Clinical Laboratory Science
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and practical techniques used in clinical diagnostic laboratories. The course covers essential topics such as hematology, clinical chemistry, immunology, microbiology, and molecular diagnostics, highlighting their roles in disease detection, monitoring, and treatment. Emphasis is placed on laboratory safety, quality assurance, specimen collection and handling, data interpretation, and ethical considerations. Through lectures, hands-on laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain the knowledge and skills necessary to perform, evaluate, and interpret laboratory tests critical to patient care in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adequate time is needed for antigen-antibody reactions to reach equilibrium.The amount of time needed for equilibrium to be reached
A)Is about 30 minutes
B)Is about 60 minutes
C)Is about 90 minutes
D)Varies with each procedure
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following statements about the innate immune system are true except
A)Acts within minutes or hours of exposure to an infectious organism
B)Includes anatomic and cellular defenses
C)Includes humoral and microbiological defenses
D)Is adaptive
Answer: D
Q3) Which is the principle isotype found in blood and extracellular fluid?
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true except
A)The null phenotype is the inheritance of genes that code for no expression of the usual blood group antigens for that system.
B)An amorphic gene expresses a phenotype and can be called the silent gene.
C)Interaction among alleles or the products of different genes may modify the expression of a trait.
D)The HLA genes are linked and are inherited as haplotypes.
Answer: B
Q2) DNA is made up of nucleotides.How many bases do nucleotides have?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Five
Answer: C
Q3) When alleles at a given locus on both chromosomes are identical they are
A)antithetical
B)indecipherable
C)heterozygous
D)homozygous
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In transfusion medicine,the antihuman globulin (AHG)technique is used for numerous purposes including
A)Analyzing DNA
B)Detecting unexpected antibodies
C)Diagnosing the presence of human globulin
D)Inspecting microorganisms
Answer: B
Q2) During the incubation phase of an antibody screen test,how long should the test tubes be incubated?
A)5-10 minutes
B)10-30 minutes
C)Depends on the temperature of incubation
D)Depends on the enhancement reagent added
Answer: D
Q3) The most common cause for the check cells not reacting is
A)Incorrect use of tubes
B)Improper washing
C)Malfunctioning equipment
D)Too much time in the centrifuge
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most ABO antibodies are
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q2) What is the immunodominant sugar of the A antigen?
A)D-galactose
B)D-glucose
C)N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
D)L-fucose
Q3) Alloantibodies that cause problems in ABO typing include
A)anti-Jk
B)anti-P1
C)A lectin
D)A lectin
Q4) Which of the following individuals first described the ABO blood group system?
A)Decastello
B)Landsteiner
C)Sturli
D)Yamamoto
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigen is routinely tested for in all blood donors and recipients in most countries? A)C B)D C)E D)O
Q2) Which chromosome carries the two Rh genes? A)1 B)6 C)7 D)9
Q3) The RHD gene codes for the ____ antigen.
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many antigens are there in the Duffy blood group system?
A)3
B)6
C)8
D)9
Q2) How many antigens are in the Cartwright blood group system?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) Which antigens in the Lutheran system are not high-incidence antigens?
A)Au ,Au ,and Lu
B)Au ,Au ,and Lu
C)Lu ,Lu ,and AnWj
D)Lu ,Lu ,and Lu3
Q4) Antibodies in the Ii blood group system are usually
A)IgG alloantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at body temperature
B)IgG autoantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at room temperature
C)IgM alloantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at body temperature
D)IgM autoantibodies that are detected when testing occurs at room temperature
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false?
A)Downtime procedures are vital in a laboratory that performs electronic crossmatches.
B)Downtime procedures encompass back entry of results once the LIS is functioning again.
C)During downtime,antiglobulin crossmatch should be performed on all specimens if recipients requiring an antiglobulin crossmatch cannot be identified.
D)During downtime,immediate spin crossmatches will be rarely performed instead of electronic crossmatches.
Q2) When blood components are ordered all of the following are true except
A)Name of the physician placing the order must be indicated
B)Orders should be placed to ensure sufficient time to perform complete testing
C)Requests must include the number and type of components required
D)Requests must only be made using a written request form
Q3) In order for patients to give informed consent,they must first
A)be educated about the risks and benefits
B)be scheduled for an appointment
C)have a diagnosis
D)sign a waiver
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antibody screen cell with the following phenotype,dce/dec,Fy (a-b+),Jk (a+b+),could be used to exclude or rule out which of the following antibodies?
A)Anti-Fy
B)Anti-Fy
C)Anti-Jk
D)Anti-Jk
Q2) Enhancement reagents are also called
A)Antigrams
B)Elutions
C)Potentiators
D)Titrations
Q3) In transfusion medicine,what is the definition of neutralization?
A)Inactivation of an antibody by adsorption onto red blood cells
B)Inactivation of an antibody by combination with a soLu le antigen
C)Inactivation of an antigen by a genetic mutation
D)Inactivation of an antigen by combination with a plasma antibody
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection,
Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations licenses blood centers in the United States?
A)AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)
B)ARC (American Red Cross)
C)CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
D)FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
Q2) The AABB Standards require a donor's temperature to be less than or equal to
A)98.0° F (36.7° C)
B)98.7° F (37.0° C)
C)99.0° F (37.2° C)
D)99.5° F (37.5° C)
Q3) What would be the deferral period for an individual who has been taking insulin from cows (bovine or beef insulin)?
A)6 months
B)3 years
C)Indefinite
D)Permanent
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Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma fractionation produces what three categories of protein concentrates?
A)Albumin,beta globulins,and coagulation factors
B)Albumin,immune globulins,and coagulation factors
C)Haptoglobin,immune globulins,and coagulation factors
D)Haptoglobin,immune globulins,and complement factors
Q2) All of the following anticoagulants have been approved for blood bank use in the United States except
A)ACD
B)CPD
C)CPDA-1
D)CP3D
Q3) Which statement about the blood storage lesion is false?
A)All the changes are irreversible.
B)Changes affect all components of the blood.
C)Stored red blood cells continue to metabolize.
D)White blood cells reLease cytokines and enzymes.
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used as a presurgical prophylaxis to reduce or prevent bleeding in patients with mild hemophilia A?
A)Desmopressin
B)G-CSF
C)Vitamin K
D)Recombinant EPO
Q2) Which of the following modifications can help to prevent the formation of antibodies to HLA antigens?
A)Freezing
B)Irradiation
C)Leukoreduction
D)Washing
Q3) Community-directed donation programs are often used to find donors for patients suffering from one of which two diseases?
A)Anemia or coagulopathy
B)Hemophilia A or hemophilia B
C)Leukemia or lymphoma
D)Sickle cell anemia or thalassemia
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of delayed hemolytic reactions?
A)Are associated with complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis.
B)Are associated with extravascular hemolysis.
C)Are the most common reactions to occur during blood transfusion.
D)Occur immediately after exposure to a transfused component.
Q2) Initial laboratory investigation of a suspected transfusion reaction includes all of the following except
A)ABO testing of post-transfusion blood specimen
B)Clerical check of label and tags on transfused component
C)Direct antiglobulin test on post-transfusion blood specimen
D)Inspection for visible hemolysis in pretransfusion urine specimen
Q3) All of the following are signs and symptoms of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction except
A)Fever
B)Muscle cramps
C)Chest pain
D)Dyspnea
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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is a fatal neurological disease whose causative agent may be transmitted by transfusion of human blood?
A)CJD
B)vCJD
C)CWD
D)FSE
Q2) In what year was the West Nile virus first identified as an emerging threat in the United States?
A)1940
B)1976
C)1981
D)1999
Q3) In the United States,donated blood is tested for markers to the microbes that cause all of the following except
A)Chagas disease
B)Lyme disease
C)Syphilis
D)Tropical spastic paraparesis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal range for hemoglobin level in a healthy,full-term newborn is approximately
A)10.0-12.0 g/dL (100-120 g/L)
B)14.0-20.0 g/dL (140-200 g/L)
C)20.0-25.0 g/dL (200-250 g/L)
D)23.0-32.0 g/dL (230-320 g/L)
Q2) All of the following are known to be IgM antibodies and have not been found to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)except
A)Anti-Le
B)Anti-Le
C)Anti-M
D)Anti-P1
Q3) An exchange transfusion will accomplish all of the following except
A)Reduce the amount of antibody-coated red blood cells in the newborn's circulation
B)Reduce the amount of maternal antibody in the newborn's circulation
C)Reduce the bilirubin level in the newborn's circulation
D)Reduce the hemoglobin level in the newborn's circulation
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common underlying etiology of cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)?
A)Autoimmune conditions
B)Bacterial or viral infections
C)Lymphoproliferative disorders
D)Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q2) A positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT)results in a(an)
A)anemic patient is sufficient to diagnose an autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B)healthy blood donor is suggestive of anemia and should be investigated
C)hospitalized patient is sufficient to diagnose hyperhemolysis
D)recently transfused patient should be investigated as a possible transfusion reaction
Q3) Red blood cell phenotyping by serologic methods can only be performed on specimens from patients who have
A)been transfused in the last 6 months
B)been transfused in the last year
C)not been transfused in the last month
D)not been transfused in the last 3 months
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Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three most common human platelet antigen (HPA)antibodies implicated in platelet refractoriness?
A)Anti-HPA-1a,anti-HPA-2a,anti-HPA-5a
B)Anti-HPA-1b,anti-HPA-2a,anti-HPA-5a
C)Anti-HPA-1b,anti-HPA-2b,anti-HPA-5a
D)Anti-HPA-1b,anti-HPA-2b,anti-HPA-5b
Q2) Currently how many human platelet antigens (HPAs)have been identified?
A)12
B)18
C)24
D)32
Q3) Platelets removed from circulation and stored by the spleen best describes which of the following terms?
A)Platelet alloimmunization
B)Platelet consumption
C)Platelet refractoriness
D)Platelet sequestration
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Q1) Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)is
A)prevented through leukoreduction
B)almost universally fatal
C)caused by engraftment of donor B lymphoctyes
D)most often diagnosed in immunocompetent patients
Q2) What is the recommended hematocrit in patients with end-stage renal disease?
A)22-25% (0.22-0.25)
B)28-33% (0.28-0.33)
C)33-36% (0.33-0.36)
D)36-42% (0.36-0.42)
Q3) Which of the following best describes an exchange transfusion?
A)Removal of patient's plasma and replacement with normal saline
B)Removal of patient's red blood cells and replacement with donor red blood cells
C)Transfusion of phenotype-matched donor red blood cells
D)Transfusion of irradiated donor red blood cells
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Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Q1) If all possible alleles have the same nucleotide sequence in the exons coding for the peptide-binding domains,the string is reported as the possible allele with the lowest number followed by a capital A)A
B)D C)G
D)P
Q2) All of the following describe the adaptive immune system except
A)Also known as the natural immune system
B)Consists of antigen presenting cells
C)Displays an anamnestic response
D)Is involved in allograft rejection
Q3) All of the following are true about HLA class I molecules except
A)Are expressed only on antigen presenting cells
B)Includes a 45 kDa glycoprotein heavy chain
C)Includes a 12 kDa -2 microglobulin light chain
D)Has a peptide-binding cleft that reacts with short peptides
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Q1) Which of the following legislation was passed with the hopes of reducing welfare costs by collecting from delinquent parents?
A)Aid to Families with Dependent Children
B)Child Support Enforcement Act
C)Promoting Safe and Stable Families
D)Victims of Child Abuse
Q2) Which probability encompasses the level of certainty that the alleged parents had a relationship that could have produced the child involved in the relatedness testing?
A)Anterior
B)Conditional
C)Posterior
D)Prior
Q3) Which part of the Hardy-Weinberg equation expressed as p² + 2pq + q² = 1 predicts the number of people who are heterozygous for a given allele?
A)p²
B)2pq
C)q²
D)1
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21
Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) When was the first license for a blood bank issued?
A)1902
B)1934
C)1946
D)1962
Q2) Which code of federal regulations contains the rules for blood product safety?
A)CFR title 10
B)CFR title 21
C)CFR title 29
D)CFR title 42
Q3) Which organization enforces CLIA?
A)AMA
B)CBER
C)CMS
D)FDA
Q4) Routine inspections include an evaLu tion of how many layers of blood safety?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Four
D)Five
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Q1) Which agency is responsible for regulating transfusion services in the United States?
A)AABB
B)CAP
C)FDA
D)JCAHO
Q2) The AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services are divided into how many quality system essentials?
A)10
B)13
C)21
D)23
Q3) Process control is defined as
A)a system that standardizes facility documents
B)activities used to create a controlled environment for processes and procedures
C)documented evidence that provides a high degree of assurance that a specific process will consistently produce a product meeting predetermined specifications
D)standardization of an analytic instrument
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