Clinical Nursing I Final Exam
Course Introduction
Clinical Nursing I introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of nursing care within clinical settings. This course emphasizes the development of essential nursing skills, including patient assessment, basic therapeutic interventions, and effective communication with diverse patient populations. Through a combination of classroom instruction and hands-on experiences in healthcare environments, students learn to apply theoretical knowledge to real-world scenarios, prioritizing safety, ethical considerations, and patient-centered care. By the end of the course, students will be prepared to provide competent, compassionate care under the supervision of licensed professionals, laying the groundwork for more advanced clinical coursework.
Recommended Textbook Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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Q1) What system reduces the number of employees but still provides quality care for patients?
A) Team nursing
B) Cross-training
C) Use of critical pathways
D) Case management
Answer: B
Q2) Whose influence on nursing practice in the 19th century was related to improvement of patient environment as a method of health promotion?
A) Clara Barton
B) Linda Richards
C) Dorothea Dix
D) Florence Nightingale
Answer: D
Q3) Patient care emphasis on wellness, rather than illness, begins as a result of:
A) increased education concerning causes of illness.
B) improved insurance payments.
C) decentralized care centers.
D) increased number of health care givers.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Q1) Personal beliefs about the worth of an object, idea, custom, or attitude that influence a person's behavior in a given situation are referred to as ___________.
Answer: values
Values are personal beliefs about the worth of an object, an idea, a custom, or an attitude. Values vary among people and cultures; they develop over time and undergo change in response to changing circumstances and necessity. Each of us adopts a value system that will govern what we feel is right or wrong (or good and bad) and will influence our behavior in a given situation.
Q2) What fundamental principle must the nurse first observe when confronted with an ethical decision?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Respect for people
D) Nonmaleficence
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Q1) What should a medical record provide for all health care providers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Care given to the patient
B) Care planned for the patient
C) A patient's nursing problems
D) A patient's medical problems
E) Details about any incident reports
F) The patient's response to treatment
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Q2) What is the documentation format that uses the acronym SOAPE?
A) Problem-oriented
B) Focused
C) Traditional
D) Crisis
Answer: A
Q3) The best defense against malpractice claims associated with nursing care is accurate _____________.
Answer: documentation
Accurate documentation can guard against malpractice claims because it should describe when, what, and how events occurred.
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Q1) When a nurse lectures to a large group, the method of communication is usually in the form of ____________ communication.
Q2) The nurse explains to a patient that based on the description of "personal space," the area within 18 inches of the patient is designated as the ____________ zone.
Q3) As the nurse listens to a supervisor, the nurse has a smile on her face but has crossed her arms in front of her chest and has crossed her legs. This is an example of a __________ posture.
Q4) The nurse is sitting in a chair near the patient's bed, leaning forward to hear what the patient is saying, and does not interrupt. What is the nurse demonstrating?
A) Support
B) Caring
C) Active listening
D) Interest
Q5) How can the nurse demonstrate warmth and acceptance when listening to a patient?
A) Tightly crossing her arms
B) Uncrossing her arms
C) Tightly crossing her legs
D) Facing away from the patient
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Q1) Who is the person responsible for analyzing and interpreting data to arrive at a nursing diagnosis?
A) Physician
B) LPN/LVN
C) RN
D) Technician
Q2) Which is an example of a medical diagnosis?
A) Pain
B) Anxiety
C) Pneumonia
D) Impaired skin integrity
Q3) A patient with a urinary tract infection is assessed using a clinical pathway. When a projected outcome is not met by a predetermined date, it is determined that what has occurred?
A) Omission
B) Variance
C) Failure
D) Error
Q4) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a neonate born to observant Orthodox Jewish parents. Who can the nurse anticipate will name the neonate?
A) Father
B) Mother
C) Grandfather
D) Grandmother
Q2) A patient requests a consultation between the physician and a religious leader known as an Imam. What is this patient's cultural belief?
A) Muslim
B) African American
C) Chinese American
D) Mexican American
Q3) A set of learned values, beliefs, customs, and practices that are shared by a group and are passed from one generation to another is known as ________________.
Q4) Following the death of a Presbyterian infant, the nurse should help arrange for
Q5) A generalization about a form of behavior, an individual, or a group is known as a
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) What action exemplifies a nurse practicing medical asepsis in performing daily care?
A) Lifting a sterile swab from a sterile field
B) Using disposable sterile gowns
C) Washing hands for 5 minutes between patients
D) Keeping bed linens off the floor
Q2) What contribution did Joseph Lister introduce to medical practice?
A) Isolation of infected patients
B) Iodine and alcohol use as disinfectants
C) The autoclave
D) Aseptic technique
Q3) A person can spread a bacterial infection by which actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Kissing others
B) Sneezing at work
C) Donating blood
D) Coming in contact with blood products
E) Leaving used tissue on the lavatory
Q4) The nurse reminds a group of nursing students that the type of asepsis that destroys all microorganisms and their spores is _______ asepsis.
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Q1) How should the nurse assist the patient with moving when pain is anticipated?
A) Be supportive
B) Apply heat before moving them
C) Administer medication before ambulation
D) Obtain assistance if the patient is heavy
Q2) What should the nurse do to reduce the effort of moving a heavy object?
A) Bring the feet close together and flex the knees
B) Keep the back straight and bend at the waist
C) Widen the base of support in the direction of movement
D) Broaden the base of support and twist toward the direction of movement
Q3) Where should the nurse place the load when carrying heavy objects?
A) In a low position
B) To the side of the body
C) Close to the body midline
D) With another's assistance
Q4) What implementation might the nurse use to improve safety during a transfer?
A) Weighing the patient first
B) Using a transfer belt
C) Putting shoes on the patient
D) Supporting a flaccid arm
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Q1) The nurse must follow the principles of medical asepsis while making a patient's bed, including procedures for handling linens. How should the nurse handle soiled linens?
A) Place on the floor
B) Fan in the air
C) Hold away from the uniform
D) Place at the end of the bed
Q2) What should the water temperature be when preparing a tepid bath for a patient?
A) 98.6° F
B) 100.2° F
C) 104.8° F
D) 110.4° F
Q3) The nurse assesses a red blister over the right superior iliac area of a patient. What stage is this decubitus ulcer?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Q1) The nurse assesses a patient in a Posey safety reminder device (SRD) for which problem(s) that may increase because of the use of SRDs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Immobility
B) Lethargy
C) Risk for impaired circulation
D) Risk for skin impairment
E) Incontinence
Q2) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy. The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
Q3) The nurse manager is providing an in-service regarding a "safe hospital environment." What will this education mainly focus on preventing?
A) Falls
B) Exposure to contaminants
C) Injury
D) Electrical hazard
Q4) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Q1) How should the nurse position the earpieces on a stethoscope to ensure optimum reception?
A) Backward
B) Parallel to the ears
C) Toward the face
D) Downward
Q2) What is the term for the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen that takes place at the alveolar level?
A) Tachypnea
B) Internal respiration
C) External respiration
D) Bradypnea
Q3) A nurse assesses a neonate's temperature by using a temporal artery scanner. What intervention should the nurse implement if the neonate's temperature is 96° F?
A) Record the findings
B) Notify the physician
C) Check the axillary temperature
D) Check the tympanic temperature
Q4) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Q1) A physician documents that a patient has a scleral icterus. How does the nurse describe the color of the patient's sclera?
A) Red
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Yellow
Q2) The nurse is meeting a patient for the first time. What is the first thing the nurse will do to initiate a nurse-patient relationship?
A) Appear interested
B) Introduce herself/himself
C) Provide support
D) Communicate trust
Q3) Various techniques are used by the nurse when performing a physical assessment. One of these techniques is percussion. What is percussion used to determine?
A) Sounds for auscultation
B) Data about physical features
C) Changes in structural integrity
D) Density of underlying tissue
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Q1) When admitting a patient to the hospital, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What does this behavior suggest as a common reaction to hospitalization?
A) Relief about being cared for
B) Fear of the unknown
C) Feeling of powerlessness
D) Concern about cost
Q2) How can the nurse help reduce the stress of a hospital admission? (Select all that apply.)
A) Show the patient how bedside equipment works.
B) Explain the need to establish a clear source of reimbursement.
C) Give simple explanation of policies.
D) Involve the patient in the plan of care.
E) Keep family interventions to a minimum.
Q3) Where can a nurse refer the family of a patient to find a source of financial aid to meet medical expenses?
A) A local bank
B) A clinical nurse specialist
C) The hospital administration
D) Social services
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Q1) What phase is a wound in when blood and fluid flow into the vascular space and produce edema, erythema, heat, and pain?
A) Healing
B) Inflammatory
C) Reconstruction
D) Maturation
Q2) When removing the dressing on a patient, the nurse discovers that the gauze dressing has adhered to the wound. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Call the RN
B) Gently remove the gauze with sterile forceps
C) Cover with occlusive dressing
D) Moisten the dressing with sterile water
Q3) The nurse is preparing a presentation regarding the effects of diabetes mellitus. What will the nurse include regarding the effects of diabetes mellitus?
A) Improves overall tissue perfusion
B) Promotes release of oxygen to tissues
C) Causes hemoglobin to have a greater affinity for oxygen
D) Causes hemoglobin to have a decreased affinity for oxygen
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to collect a urine specimen. What will this nurse include when labeling this specimen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Date and time of collection
B) Identification of last name only
C) Room number
D) Medical record number
E) Insurance information
Q2) A patient has just had a liver biopsy. What should the nurse do immediately following this procedure?
A) Assist the patient up to a chair
B) Keep the patient on his or her left side
C) Assist the patient with ambulation
D) Tell the patient to avoid coughing
Q3) The patient is to be catheterized for residual urine. The nurse must perform this catheterization within how many minutes following voiding?
A) 40 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 10 minutes
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Q1) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
Q2) A nurse is assessing victims in an emergency situation. What will the nurse assess for first?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Fractures
C) Mobility
D) Abnormal breathing
Q3) The nurse arrives on the scene of a fire. What is the first thing the nurse will do for a burn victim?
A) Apply dressings
B) Cover with a blanket
C) Cool the burn immediately
D) Apply topical ointment
Q4) If a spinal injury is suspected, before the rescuer starts CPR, the trachea should be opened with a _______ _______ maneuver.
Q5) When two nurses perform two-person CPR, there should be _____ slow breaths for every _____ compressions.
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) The nurse is educating a patient with phlebitis of the left leg. What alternative therapy should this patient avoid until the condition is resolved?
A) Acupuncture
B) Therapeutic massage
C) Yoga
D) Acupressure
Q2) What training system may help prevent osteoporosis?
A) Acupressure
B) Yoga
C) Therapeutic massage
D) Tai chi
Q3) What type of therapy is thought to increase circulation to the affected area, promote healing, and stimulate acupuncture points?
A) Relaxation therapy
B) Magnetic therapy
C) Yoga therapy
D) Imagery therapy
Q4) People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy.
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is a major advantage to this method?
A) Less expensive
B) More effective
C) Less addictive
D) Quicker
Q2) Why should a nurse promptly administer a prescribed analgesic after a pain assessment?
A) The physician has ordered it
B) It is an efficient use of time
C) Unrelieved pain can cause setbacks
D) It meets the goals of the nursing care plan
Q3) The pain relief intervention that stimulates large cutaneous nerve fibers to "close the gate" is the _________ unit.
Q4) What is the best approach for a nurse to use when planning pain relief measures?
A) Use a variety of pain relief methods
B) Use only nonopioid analgesics
C) Use at least three alternating methods
D) Use only one method at a time
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Q1) To simplify food values, the measurement of energy obtained by food is defined as the ________.
Q2) The body uses 22 common amino acids, but 9 of them must be obtained from protein in the diet. What are these proteins considered?
A) Essential
B) Basic
C) Fundamental
D) Primary
Q3) The nurse is providing information about high cholesterol levels. What is the rationale for avoiding saturated fats?
A) They block absorption of nutrients
B) They interfere with metabolism
C) They increase blood cholesterol
D) They must be hydrogenated
Q4) The body mass index (BMI) of a man 6 feet tall weighing 250 pounds is _______.
Q5) _____________________softens stools, speeds transit of foods through the digestive tract, and reduces pressure in the colon.
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Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Q1) What does actively transporting electrolytes from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration require?
A) Hydrostatic pressure
B) Osmotic pressure
C) Blood pressure
D) Pulse pressure
Q2) What is the nurse closely assessing for in a patient with hypokalemia?
A) Systemic edema
B) Cardiac complications
C) Muscle cramping
D) Impaired kidney function
Q3) What should the nurse expect when assessing a patient with respiratory alkalosis?
A) Slow respirations
B) Muscle weakness
C) Strong, even heart rate
D) Flushed face
Q4) A child has been having an asthma attack for the last 8 hours. Because of the child's inability to exhale effectively, the nurse assesses for respiratory __________.
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Q1) What is the sum o \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) f an \(\frac { 7 } { 8 }\) d ?
A) \(\frac { 10 } { 48 }\)
B) \(\frac { 10 } { 12 }\)
C) \(\frac { 21 } { 4 }\)
D) \(1 \frac { 5 } { 8 }\)
Q2) What important principle should be taken to prevent medication errors?
A) Placing an unlabeled syringe on the medication cart
B) Following the six rights of medication administration
C) Leaving a medication with the patient only when family is there
D) Always charting medications before the end of the shift
Q3) When a patient comes into the emergency department with a narcotic overdose, the nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with Narcan. What drug classification is Narcan?
A) Enhancer
B) Substitute
C) Control
D) Antagonist
Q4) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Q1) After a Foley catheter has been removed, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A) hemorrhage.
B) constipation.
C) urinary retention.
D) bladder spasm.
Q2) During insertion of a Foley catheter, the patient grimaces as the balloon is inflated. What is the immediate reaction of the nurse?
A) Withdraw the catheter
B) Ask the patient to bear down
C) Continue to inflate the balloon
D) Advance the catheter into the bladder
Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate nursing measure when performing tracheostomy care?
A) Wear clean gloves
B) Insert the catheter without suction
C) Suction for 1 minute before removing the catheter
D) Place the used catheter in a plastic shield for later use
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Q1) A 14-year-old male patient has undergone a leg amputation. What should be the primary focus of the patient's care plan?
A) Nutritional status
B) Academic progress
C) Body image
D) Socialization needs
Q2) What is the leading cause of injury and death among infants and young children?
A) Accidents
B) Child abuse
C) Drug abuse
D) Adolescent parents
Q3) What is known as the last stage in the life cycle?
A) Expectant stage
B) Senescence stage
C) Establishment stage
D) Disengagement stage
Q4) The process that refers to gradual change and differentiation is _____________.
Q5) Growth and development that moves from the center toward the outside is known as ____________________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) The home health nurse assesses that the goal of grief resolution has been accomplished when the nurse observes that a widow has performed which activities? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adjusted to an environment without the spouse
B) Put financial affairs in order
C) Made plans for a lengthy trip
D) Sought new relationships
E) Acquired a job
Q2) A patient whose spouse died 1 year earlier complains of feeling overwhelmingly lonely and has withdrawn from interpersonal interactions. The patient is demonstrating what stage of dying according to Kübler-Ross's stages of dying theory?
A) Anger
B) Denial
C) Depression
D) Bargaining
Q3) The nurse explains to a grieving husband that the process of the resolution of the hurt and the reestablishment of his life is called the __________ ___________.
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) Why is the nurse concerned about a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy being exposed to German measles?
A) The disease is capable of causing a spontaneous abortion.
B) The disease is capable of causing birth defects.
C) The disease is capable of causing high fever and convulsions.
D) The disease is capable of interfering with placental implantation.
Q2) Which of the following discomforts of a pregnant woman should be reported to the physician at the first occurrence?
A) Leg cramps
B) Pelvic discomfort
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Urinary frequency
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with a tubal pregnancy. What is the typical outcome of a tubal pregnancy?
A) The patient will carry the pregnancy to term and have a cesarean delivery.
B) The patient will have to remain in bed for the remainder of the pregnancy.
C) The patient will spontaneously abort this ectopic pregnancy.
D) The patient will require surgery to remove the zygote.
Q4) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Q1) A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. During initial assessment, the baby is found to be engaged. Which statement is true?
A) The narrowest diameter of the presenting part has reached the pelvic outlet.
B) The descending part is being initiated through the midpelvis.
C) The widest diameter of the presenting part crosses the pelvic inlet.
D) The narrowest diameter of the presenting part is at the ischial spines.
Q2) What area of the uterus provides the force during a contraction?
A) Lower portion
B) Middle portion
C) Upper portion
D) Cervical portion
Q3) A primigravida has a pelvis of the android type, which usually means the delivery will be a _______________.
Q4) A nurse shows the patient an x-ray of the fetal spine in parallel alignment with the mother's to demonstrate a ________ lie.
Q5) The nurse explains to the patient whose membranes ruptured an hour ago that delivery is usually accomplished in ____ to _____ hours postrupture.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) Before initially feeding an infant, what reflex should the nurse assess?
A) Moro reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Babinski reflex
D) Swallow reflex
Q2) The new mother calls the nurse to her room to show how her baby is "jerking around" when she changes his position. The nurse understands that the baby is exhibiting which normal reflex?
A) Traction reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Tonic neck reflex
D) Moro reflex
Q3) The postpartum mother with a third degree laceration tells the nurse she is afraid to have a bowel movement because of her painful episiotomy. What should the nurse do?
A) Offer a suppository or enema
B) Encourage ambulation
C) Offer stool softeners as prescribed
D) Offer pain medication before defecating
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Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Why do alcohol and illegal drugs endanger the fetus?
A) Both are absorbed into the bloodstream.
B) Both affect the mother.
C) Both cross the placental barrier.
D) Both increase the heart rate of the fetus.
Q2) What should the nurse hope to identify by keeping a record of a patient's blood pressure during prenatal visits?
A) Ketoacidosis
B) Placenta previa
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
Q3) The nurse assures a patient who has become sensitized to the Rh antigen that she can be protected for future pregnancies by receiving what injection?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin B12
C) RhoGAM
D) Type O blood
Q4) The nurse explains that severe preeclampsia needs to be controlled because it can develop into another syndrome called _________________.
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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Q1) What is the single most preventable cause of death and disease in the United States today?
A) Drug use
B) Alcohol addiction
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Malnutrition
Q2) A major dental problem among very young children is bottle mouth caries. What is a preventative measure the nurse should suggest?
A) Juice at bedtime
B) Milk at bedtime
C) A sugar-coated pacifier
D) Water at bedtime
Q3) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
Q4) What age group is experiencing the largest increase in drug use?
A) 7- to 9-year-olds
B) 10- to 12-year-olds
C) 12- to 13-year-olds
D) 15- to 17-year-olds
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5484
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum amount of time that a nurse should suction an artificial airway?
A) 1 second
B) 5 seconds
C) 30 seconds
D) 1 minute
Q2) The nurse welcomes the presence of the family in a pediatric unit because it reduces the stressors of hospitalization. Which are common stressors for the hospitalized child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Separation
B) Lack of love
C) Fear of pain
D) Unfamiliar food
E) Loss of control
Q3) Following a lumbar puncture of a 2-year-old, what should the nurse do?
A) Keep the child flat for several hours
B) Allow the child to play quietly at will
C) Hold the child in a flexed position for 5 minutes
D) Stand the child upright immediately
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5485
Sample Questions
Q1) Parents of a 5-year-old child diagnosed as cognitively impaired have come to the nurse to discuss different approaches to the ongoing care of their child. The nurse should suggest focusing on what activity?
A) Acquiring job skills
B) Making decisions
C) Performing self-care activities
D) Reading and doing simple math
Q2) When performing an assessment of a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), the nurse recognizes the child will most likely experience what symptom?
A) Increased temperature
B) Constipation
C) Right quadrant pain
D) Exercise-associated pain
Q3) The nurse is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. Before surgery, what should the nursing interventions include?
A) Leaving the lesion uncovered and placing the infant supine
B) Covering the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze
C) Applying lotion to the lesion to keep it moist
D) Covering the lesion with a dry, sterile gauze
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5486
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to help the dysphagic patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sit the patient upright
B) Reduce distraction during mealtime
C) Offer fluid from a straw
D) Thicken liquids
E) Cue the patient to swallow
Q2) When an older female patient complains of painful sexual intercourse, what should the nurse recognize as the probable cause?
A) Urinary incontinence
B) Arthritic joints
C) Kyphosis
D) Mucosal drying
Q3) When bathing an 80-year-old woman who lives on a farm, the nurse assesses brown macules on the patient's hands and forearms. The nurse recognizes these as
Q4) What should be suggested to a patient to aid with the pain of claudication?
A) Rest
B) Exercise
C) Cross legs
D) Stand
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Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5487
Sample Questions
Q1) A family is informed that the brain damage to their daughter is irreversible. The father is later overheard making vacation plans and discussing what the family will do when his daughter leaves the hospital. The nurse recognizes the father is in which crisis stage?
A) High anxiety
B) Denial
C) Reconciliation
D) Adaptation
Q2) When developing a care plan for a mentally ill patient, what should the nurse assess first?
A) Coping strategies
B) Emotional status
C) Medications taken
D) Nutritional status
Q3) A perceived threat to self causes what emotion?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old survivor of a school shooting screams and dives under a table when firecrackers go off. What does this behavior represent?
A) Phobia
B) Post-traumatic stress disorder
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Disordered thinking
Q2) The nurse asks a patient with schizophrenia if he had any visitors on Sunday. Which response indicates loose association?
A) "No."
B) "Yes! I had 90 visitors who came from every state in the union."
C) "Sunday is the Sabbath. Do we have visitors on the Sabbath?"
D) "We visited Yellowstone Park last summer."
Q3) The nurse explains that an alternative therapy that uses essential oils and scented candles to help a patient relax and focuses on the atmosphere of the moment is
Q4) The nurse recognizes that a woman who has experienced physical abuse and has inadequate income to care for herself and her family would be categorized under Axis
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5489
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient seems bewildered when he confides in the nurse that all of his friends and leisure time have been centered on a drug culture. Which would be the best response by the nurse?
A) "What other sort of activities might you enjoy?"
B) "You will need to get new friends."
C) "Returning to those activities will get you back here and in trouble."
D) "You need to get a hobby."
Q2) A 60-year-old man was admitted for cholecystitis that resulted in a cholecystectomy. On his third day of hospitalization, he begins to sweat profusely, tremble, and has a blood pressure of 160/100. Based on these findings, what focused assessment should the nurse complete?
A) Cardiac problems
B) Respiratory problems
C) Withdrawal problems
D) Circulatory problems
Q3) When assessing an alcoholic patient, the nurse notes short-term memory loss, painful extremities, footdrop, and muttered incoherent responses to questions. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as most likely related to a condition caused by long-term alcohol abuse, which is known as __________ syndrome.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5490
Sample Questions
Q1) During a time of acute illness, the family may become extremely distressed and neglect the needs of other family members. On what does the family seem to focus?
A) The outcomes
B) The disease
C) The physician
D) The patient
Q2) What became effective in 1966 by an act of legislation that revolutionized home care?
A) Life insurance
B) Medicare
C) Private insurance
D) Social Security
Q3) When implementing quality assurance-specific criteria, measurements are developed for three criteria: structural, process, and outcome. How is this method of assessment different from previous methods?
A) It is objective
B) It is specific
C) It is subjective
D) It is generalized
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5491
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies to the family of a patient that one of the roles of the LPN/LVN in the home care setting is to evaluate the care provided to the patient by which provider?
A) The family
B) Other licensed care providers
C) Nonlicensed staff
D) The physician
Q2) The long-term care facility nurse recognizes that visiting the resident, changing his or her position, assessing for incontinence, providing skin care, and offering fluids are part of the nurse's responsibility. What does the initiation of these interventions provide?
A) Continuity
B) Safety
C) Prevention
D) Reassurance
Q3) Two unique members of the caregiving team in a long-term care facility are the
aide/technician and the
assistant.
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse takes special care to be gentle in caring for patients with spinal cord injuries to avoid stimulating the autonomic nervous system and triggering which condition?
A) Paresis
B) Heterotopic ossification
C) Postural hypotension
D) Autonomic dysreflexia
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse can use basic rehabilitation skills regardless of the origin of the disability. What intervention would be effective for a person with arthritis, a person with a brain injury, or a person with a spinal cord injury?
A) Encouraging large fluid intake
B) Seeking spiritual support from a higher being
C) Using the spouse as a support system
D) Positioning to maintain alignment
Q3) A child who was struck by a car and suffered a closed head injury was unconscious for 24 hours before waking. The nurse recognizes this as a _______ brain injury.
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should the hospice nurse delay the use of oropharyngeal suctioning?
A) It will decrease mucus production
B) It will be uncomfortable for the patient
C) It is not necessary
D) It puts the patient at risk for infection
Q2) What symptom of hospice patients is the most dreaded and feared, and should be a priority of symptom management?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Grief
D) Pain
Q3) The hospice nurse documents an assessment finding of cachexia in the patient record. What does cachexia describe?
A) Deep sleep and unresponsiveness
B) Marked weakness and emaciation
C) Total addiction to opioids
D) Renewed energy
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four phases of cell division all occur in:
A) diffusion.
B) mitosis.
C) osmosis.
D) filtration.
Q2) What are the distinct surface proteins of the plasma membrane essential in determining?
A) Tissue typing
B) Blood count
C) Effectiveness of a drug
D) Sexual maturity
Q3) What traits describe visceral muscles?
A) Smooth and voluntary
B) Smooth and involuntary
C) Striated and voluntary
D) Striated and involuntary
Q4) The nurse clarifies that the three functions of epithelial tissue are _____________,___________, and __________.
Q5) The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane.
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the nurse offer prescribed analgesics to a patient who is 24 hours postoperative?
A) Only when the patient asks.
B) When the onset of pain is assessed.
C) Sparingly to avoid drug dependence.
D) Only when severe pain is assessed.
Q2) Which circumstance could prevent the patient from signing his informed consent for a cholecystectomy?
A) The patient complains of pain radiating to the scapula.
B) The patient received an injection of Demerol, 75 mg IM, 1 hour ago.
C) The patient is 85 years of age.
D) The patient is concerned over his lack of insurance coverage.
Q3) Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the ______________ period and continues through the _____________ period.
Q4) What is the ideal time for preoperative teaching?
A) Immediately before surgery to eliminate fear
B) 2 months in advance so the patient can prepare
C) 1 to 2 days before the surgery when anxiety is not as high
D) In the surgical holding area
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5496
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best instruction by the nurse regarding reducing the risk factors for melanoma?
A) Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs.
B) Have all nevi removed.
C) Watch for changes in moles, especially on the back.
D) Use a sun lamp for tanning.
Q2) What is a common diagnostic criterion for identifying systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Butterfly rash over nose and cheeks
B) Photosensitivity
C) Severe abdominal pain
D) Skin ulcers
E) Polyarthralgias and polyarthritis
F) Immobility
Q3) What would the nurse stress to the 17-year-old girl who has been prescribed Accutane for her acne?
A) Avoid alcoholic beverages
B) Drink at least 1000 mL of fluid daily
C) Use dependable birth control to avoid pregnancy
D) Avoid exposure to the sun
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 68, has suffered an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Before surgery, to provide support and comfort, an immobilizing device of a ______ is applied.
A) Thomas splint
B) Bryant traction
C) Russell traction
D) Buck traction
Q2) The 14-year-old boy who is scheduled for left leg amputation says to the nurse, "What in the world am I going to do with only one leg?" What is the nurse's most therapeutic response?
A) "What are you thinking about right now?"
B) "With a prosthesis, you will be as good as new."
C) "It is way too early to be concerned about that now."
D) "When my brother had his leg removed, he did great!"
Q3) The nurse explains to a patient who has had a knee replacement that warfarin (Coumadin) is ordered to:
A) increase the red blood cells.
B) reduce the threat of hemorrhage.
C) prevent formation of emboli.
D) help stabilize the prosthesis.
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5498
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with a hiatal hernia to reduce the frequency of heartburn?
A) Drinking 10 oz of milk with every meal
B) Lie down after eating
C) Panting through mouth when symptoms begin
D) Eating small meals
Q2) The home health nurse caring for a patient who has dysarthria related to radiation therapy for an oral cancer would recommend that the family provide:
A) a tablet and pencil as a communication aid.
B) a TV for diversion.
C) a bell to summon help.
D) a walkie-talkie.
Q3) Bowel sound assessment on a patient with an obstruction who has distention, nausea, and visible peristaltic waves would be:
A) loud and clearly audible.
B) high pitched.
C) hyperactive.
D) absent.
Q4) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to prepare a patient for an oral cholecystography?
A) Ensure that the patient drinks 500 mL of water before testing
B) Give 4 Oragrafin (ipodate) 5 minutes apart starting at 6 AM
C) Administer 6 Telepaque (iopanoic acid) tablets 5 minutes apart after the evening meal
D) Give a fatty meal \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) hour before the test is started
Q2) A patient with pancreatitis is NPO. The patient asks the nurse why he is unable to have anything by mouth. Which of the following is the best response?
A) "Diagnostic tests depend on you not eating anything."
B) "The pancreas is stimulated whenever you eat or drink, and causes pain."
C) "Eating causes the need for a bowel movement, which excretes your medication too rapidly."
D) "Resting your GI tract will cure your pancreatitis."
Q3) What should the nurse avoid contamination from to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A?
A) Food or water
B) Blood transfusion
C) Needles
D) Sexual contact
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Chapter
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5500
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are "B" symptoms of a patient with Hodgkin disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hematuria
B) Night sweats
C) Severe diarrhea
D) Weight gain from edema
E) Fever
F) Persistent dry cough
Q2) What are the most likely matches for a bone marrow transplant to a 10-year-old with leukemia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Uncle
B) Self
C) Mother
D) Brother
E) Sister
F) Father
Q3) The person with aplastic anemia is said to be _________________ because all three major blood elements (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) are diminished or absent.
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has become very dyspneic, respirations are 32, and the pulse is 100. The patient is coughing up frothy red sputum. What should be the initial nursing intervention?
A) Lay the patient flat to reduce hypotension and the symptoms of cardiogenic shock.
B) Place patient in side-lying position to reduce the symptoms of atrial fibrillation.
C) Place patient upright with legs in dependent position to reduce the symptoms of pulmonary edema.
D) Lay the patient flat and elevate the feet to increase venous return in cardiogenic shock.
Q2) Which statement would lead the nurse to offer more instruction about taking warfarin (Coumadin)?
A) "I eat a banana every morning with breakfast."
B) "I try to eat more green leafy vegetables, especially broccoli, spinach, and kale."
C) "I try to eat a well-balanced, low-fat diet."
D) "I don't drink alcohol or caffeine."
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with long-term emphysema is admitted with a secondary diagnosis of cor pulmonale. What should the nurse anticipate?
A) The patient will present with edema of the lower extremities and extended neck veins due to hypertension of the pulmonary circulation.
B) The patient will present with a dry hacking cough and chest pain due to constriction of the pulmonary vein.
C) The patient will present with hypertension and a headache related to pulmonary hypertension.
D) The patient will present with unlabored respiration and cyanosis around the mouth.
Q2) Identify the purposes of chest drainage. (Select all that apply.)
A) Drains air, blood, and fluid from pleural space
B) Restores positive pressure in chest cavity
C) Restores negative intrapleural pressure
D) Allows lung to collapse and rest
E) Allows route for medication administration
Q3) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
Q4) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse suggests the use of complementary and alternative therapies to prevent and/or treat urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which of the following is an example of such therapies?
A) Grape juice
B) Caffeine
C) Tea
D) Cranberry juice
Q2) The nurse assessing a patient who is taking furosemide (Lasix) finds an irregular pulse. This is likely a sign of:
A) hypomagnesemia.
B) hypernatremia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
Q3) Acute glomerulonephritis is commonly a result of a preexisting infection of
Q4) What should the nurse counsel the young man with chronic prostatitis to avoid?
A) Cessation of intercourse
B) Warm baths
C) Stool softeners
D) Continuing antibiotics when symptoms abate
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Chapter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5504
Sample Questions
Q1) What extra equipment should the nurse provide at the bedside of a new postoperative thyroidectomy patient?
A) Large bandage scissors
B) Tracheotomy tray
C) Ventilator
D) Water-sealed drainage system
Q2) What should the nurse caution a type I diabetic about excessive exercise?
A) It can increase the need for insulin and may result in hyperglycemia.
B) It can decrease the need for insulin and may result in hypoglycemia.
C) It can increase muscle bulk and may result in malabsorption of insulin.
D) It can decrease metabolic demand and may result in metabolic acidosis.
Q3) The adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoids. The most important is cortisol. What is it involved in? (Select all that apply.)
A) Glucose metabolism
B) Releasing androgens and estrogens
C) Providing extra reserve energy during stress
D) Decreasing the level of potassium in the blood stream
E) Increasing retention of sodium in the blood stream
Q4) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q5) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
Page 52
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) An alternative remedy, ____________ , is used by men for the treatment of impotence.
Q2) When the veins in the scrotum become dilated, and the scrotum becomes enlarged and dilated, the condition is called a __________.
Q3) What instruction should a nurse give a patient with congenital herpes who does not have lesions at the present?
A) "Continued use of acyclovir (Zovirax) will prevent reinfection by the virus."
B) "Condoms should be used during all sexual activity to prevent transmission of the virus, even when lesions are not present."
C) "Acyclovir ointment should be applied to the lesions to increase comfort and speed healing."
D) "Recurrent genital herpes is promoted by any sexual stimulation."
Q4) The patient, age 52, is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy. Why is postoperative elevation of the patient's arm important after this procedure?
A) To prevent vascular and lymph stasis, thus lymphedema
B) To prevent drainage accumulation at the incisional site
C) To prevent wound infection and dehiscence
D) To prevent pleural effusion and respiratory distress
Page 53
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Chapter
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44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5506
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse clarifies that the difference between a photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) and a laser in-situ keratomileusis (LASIK) is that a LASIK:
A) reshapes the central cornea.
B) makes partial-thickness radial incisions in the cornea.
C) removes some internal layers of the cornea.
D) implants intracorneal rings.
Q2) Why is otitis media found more frequently in children 6 to 36 months?
A) Eustachian tubes in children are shorter and straighter.
B) Infection descends via the eustachian tube to the throat.
C) Children's eustachian tubes are more vertical and longer.
D) Otitis media is seen equally in both children and adults.
Q3) What does the cataract treatment of phacoemulsification involve?
A) "Drying" the cataract with hypertonic saline
B) Removing the lens through the anterior capsule
C) The insertion of a new lens
D) Breaking the cataract with ultrasound
Q4) The surgical incision into the eardrum with either a knife or a heated wire loop to relieve pressure in the middle ear is a(n) ___________.
Q5) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Chapter
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5507
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cardinal sign of increased intracranial pressure in a brain injured patient?
A) Pupil changes
B) Ipsilateral paralysis
C) Vomiting
D) Decrease in the level of consciousness
Q2) What is the reticular activating system (RAS) essential to? (Select all that apply.)
A) Concentration
B) Wakefulness
C) Speech
D) Attention
E) Memory
F) Introspection
Q3) Why is the patient with suspected Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) hospitalized immediately?
A) The infection needs to be treated with IV antibiotics to prevent paralysis
B) The brain may swell quickly causing seizures
C) The disease can rapidly progress into respiratory failure
D) IV hydration is needed to prevent possible fatal hypotension
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55
Chapter
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse stresses that when a person produces his own antibodies against a specific antigen, that process of immunity is ______________ ________________ immunity
Q2) Because the older adult has decreased production of saliva and gastric secretions, they are at risk for:
A) mouth ulcers.
B) fissures in corners of the mouth.
C) gastrointestinal infections.
D) bloating.
Q3) What is the etiology of autoimmune diseases based on?
A) Reaction to a "superantigen"
B) Immune system producing no antibodies at all
C) T cells destroying B cells
D) B and T cells producing autoantibodies
Q4) Which of the following is an example of immunocompetence?
A) A child that is immune to measles because of an inoculation
B) A person who has seasonal allergies every fall
C) When the symptoms of a common cold disappear in 1 day
D) A neonate having a natural immunity from maternal antibodies
Q5) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
Page 56
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5509
Sample Questions
Q1) A young gay patient being treated for his third sexually transmitted disease does not see why he should use condoms, because "they don't work." Which is the most appropriate response?
A) "Condoms may not provide 100% protection, but when used correctly and consistently with every act of sexual intercourse they reduce your risk of getting infected with HIV or other sexually transmitted diseases."
B) "You are correct. Condoms don't always work, so your best protection is to limit your number of partners."
C) "Condoms do not provide 100% protection, so you should always discuss with your sexual partners their HIV status or ask if they have any STD."
D) "Condoms do not provide 100% protection, but when used with a spermicide you can be assured of complete protection against HIV and other STDs."
Q2) An organism that can cross from an animal species to humans is a(n) ____________organism.
Q3) The combination of efforts of the medical team, nutritionist, social workers, and clergy is the necessary ______________ approach to the complex needs of the patients with HIV infection.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has malignant cancer secondary to a high-grade lymphoma has been admitted with muscle weakness, tetany, paresthesia, and convulsion. The nurse notices the patient is being treated for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and initial treatment has not been successful. What should the nurse tell the family is the next step in treatment?
A) Whole blood transfusion
B) A bone marrow biopsy
C) Immediate radiation treatment
D) Dialysis
Q2) Which of the following are nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements? (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide adequate, easily digestible, soft, bland foods.
B) Give small, frequent, highly nutritional meals.
C) Allow extra time to eat.
D) Offer three regular meals of highly nutritious foods.
Q3) The term ____________ refers to the process by which a normal cell is transformed into a cancer cell.
Q4) Men over age 50 should consider an annual _________ test and rectal examination.
Q5) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) Which questions should the nurse consider before delegating care to another team member? (Select all that apply.)
A) Is this the right task?
B) Is this the right time?
C) Is this the right person?
D) Is this the right supervision?
E) Is this the right circumstance?
Q2) What is the best way to resolve most disagreements?
A) Agreement
B) Argument
C) Communication
D) Withdrawing
Q3) An employee failed to perform the duties listed in the employment contract. What is the term for this failure?
A) Lawsuit
B) Termination
C) Breach of contract
D) Reprimand
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