Clinical Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology is the study of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, that cause infectious diseases in humans. The course covers the identification, characterization, and classification of clinically significant pathogens, as well as diagnostic techniques used in medical laboratories. Emphasis is placed on understanding microbial pathogenesis, host immune responses, mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance, and principles of infection control. Students will gain practical knowledge on specimen collection, interpretation of laboratory results, and the clinical significance of various infectious agents, preparing them for roles in healthcare, diagnostics, and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 4th Edition by Marjorie Kelly
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The number one worldwide infectious diseases are A)AIDS-related diseases.
B)diarrheal diseases.
C)malaria diseases.
D)measles.
E)respiratory diseases. Answer: E
Q3) The smallest and most significant taxon is A)genus.
B)species.
C)kingdom.
D)family.
E)phylum.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the condenser?
A)objective lens
B)ocular lens
C)condenser
D)body
E)iris diaphragm
Answer: E
Q2) Basic dyes are
A)attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.
B)anionic.
C)used in negative staining.
D)repelled by cells.
E)dyes such as India ink and nigrosin.
Answer: A
Q3) The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs A)illumination.
B)resolution.
C)magnification.
D)size of the field.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Prokaryotic Profiles: The Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The cell _____ can be composed of three layers: the cell membrane,the cell wall,and the outer membrane.
A)glycocalyx
B)envelope
C)pathogenic package
D)slime coat
Q2) The slime layer gives bacteria a greater pathogenicity as compared to the capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid.What is the identity of this structure?
A)cell wall
B)capsule
C)slime layer
D)nucleoid
E)endospore
Q4) Some bacteria have a cytoskeleton of sterols to help maintain their shape.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell walls of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the prokaryotic cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Protozoan cysts are
A)part of all protozoan life cycles.
B)necessary for transmission to a new host.
C)analogous to bacterial endospores.
D)the primary form of replication.
E)are involved in binary fission.
Q3) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The group of protozoa that are not motile are the A)amoebas.
B)ciliates.
C)trophozoites.
D)Plasmodium sp.
E)dimorphics.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) When a virus enters a host cell,the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infectious protein particles are called A)viroids.
B)phages.
C)prions.
D)oncogenic viruses.
E)spikes.
Q3) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a/n _____ cell culture.
A)initial
B)primary
C)secondary
D)continuous
E)positive
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Q1) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated in a standard incubator,in an anaerobic jar,and in a candle jar.After incubation,there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars,but heavy growth of the culture in the incubator.This species is a/n
A)aerobe.
B)anaerobe.
C)facultative anaerobe.
D)microaerophile.
E)capnophile.
Q2) The time it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is primarily governed by the generation time of that species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a/n A)aerobe.
B)obligate aerobe.
C)facultative anaerobe.
D)microaerophile.
E)obligate anaerobe.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Q1) Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following pertain to glycolysis except
A)occurs without oxygen.
B)ends with formation of pyruvic acid.
C)occurs during fermentation.
D)degrades glucose to CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
E)involves reduction of NAD.
Q3) An apoenzyme is
A)part of a simple enzyme.
B)also called a coenzyme.
C)the protein part of a holoenzyme.
D)often an inorganic metal ion.
E)an RNA molecule.
Q4) Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein,making it nonfunctional.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A)protein.
B)nucleotide.
C)amino acid.
D)purine.
Q2) Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A)promoter.
B)operator.
C)operon.
D)exon.
E)intron.
Q4) Split genes
A)are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B)only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C)have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D)are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) Making new genomes is called
A)bioengineering.
B)synthetic biology.
C)genetic engineering.
D)cloning.
E)recombinant DNA.
Q2) Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
A)polymerase chain reaction.
B)DNA sequencing.
C)gene probes.
D)Southern blot.
E)Western blot.
Q3) The process of introducing a needed,normal gene,into human cells is called DNA mapping.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host,in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) _____ solution was introduced in the late 19th century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal.
A)Merthiolate
B)Triclosan
C)Betadine
D)Silver nitrate
E)Zinc oxide
Q2) Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacterium in a capped culture tube?
A)ultraviolet (germicidal)light
B)gamma rays
C)121<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
D)160<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C for 2 hours
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by
A)blocking its synthesis.
B)digesting it.
C)denaturing proteins.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ___ infections.
A)gram-positive bacterial
B)gram-negative bacterial
C)fungal
D)protozoan
E)viral
Q2) What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin)for superficial skin infections?
A)vancomycin
B)bacitracin
C)chloramphenicol
D)streptomycin
E)clindamycin
Q3) Aminoglycosides
A)interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan.
B)are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.
C)attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.
D)damage cell membranes.
E)block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Q1) Once a microbe has entered a host,what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes?
A)phagocytosis
B)adhesion
C)encapsulation
D)margination
E)exocytosis
Q2) A pathologic state begins with contact with a microbe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hyaluronidase is a virulence factor in A)amoebic dysentery.
B)ringworm.
C)clostridia.
D)cold virus.
E)diphtheria.
Q4) When an infected person is in the incubation period,that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to interferon except A)is a protein.
B)is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells.
C)includes alpha,beta,and gamma types.
D)inhibits viruses,tumors,and cancer gene expression.
E)increases capillary permeability and vasodilation.
Q2) When monocytes migrate from the blood,out to the tissues,they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into
A)primary phagocytes.
B)neutrophils.
C)killer T cells.
D)cytotoxic T cells.
E)macrophages.
Q3) All of the following are events of early inflammation except A)macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
B)chemical mediators and cytokines are released.
C)brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
D)exudate and pus can accumulate.
E)capillaries become more permeable,resulting in edema.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK)cells
Q3) Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Q1) Place these events in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis in order,with 1 being the first step.
- chemical absorbed through skin
- antigen identified by dendritic cell
- cytokine chemicals attract macrophages,dendritic cells,and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to site of antigen
- sensitized T lymphocytes recognize antigen and make cytokine chemicals -chemicals released from phagocytic cells and cytotoxic T cells,resulting in host tissue damage
Q2) Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor,
A)all other Rh<sup>+</sup> fetuses are at risk.
B)she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C)she can never again have a low risk pregnancy.
D)only future Rh<sup>-</sup> fetuses are at risk.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Precipitation tests involve all of the following except
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react.
Q2) What type of test will detect cell-associated antigens?
A)cross-reaction
B)agglutination
C)precipitation
D)specificity
E)sensitivity
Q3) Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test?
A)Ouchterlony double diffusion
B)Western blot
C)immunelectrophoresis
D)radioimmunoassay (RIA)
E)the Quellung test
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) All of the following pertain to monkeypox except A)symptoms include skin pocks,fever,and swollen lymph nodes.
B)periodic outbreaks have occurred in Africa.
C)transmission is typically by contact with monkeys,squirrels,and rats.
D)a recent U.S.outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat.
E)the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent,with fewer outbreaks in humans.
Q2) Transmission of tineas include
A)human to human.
B)animal to human.
C)soil to human.
D)fomites to human.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The integument includes all of the following except A)skin.
B)hair.
C)nails.
D)sweat glands.
E)surface capillaries.
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) Polio virus initially multiplies in the A)intestine.
B)CNS.
C)lymphoid tissue.
D)basal ganglia.
Q2) The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the A)reduviid "kissing" bug.
B)Tsetse fly.
C)Anopheles mosquito.
D)Phlebotomine (sand)fly.
E)hard-bodied tick.
Q3) Which of the following is not a prion disease?
A)scrapie
B)Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
C)bovine spongiform encephalopathy
D)subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Q4) No cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is
A)Salmonella typhimurium.
B)Yersinia enterocolitica.
C)Bartonella henselae.
D)Brucella suis.
E)Francisella tularensis.
Q2) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme,Connecticut.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except A)have an immunodeficiency.
B)have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm<sup>3</sup> of blood.
C)get repeated,life-threatening,opportunistic infections.
D)can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders.
E)highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas,air conditioners,cooling towers,and supermarket vegetable misters?
A)legionellosis
B)pertussis
C)brucellosis
D)plague
E)traveler's diarrhea
Q2) The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A)DTaP.
B)Pneumovax.
C)MMR.
D)Hib.
Q3) Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of all of the following except A)influenza.
B)rhinitis.
C)legionella.
D)diphtheria.
E)SARS.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?
A)transmitted by the oral-fecal route.
B)has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver,and darkened urine.
C)predisposes a person for liver cancer.
D)Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity.
E)HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.
Q2) Having just returned from a vacation in South America,you find that you now have a severe diarrheal illness.Your symptoms,other than diarrhea,are pain,cramps,some fecal blood,and fever.These are symptoms of many of the gastrointestinal diseases,so that information does not help you or the doctors identify the infectious agent.Your doctor wants to send a sample of your feces down to the microbiology lab for them to look at it under the light microscope.Based upon this protocol selection,the physician believes that have:
A)cholera
B)salmonellosis
C)hepatitis A
D)amoebiasis
E)rotavirus
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Even after a positive test for a microbial cause,prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy.Why?
A)It is a viral infection.
B)Induced drug side-effects are too great.
C)Mixed biofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics.
D)The infection is sporadic.
Q2) The rash of secondary syphilis
A)causes severe itching.
B)is intensely painful.
C)only lasts a few days.
D)can last for months.
E)does not impair function.
Q3) You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years,with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year.You are pregnant,and about to deliver your baby.What does your doctor suggest,now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?
A)have an abortion
B)deliver the baby and put it on high dose antivirals
C)give you high dose antibiotics,such as penicillin
D)cesarean section
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)is
A)removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
B)a source of carbon.
C)returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation.
D)used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which microorganism is considered phytoplankton?
A)nitrogen fixing bacteria
B)cyanobacteria
C)sulfur reducers
D)mycorrhizae
Q3) A Paramecium is an example of a
A)primary consumer.
B)quaternary consumer.
C)secondary consumer.
D)primary producer.
E)tertiary consumer.
Q4) The primary role of producers is the recycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Place the steps of the water purification process in order.
A)filtration and settling,chemical disinfection,aeration,release into a water reservoir
B)aeration,filtration and settling,chemical disinfection,release into a water reservoir
C)chemical disinfection,aeration,filtration and settling,release into a water reservoir
D)release into a water reservoir,aeration,filtration and settling,chemical disinfection
Q2) Yeast fermentation in breads is aerobic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common substrate for industrial fermentation products is:
A)alcohol
B)cholesterol
C)nucleotides
D)molasses
Q4) Freezing chicken does not kill Salmonella.
A)True
B)False
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