sequestered in host cells.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76243
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboratory test that is used to confirm syphilis and detects specific treponemal antibodies is:
A) VDRL
B) MHA-TP
C) RPR
D) monotest
Q2) Which best describes the antibody called reagin found in syphilis?
A) It reacts with cardiolipin.
B) It is specific for treponemal antigen.
C) It appears in all patients within 7 days after exposure to syphilis.
D) It is detected by the FTA-ABS test.
Q3) A patient presents with personality changes,altered mental state,and delusions of grandeur.The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis.In what stage of syphilis is the patient?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) latent
D) tertiary
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76242
Sample Questions
Q1) In the routine diagnosis of hepatitis C virus,which type of laboratory test should be ordered first?
A) antigen detection in liver biopsy
B) antibody detection in blood
C) viral culture of stool
D) viral culture of biliary drainage
Q2) A patient has the following EBV antibody profile: EBVCA IgM = neg; EBVCA IgG = pos; EBV-EA IgG = pos; EBV-NA IgG = pos.Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these data?
A) never infected with EBV
B) acute infection with EBV
C) recent convalescence from EBV
D) long-ago past infection with EBV
Q3) Serologic test results indicating that a patient is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B would be which of the following?
A) HBsAb positive; HBsAg negative
B) HBcAb and HBsAb positive
C) HBsAb negative; HBsAg positive for 12 months
D) HBeAb and HBeAg negative
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76241
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main mechanism of action of nucleoside analogue drugs such as zidovudine?
A) inhibiting the action of reverse transcriptase
B) blocking entry of HIV into host cells
C) acting as protease inhibitors
D) preventing release of HIV particles
Q2) A 25-year-old male presents to the public health clinic complaining of flu-like symptoms.The man has been an IV drug user and prostitute for the last 5 years.HIV antibody screening is positive.Subsequently,antibodies are found to have specificity for p24,gp120,p31,and gp41.This patient has:
A) current HIV infection
B) indeterminate HIV infection
C) lack of HIV infection
D) infection with some other virus
Q3) All of the following conditions would indicate AIDS EXCEPT:
A) a CD4+ count of less than 200 cells/\(\mu\)L
B) Kaposi's sarcoma
C) esophageal candidiasis
D) infectious mononucleosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 24