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Clinical Nursing I introduces students to foundational nursing skills necessary for providing safe, effective, and compassionate patient care in a clinical setting. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and supervised clinical experiences, students learn essential techniques such as patient assessment, infection control, vital signs monitoring, and basic therapeutic interventions. Emphasis is placed on the development of communication, critical thinking, and clinical reasoning skills, as well as the application of nursing theory to real-world situations. This course serves as the first step in preparing students for more advanced clinical practice and professional responsibilities in various healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
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17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord is
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) membrane.
D) muscle.
Answer: D
Q2) The smallest living components in our body are A) cells.
B) organs.
C) electrons.
D) osmosis.
Answer: A
Q3) In anatomical terminology, posterior means A) toward the tail.
B) toward the head.
C) toward the back.
D) below the trunk.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting with the sponge and instrument count in the operating room. The operative phase in which the nurse is assisting is called the
A) perioperative phase.
B) preoperative phase.
C) intraoperative phase.
D) postoperative phase.
Answer: C
Q2) Frequent monitoring of the postoperative patient's vital signs assesses which body system?
A) Gastrointestinal
B) Endocrine
C) Neurological
D) Cardiovascular
Answer: D
Q3) Serum potassium levels are usually determined before surgery to A) assess kidney function.
B) determine respiratory insufficiency.
C) prevent dysrhythmias related to anesthesia.
D) measure functional liver capability.
Answer: C
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melanocytes give rise to the pigment melanin which is responsible for skin color. The melanocytes can be found in
A) Dermis
B) Superficial fascia
C) Epidermis
D) Loose connective tissue
Answer: C
Q2) A 30-year-old African American had surgery 6 months ago. Her incisional site is now raised, indurated, and shiny. This tissue growth is most likely a(n) A) angioma.
B) keloid.
C) melanoma.
D) nevus.
Answer: B
Q3) Stage 2
A) Freedom from wound infection
B) Hypovolemia
C) Circulatory overload
Answer: C
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first priority nursing intervention for an impending fat embolism is to administer A) oxygen in a respiratory emergency.
B) intravenous fluids in hypovolemic emergency.
C) Lasix IV for fluid overload.
D) blood therapy in a cardiac emergency.
Q2) The immediate medical management of any fracture is:
A) Observe patient for signs of shock.
B) Administer analgesics for pain.
C) Splint and elevate the involved part.
D) Apply heat to control pain.
Q3) A patient, age 44, has chronic osteomyelitis. He should be taught to A) take antibiotics prophylactically.
B) avoid trauma to the affected bone.
C) decrease activity levels.
D) increase dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D.
Q4) __________ traction is utilized to provide support for the patient with a hip fracture.
Q5) Among the most common fractures in older women are _______fractures.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient complains that he will never adjust to his colostomy. In this situation, it would be best for the nurse to
A) encourage him to express his concern.
B) suggest that he discuss his concerns with his physician.
C) counsel him that everything will be all right.
D) explain that his concerns will be dealt with when he is taught how to care for his colostomy.
Q2) A 63-year-old patient is admitted with acute diverticulitis. The most appropriate nursing intervention to lessen this patient's signs and symptoms of increased flatus and chronic constipation alternating with diarrhea, anorexia, and nausea would be to
A) encourage a diet high in fiber content.
B) reduce oral intake to rest the bowel.
C) encourage fluids to prevent dehydration.
D) administer laxatives to prevent secondary constipation.
Q3) The purpose of antibiotic therapy in treating stomach disorders is that it
A) eradicates H. pylori.
B) inhibits gastric acid secretion.
C) protects the gastric mucosa.
D) neutralizes or reduces the acidity of stomach contents.
Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which abnormal lab value would be found in a patient with a pathological condition of the liver?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C) pH 5.0
D) Ca- 125
Q2) Which medication would the nurse expect the physician to order postoperatively for a patient who has had a liver transplant?
A) Phenergan
B) Zofran
C) Aspirin
D) Cyclosporine
Q3) Esophageal varices can rupture as a result of increases in abdominal venous pressure. Which would increase the abdominal venous pressure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Coughing
B) Swallowing
C) Vomiting
D) Performing the Valsalva maneuver
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
Q2) Which nursing intervention does the nurse plan for a patient who has multiple myeloma?
A) Maintaining fluid intake of 3 to 4 L/day to dilute calcium load
B) Limiting activity to prevent pathological fractures
C) Administering narcotic analgesics continuously to control bone pain
D) Assessing for changes in size and characteristics of lymph nodes
Q3) If a patient is diagnosed with anemia, how are the tissues and cells affected?
A) More oxygen is able to be distributed in the cells and tissue.
B) More carbon monoxide is rapidly delivered to the cells and tissue.
C) Insufficient amounts of oxygen are delivered to the cells and tissue.
D) The tissue and cells are not affected.
Q4) Which is a normal blood value for eosinophils?
A) 0%
B) 3%
C) 6%
D) 12%
Q5) The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________.
Page 9
Q6) _____________ are leukocytes which destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted after the insertion of a pacemaker because of bradycardia. She asks what third-degree heart block is, and the nurse replies
A) "Coronary blood vessel occlusion causing slow contraction of the right ventricles."
B) "Sclerosis of cardiac valves causing slow pulse."
C) "A defect in AV junctions slows and impairs conduction of impulses from the SA node to the ventricles."
D) "Increased pressure in the pulmonary vessels."
Q2) A patient has a diagnosis of heart failure. When the nurse walks into his room, he is orthopneic. The patient is
A) sitting or standing in order to breathe deeply and comfortably.
B) complaining of sudden awakenings from sleep because of shortness of breath.
C) complaining of pain in lower extremities.
D) unable to respond to simple questions.
Q3) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a ___________, which is secreted by the heart in response to an expanded left ______________.
Q4) An _____________is an enlarged, dilated portion of an artery and may be the result of arteriosclerosis, trauma, or a congenital defect.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgeon administers nasal epinephrine to a patient after nasal surgery. The nurse explains to the patient that this is done primarily to A) anesthetize the nares.
B) reduce the possibility of bleeding.
C) enhance respiration
D) dry up the nasal mucus.
Q2) A patient, age 69, has emphysema. On assessing him, the nurse notes the presence of a "barrel chest." This pathology results from a(n)
A) increase in the lateromedial area from hypertrophy of mucous glands in the bronchi.
B) increased anteroposterior diameter caused by overinflation of the alveoli.
C) decrease in anteroposterior diameter caused by chronic dilation of the bronchi.
D) widening of the sternocostal area secondary to chronic constriction of smooth muscles in the airways leading to bronchospasms.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pleural effusion. The physician is most likely to order a ______________ to remove fluid from around the lungs so that the patient may breathe more easily.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 56-year-old patient with cancer of the bladder is recovering from a cystectomy with an ileal conduit. An important aspect in nursing interventions of the patient with an ileal conduit is
A) instructing the patient to void when the urge is felt.
B) maintenance of skin integrity.
C) prevention of tissue rejection.
D) limiting acid-ash foods.
Q2) A patient, age 71, has benign prostatic hypertrophy. He is recovering from a transurethral prostatic resection. The physician orders removal of the indwelling catheter 2 days after the TURP procedure. The patient should be instructed that at first he might experience
A) an intolerance to acidic fluids.
B) normal voiding patterns.
C) dribbling of urine.
D) no urine output for 6-8 hours.
Q3) Bladder distention may be assessed by palpating above the ___________
Q4) Aldactone (spironolactone) is classified as a ______________-sparing diuretic.
Q5) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q6) Exercises to increase muscle tone of the pelvic floor are known as ____________ exercises.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary clinical manifestation of hyperparathyroidism is
A) hypocalcemia.
B) hypercalcemia.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q2) A patient has type 1 diabetes (IDDM). The nurse is teaching her early signs and symptoms of insulin reaction, which include
A) abdominal pain and nausea.
B) dyspnea and pallor.
C) flushing of the skin and headache.
D) perspiration and a trembling sensation.
Q3) A patient has recently been diagnosed with acromegaly. Using Maslow's hierarchy, which of the nursing diagnoses listed below should be of the highest priority in caring for him?
A) Ineffective coping
B) Activity intolerance
C) Risk for trauma
D) Chronic low self-esteem
Q4) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factor influences older women's reluctance to seek medical care for problems of the reproductive system?
A) Embarrassment and cultural factors
B) Denial
C) Religious convictions
D) Lack of free time
Q2) A mammogram is the most useful method of diagnosing breast cancer because it A) is the most reliable method of detecting breast cancer before it becomes palpable. B) is inexpensive and covered by most medical insurance plans.
C) involves no radiation and takes only a few minutes.
D) involves no pain or discomfort and is readily available.
Q3) A patient, age 46, is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy. Postoperative nursing interventions for her would include
A) monitoring apical pulses.
B) preventing urinary retention.
C) observing for facial distention.
D) assessing for lymphedema.
Q4) _____________ are benign tumors of the uterus.
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Q5) ________ are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored in the epididymis.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Otitis media is more frequently seen in children 6 to 36 months because A) eustachian tubes in children are shorter and straighter.
B) infection descends via the eustachian tube to the throat.
C) children's eustachian tubes are more vertical and longer.
D) otitis media is seen equally in both children and adults.
Q2) What factors must the nurse consider when assessing readiness to learn when teaching health promotion practices for the visually and hearing impaired? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cultural beliefs
B) Values
C) Habits
D) Income
E) Occupation
Q3) Rapid onset of decreased vision, halos around lights, and severe eye pain are indications of
A) closed-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) retinal detachment.
D) diabetic retinopathy.
Q4) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure is A) headache.
B) dilated pupil.
C) decreasing level of consciousness.
D) diplopia (double vision).
Q2) Which body system would the nurse choose to closely monitor in a patient diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) CNS
B) GI
C) Respiratory
D) Cardiovascular
Q3) Important nursing measures needed when feeding a hemiplegic patient include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Mixing liquids and solid foods together
B) Taking the patient's dentures out to prevent choking
C) Checking the affected side of mouth for food accumulation
D) Offering small bites of food
E) Elevating the patient to no more than 30 degrees
F) Adding a thickening agent to liquids
Q4) The avoidance of ___________ __________ decreases the risk for lung cancer.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has held a unit conference on the specific immune response. Which statement by a colleague indicates an understanding of cell-mediated immune response? "Cell-mediated responses are
A) directed from humorally mediated B cells."
B) the direct attack of activated T-cell lymphocytes."
C) from cells matured in the bone marrow."
D) characterized by antigen-specific immunoglobulins."
Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for plasmapheresis. She asks the nurse why they are going to do this procedure. In forming an answer the nurse must remember that the purpose of plasmapheresis is to
A) add medication to relieve pain symptoms.
B) remove plasma-containing components that may be causing the disease.
C) remove waste products such as urea.
D) add saline or albumin that lubricates joints.
Q3) The purpose of immunotherapy is _____________.
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Q1) Most children with AIDS contracted their disease (Select all that apply.)
A) during intrauterine life with an HIV-positive mother.
B) during the birth process of an HIV-positive mother.
C) from other children who are HIV positive.
D) from receiving a transfusion contaminated with the HIV virus.
E) from breast feeding by an HIV-positive mother.
Q2) A patient is concerned about telling others he has HIV infection. In discussing his concerns, which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Care providers and sexual partners should be told about his diagnosis.
B) There is no reason to hide his disease.
C) Secrecy is a poor idea because it will lower his self-esteem.
D) His diagnosis will be obvious to most people with whom he will come into contact.
Q3) Snacks such as bananas and apricot nectar, which are high in potassium, are recommended because
A) electrolytes are lost through fever.
B) diarrhea is a common problem.
C) snacks help fight fatigue.
D) potassium helps fight infection.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seeking medical attention when any cancer warning signs occur is frequently delayed because of
A) difficulty accessing a physician or getting a referral consult.
B) lack of knowledge of the seven warning signs of cancer.
C) fear of the possible diagnosis of cancer and hoping signs will go away.
D) self-examination being complex and difficult to perform.
Q2) A patient has been told she will have a palliative surgery for her ovarian cancer. She wants to know what type of surgery that is and how it will help her. The nurse tells her that the surgery will
A) reduce symptoms.
B) remove tumors while still in the benign stage.
C) result in a cure.
D) aid in confirming a diagnosis.
Q3) The term ____________ is used for various substances that are known to contribute to cancer.
Q4) _________ is the term for uncontrolled or abnormal growth of cells. They may be benign or malignant.
Q5) Men over age 50 should have annual _________ tests and rectal examinations.
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