Clinical Exercise Physiology Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Exercise Physiology explores the physiological responses and adaptations to exercise in individuals with chronic diseases and medical conditions. This course covers fundamental concepts of clinical exercise testing, prescription, and programming for populations such as those with cardiovascular, pulmonary, metabolic, and musculoskeletal disorders. Students will learn how to assess health status, design safe and effective exercise interventions, and interpret clinical data to promote health, functional capacity, and quality of life. The course integrates current research, case studies, and evidence-based practices to prepare students for roles in clinical and rehabilitation settings.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter
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Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing Contemporary Physical
Therapy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based noninvasive interventions that address lifestyle-related conditions and are consistent with the needs of contemporary PT practice include smoking abstinence,good nutrition,weight control,exercise and:
A) monitoring blood hemoglobin values.
B) stress management.
C) psychological counseling.
D) vocational training.
Answer: B
Q2) The World Health Organization definition of health encompasses which of the following dimensions?
A) Physical and emotional well-being and home environment
B) Emotional, physical, and educational well-being
C) Physical, emotional, and social well-being
D) Emotional, physical, and cultural well-being
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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Q1) The effects of recumbency (bed rest)on patients have been described as detrimental and leading to a state of general deconditioning.This negative condition can be affected through the interventions of physical therapy by simply:
A) providing progressive resistive exercise to patients.
B) providing instruction in the most appropriate form of diaphragmatic breathing.
C) restoration of upright positioning.
D) providing supplemental oxygenation during activities.
Answer: C
Q2) Concerning the process of oxygen transport,all of the following are essential to the process except:
A) cellular uptake of oxygen.
B) utilization of oxygen in the tissue.
C) delivery of fully oxygenated blood to the peripheral tissue.
D) return of oxygenated blood to the lungs for exchange.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Q1) The accessory action of the internal intercostal muscles is said to be:
A) inspiration.
B) expiration.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) neither inspiration nor expiration.
Answer: C
Q2) The mucociliary escalator,which is responsible for propelling mucus by the cilia,can become paralyzed.When this occurs,mucus accumulates in the distal airways.All of the following are potential causes of paralyzation for the escalator except:
A) smoking.
B) hypoxia.
C) anesthesia.
D) supplemental O .
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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Q1) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the right results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?
A) Skeletal muscle at rest
B) Anemia
C) Polycythemia
D) None of the above
Q2) When preparing to position a patient for a planned intervention,the physical therapist should consider to prevent a stressful respiratory event for the patient.
A) Ventilation and perfusion matching
B) Respiratory mechanics
C) Oxyhemoglobin dissociation
D) Peripheral circulation
Q3) The period of time in the cardiac cycle when the ventricles fill with blood is known as:
A) ventricular systole.
B) ventricular isovolumic.
C) ventricular diastole.
D) ventricular ejection.
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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Q1) The known causes of pulmonary fibrosis are either environmental or occupational.All of the following are known causes EXCEPT:
A) inhaled fungi spores.
B) toxic gases.
C) drugs or poisons.
D) inorganic dust.
Q2) Patients seen after having a myocardial infraction (MI)recover at various rates depending on the complicated versus uncomplicated nature of the MI.What is the most important factor for determining the prognosis of a patient for a physical therapist planning a rehabilitation program for that patient after MI?
A) Persistence of angina
B) Extent of ventricular damage
C) Use of nitrates versus antiarrhythmic agents
D) Pre-insult exercise intensity
Q3) Stable angina pectoris is responsive to:
A) nitrates.
B) calcium channel blockers.
C) beta-blockers.
D) ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Q1) A patient with a diagnosis of HIV is complaining of dyspnea and hemoptysis.The patient describes the presence of a cough,and plain radiographs demonstrate diffuse pulmonary infiltrates.This patient has had several bouts of pneumonia within the past year; he has sought treatment but finds it difficult to stay on a regimen given his travel (the patient resides abroad).He is likely to be diagnosed with which condition?
A) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
B) Tuberculosis
C) Klebsiella pneumonia
D) Legionella pneumonia
Q2) A patient seen by a physical therapist after a stroke with the clinical presentation of abdominal muscle weakness and pharyngeal weakness is at risk for:
A) diaphragmatic excursion.
B) aspiration.
C) unilateral posture.
D) impaired biomechanics.
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8
Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Q1) Which best describes reliability?
A) A measurement that is ordered or ranked
B) The consistency or reproducibility of a measurement
C) Measurements that provide meaningful information and accurately reflect the characteristic for which the measure is intended
D) A measurement that has a high level of relative error
Q2) Which is the best example of a nominal measurement?
A) A classification of heart failure
B) Grade 1 angina
C) 0° Celsius
D) 0° Kelvin
Q3) How does the therapist determine if a goal has been met?
A) By assuming the patient is telling the truth
B) By asking the patient's family member
C) By observing or measuring the activity of the goal
D) By asking another clinician
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9
Chapter 8: History
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Q1) Which is true regarding dyspnea on exertion?
A) Dyspnea on exertion is not a common complaint of patients with cardiopulmonary dysfunction.
B) Dyspnea during exercise or exertion usually follows dyspnea at rest.
C) Dyspnea during exercise or exertion usually precedes dyspnea at rest.
D) It is not a concern with those with congestive heart failure.
Q2) What is the measurement of the internal surface of the lungs?
A) 50 to 100 m³
B) 100 to 150 m³
C) 10 to 50 m³
D) 500 to 1000 m³
Q3) Which best describes esophageal chest pain?
A) It is usually found in patients with mitral stenosis.
B) This type of chest pain usually is absent at rest, occurs during exertion, and is invariably associated with dyspnea.
C) It may be accompanied by syncope and the Raynaud phenomenon.
D) It is often confused with cardiac pain because it is located substernally.
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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Q1) When is a pulmonary function test indicated and ordered?
A) When a patient complains of increased chest pain accompanied with good lung function
B) When a physician is concerned with increased cardiac output
C) When a patient goes to a primary physician or a specialist with complaints of shortness of breath, cough, decreased activity, and dyspnea
D) When a patient is concerned regarding his or her ability to increase running from 10 to 15 miles
Q2) In regards to vital capacity (VC),which is true?
A) It contains the IRV, TV, and TLC.
B) An increase in VC can occur as a result of absolute reduction in distensible lung tissue.
C) A decrease in VC may also be seen only with primary lung disease or airway obstruction.
D) VC is the maximum amount of gas that can be expelled from the lungs by forceful effort after a maximum inspiration.
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Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Q1) When tissue Po decreases,what tissues send a response to the brain is to increase ventilation and cardiac output?
A) Lungs
B) Kidneys
C) The heart
D) The carotid and aortic bodies
Q2) What are the normal arterial pH values?
A) 7.80 to 9.0
B) 2.5 to 5.0
C) 6.35 to 7.2
D) 7.35 to 7.45
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding acceptable ranges for arterial blood gases?
A) pH of 5.30 to 6.50
B) pH of 7.45 and above alkalemia
C) pH of 7.35 and below alkalemia
D) PCO of 10 to 20 mm Hg
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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Q1) Which is true regarding the position of the diaphragm?
A) The costophrenic angles are where the diaphragm meets the pelvis.
B) The L diaphragm is usually lower than the R diaphragm.
C) The R diaphragm is usually lower than the L diaphragm.
D) The costophrenic angles at the apex of the chest cavity are where fluid can accumulate.
Q2) On a radiograph,what does the dark area represent?
A) Pockets of air within the body
B) Fatty areas within the body
C) Muscle and other soft tissues
D) Bones within the body
Q3) Which best describes a pneumothorax?
A) It is an area that appears white because of increased tissue density.
B) It does not appear in chest imaging.
C) It causes part of the lung to collapse, creating a less dense empty space in the chest cavity that is devoid of any pulmonary or vascular markings.
D) It fills the chest cavity with fluid that is denser than normal lung tissue.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following causes the plateau phase during repolarization?
A) Outward flow of K ions is balanced by an inward flow of Ca² ions.
B) Influx of Na ions is much slower than Ca² ions.
C) K pumps are inactive after depolarization.
D) The amount of Na ions on both sides of the membrane are balanced at this point of the action potential.
Q2) Which heart conduction block is characterized by a longer P-R interval (>0.2 sec)?
A) Sinus block
B) First degree
C) Second degree
D) Third degree
Q3) Where do supraventricular dysrhythmias occur?
A) At the level of the SA node
B) Above the level of the atria
C) Above the level of the ventricles
D) At the level of the AV node
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14
Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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Q1) Which test is used to diagnose and monitor the treatment of acute pancreatitis?
A) CBC
B) Amylase test
C) Electrolyte levels
D) Creatinine test
Q2) What is a normal total cholesterol level for a man younger than the age of 40 years?
A) 50 mg/dL
B) 100 mg/dL
C) 150 mg/dL
D) 300 mg/dL
Q3) Which of the following is taken from circulating blood by the thyroid to eventually create thyroid hormones?
A) Iodine
B) Insulin
C) Glucose
D) Albumin
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Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Q1) What type of imaging is not appropriate for an overly obese patient or one who is unable to remain immobile?
A) SPECT
B) Planar
C) Echocardiography
D) Radionuclide
Q2) Which test for the cardiovascular system would be most appropriate for a patient with an irregular heart beat who has difficulty exercising?
A) Treadmill stress test
B) First-pass study
C) Gated equilibrium scan
D) Pharmacologic stress study
Q3) Which testing provides direct measurements of heart chamber pressures,blood flow,and oxygen saturation?
A) Cardiac ventriculography
B) Echocardiography
C) Computed tomography
D) Cardiac catheterization
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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the Cardiovascular
and Pulmonary
Systems
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Q1) Which heart sound is normal in children and young adults but abnormal in individuals older than age 40 years?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
Q2) Which breathing pattern exists when respiration is slowed to less than 12 breaths/min?
A) Tachypnea
B) Bradypnea
C) Eupnea
D) Kussmaul breathing
Q3) Which adventitious breath sounds are described as discontinuous,low-pitched sounds?
A) Crackles
B) Rhonchi
C) Wheezes
D) Whistles
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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) What is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A) Decreased peripheral blood pressure
B) Changes in consciousness
C) Pallor and skin dryness
D) Hyporeflexia
Q2) Which of the following is an example of upper motor neuron involvement?
A) Progressive muscle weakness
B) The Babinski sign
C) Hyperreflexia
D) All of the above
Q3) What is the normal range for pulmonary artery pressure (PAP)?
A) 7 to 12 mm Hg
B) 15 to 20 mm Hg
C) 20 to 30 mm Hg
D) 30 to 35 mm Hg
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Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an Individuals Needs
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Q1) The position of optimal physiological function is:
A) being upright and moving.
B) lying horizontal.
C) sitting with legs at a 90-degree angle.
D) being in a standing position.
Q2) With respect to cardiopulmonary complications,a 1- or 2-hourly:
A) exercise regimen is commonly accepted.
B) turning regimen is commonly accepted.
C) walking regimen is commonly accepted.
D) sitting regimen is commonly accepted.
Q3) Health has been defined by the World Health Organization as:
A) the absence of pathology.
B) a person's capacity to live a life consistent with his or her needs and wants.
C) emotional, spiritual, intellectual, and physical well-being.
D) a and
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Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,
evaluation, and Training
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Q1) Physical therapists exploit the effects of exercise in most patients and adapt the prescription based on the patient's:
A) clinical presentation and needs.
B) ability to pay or insurance coverage.
C) age and gender.
D) past exercise training.
Q2) An intervention-related factor that contributes to increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption is:
A) fever.
B) noise.
C) anxiety.
D) range of motion exercises.
Q3) For patients who are critically ill,the goal is to evaluate their oxygen transport reserve capacity and use it as a bias for:
A) estimating the limits of the patient's physiological tolerance for mobilization.
B) identifying the specific effects of exercise required.
C) adapting the prescription based on the patient's needs.
D) defining the optimal therapeutic stimulus.
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Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Q1) Because of the marked changes that can be expected with body positioning and body positioning changes,the physical therapist has a narrow window of opportunity to assess and:
A) treat the patient before, during, and after position changes.
B) treat the patient after position changes.
C) treat the patient before and during position changes.
D) treat the patient before position changes.
Q2) An increase in intrathoracic blood volume in the supine position also contributes to a(n):
A) higher risk of blood clots.
B) airway closure.
C) reduction in functional residual capacity (FRC) and lung compliance and to increase airway resistance.
D) hypotension.
Q3) The practice of routinely turning patients every 2 hours continues to be an:
A) unrealistic goal for the caregiver.
B) underused standard of care.
C) unaccepted standard of care.
D) accepted standard of care.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Q1) All of the following refer to bronchial hygiene techniques EXCEPT:
A) chest physical therapy.
B) tracheal tapping.
C) bronchial drainage.
D) chest physiotherapy.
Q2) ACT is the acronym for:
A) advanced cardiac treatment.
B) avascular coronary treatment.
C) airway clearance techniques.
D) always clear trachea.
Q3) Shaking consists of a bouncing maneuver in a rhythmic fashion throughout exhalation:
A) over the xyphoid process.
B) along the sternum.
C) against the thoracic wall.
D) between the ribs.
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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Q1) Light percussion,_______ and ________ are used in conjunction with postural drainage positioning:
A) vibration, clapping
B) clapping, shaking
C) vibration, shaking
D) soft clapping, shaking
Q2) The techniques of ________ and _______ are at opposite ends of a spectrum
A) vibration, clapping
B) clapping, shaking
C) vibration, gentle high-frequency force
D) vibration, shaking
Q3) All of the following are reasons for using manual hyperinflation on a patient EXCEPT:
A) the patient has an artificial airway.
B) the patient is mechanically ventilated.
C) the patient has a tracheostomy.
D) the patient has a productive cough.
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23
Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Q1) Three manually assisted techniques are:
A) anterior chest compression, long sitting, and hands-and-knees rocking.
B) anterior chest compression, counterrotation, and prone on elbows head flection.
C) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and long sitting.
D) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and counterrotation.
Q2) Deficiencies in glottal openings and expulsion are often related to:
A) brain injuries and coordination difficulties.
B) muscle injuries coordination difficulties.
C) skeletal injuries and movement.
D) spinal cord injuries and mobilization difficulties.
Q3) For both assisted and self-assisted coughs,initial positioning and ventilator strategies are of utmost importance to the:
A) success of insufflation technique.
B) success of exsufflation technique.
C) success of the airway clearance technique.
D) success of upper respiratory therapies.
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Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Q1) The following are all indications for teaching controlled-breathing techniques EXCEPT:
A) rib fractures.
B) endocrine disturbances.
C) airway clearance dysfunction.
D) apprehension or nervousness.
Q2) The trapezius muscle assists in superior expansion of the:
A) chest.
B) throat.
C) diaphragm.
D) trachea.
Q3) The pectorals muscle group provides powerful anterior and lateral expansion of the upper chest and can substitute quite effectively for paralyzed intercostal muscles in the: A) lower chest.
B) rib cage.
C) shoulder.
D) upper chest.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) There is an interaction between circadian rhythms and the pathogenesis of heart rate and blood pressure variability.The rhythms are under the influence of all except the following:
A) renal influence.
B) adrenal influence.
C) autonomic influence.
D) pituitary influence.
Q2) Although dyspnea is a common limiter to exercise and cardiac failure,the other factors that contribute to exercise limitation could include all but which of the following?
A) Hemodynamic impairments
B) Ventilator control impairments
C) Lung function impairments
D) Metabolic impairments
Q3) Prediction of the prognosis of individuals with chronic heart failure can be improved with which of the following measures?
A) 6-minute walk test
B) Two-step exercise test protocol
C) Timed up and go
D) Treadmill testing
26
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Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Limitation of mitochondrial oxidative capacity has been ruled out as a limiter of exercise capacity in patients with which of the following conditions?
A) Connective tissue disorders
B) Chronic renal failure
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Hepatopulmonary
Q2) Secondary cardiopulmonary dysfunction refers to dysfunction of the cardiopulmonary system that is a consequence of pathology other than primary chronic heart and lung disease.All of the following are examples EXCEPT:
A) endocrine.
B) hematologic.
C) connective tissue.
D) cardiomegaly.
Q3) Besides altered hemodynamic responses to exercise,individuals with spinal cord injury also are affected by:
A) temperature stress.
B) fluid stress.
C) pulmonary stress.
D) positional stress.
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Q1) Inspiratory muscle weakness is __________ and underlies ventilatory insufficiency and symptoms in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
A) rare
B) significant
C) infrequent
D) prominent
Q2) About 75% to 80% of patients who are mechanically ventilated can be:
A) expected to have respiratory muscle dysfunction.
B) weaned to breath spontaneously without difficulty.
C) expected to have poorer prognoses.
D) weaned to breath spontaneously but with much difficulty.
Q3) Respiratory muscle weakness increase:
A) the movement of the diaphragm.
B) alveolar inflation.
C) the relative load for breathing.
D) collateral circulation.
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28
Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Q1) Osteopathic medicine stresses the importance of:
A) believing that illness and disease result from vertebral misalignment and regular manipulation can maintain energy flow to organs and the body/mind
B) using light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column
C) holistic health, nutrition and joint mobilization to maintain proper balance and homeostasis
D) using hands-on therapy to enhance relaxation and emotional awareness
Q2) Complementary and alternative medical (CAM)therapies alter the mechanics of the:
A) musculoskeletal pump of the thorax
B) cardiopulmonary system
C) nervous system
D) spinal cord
Q3) Chinese medicine focuses on:
A) enhancing the flow of chi along body pathways or meridians
B) movement awareness techniques
C) acupressure
D) acupuncture
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Q1) As a physical therapist sets intervention goals for a patient,he or she should include:
A) the patient's physical limitations.
B) the patient's age and gender.
C) the patient's educational goals.
D) the patient's highest degree in education.
Q2) When a clinician uses the learning needs assessment survey,it allows for:
A) mistakes to be easily caught.
B) facilitation of optimal learning in a given patient or group.
C) less of a chance for the patient to reinjure themselves.
D) a quicker rehabilitation time.
Q3) The specific content of patient education materials and programs should be determined by:
A) the individual or the group being taught.
B) how quickly the patient can catch on to the education materials.
C) the age of the patient.
D) how long the treatment will continue.
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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Q1) All of the following are reasons why should forceful coughing be avoided in cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) forceful coughing does not result in mucus expulsion.
B) forceful coughing results in increased intrathoracic pressure.
C) forceful coughing contributes to airway closure.
D) forceful coughing can reduce cardiac output.
Q2) Which of the following pharmacologic approaches is MOST common to address hypertension?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Antihistamines
C) Inotropic agents
D) Digoxin
Q3) All of the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true EXCEPT:
A) cystic fibrosis is only genetic in origin.
B) lung involvement is the only clinical manifestation.
C) cystic fibrosis can result in hyperinflation of the chest.
D) chronic staphylococcal infections accompany cystic fibrosis.
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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Q1) You are performing preoperative counseling with a patient who will undergo coronary artery bypass grafting x 3 at the end of the week.Which of the following would be MOST appropriate preoperative counseling?
A) Review of modifiable patient risk factors
B) A detailed description of the surgical procedure
C) Preoperative informed consent
D) An overview of the risks associated with the surgical procedure
Q2) Incentive spirometry is:
A) more effective at removing secretions than huffing.
B) considered more effective than deep breathing for noncompliant patients.
C) detrimental to postoperative oxygenation.
D) used only when the patient is recumbent.
Q3) All of the following would be considered modifiable perioperative risk factors EXCEPT: A) type 2 diabetes.
B) obesity.
C) gender.
D) smoking.
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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) You are treating a patient 3 days after myocardial infarction.The patient suddenly complains of being dizzy,short of breath,and nauseous.Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms?
A) Decreased blood pressure from pain medication
B) Increased anxiety from recent myocardial infarction
C) Tachycardia from recent myocardial infarction
D) Decreased cardiac output from changes in heart mechanics
Q2) All of the following are typical symptoms of valve disease EXCEPT: A) dyspnea.
B) fatigue.
C) fluid retention. D) angina.
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE about coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A) CAD is associated with depression.
B) CAD is worsened by mental stress.
C) CAD is typically seen in people with type B personalities.
D) CAD is associated with increased morbidity.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary
Dysfunction
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Q1) All of the following would be considered diseases causing secondary cardiovascular and pulmonary dysfunction EXCEPT:
A) coronary artery disease.
B) chronic renal failure.
C) systemic lupus erythematous.
D) thoracic kyphosis.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT typically seen in patients with cerebral palsy (CP)?
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Hyperreflexia
C) Spasticity
D) Musculoskeletal deformity
Q3) The goal of physical therapy with the patient with muscular dystrophy is to:
A) provide ventilation for the patient.
B) strengthen the respiratory muscles.
C) provide therapy in the recumbent position.
D) provide long doses of exercise.
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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) What is the best initial treatment choice(s)for a patient in the ICU?
A) Supplemental oxygen
B) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
C) Pharmacologic agents
D) Various conservative, noninvasive measures
Q2) Which of the following is a contraindication for manual techniques performed in the head-down position?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Acute chest trauma
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Gastric reflux
Q3) What would be the best way to wean an obese patient from the use of a mechanical ventilator?
A) Wean in a semirecumbent position.
B) Wean in a supine position.
C) Wean in a 90-degree upright position.
D) Wean in a prone position.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following would be the best option for a patient unable to bear weight who you wish to mobilize into an upright position to improve cardiovascular and pulmonary function and gas exchange?
A) A chair at the side of the bed
B) Wait to try this intervention until weight-bearing status changes
C) Stretcher chair
D) Standing with maximum assistance of multiple assistants
Q2) While treating a patient with obstructive lung disease,what complicating factor(s)might you expect to find?
A) Rigid barrel-shaped chest wall
B) Decreased oxygen consumption
C) Decreased work of the heart
D) Effective cough mechanism
Q3) Which of the following is not a common complication related to a patient's premorbid status before open heart surgery?
A) Lung collapse
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Stroke
D) Pulmonary emboli
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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) What would be an appropriate intervention technique for a patient with multiple fractures and spinal involvement?
A) ROM exercises for the head and neck
B) Aggressive ROM exercises for the shoulders
C) Log-rolling maneuvers
D) Body positioning to upright sitting
Q2) How should you position the bed to reduce intracranial pressure in a patient with a head injury?
A) Head of the bed elevated to 30 to 40 degrees
B) Head of the bed elevated to 50 to 60 degrees
C) Head of the bed declined to 30 to 40 degrees
D) Head of the bed declined to 50 to 60 degrees
Q3) What signs and symptoms would you expect to see with a patient with advancing cerebral edema?
A) Deterioration in level of consciousness
B) Exaggerated muscle tone and posture
C) Deterioration in pupillary reflexes
D) All are signs or symptoms of advancing cerebral edema
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Q1) A patient with acute lung injury presents with atelectasis and loss of lung compliance because of the impairment of the production of surfactant and pulmonary fluid that covers the alveolar epithelium.Which type(s)of alveolar cell is/are damaged?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Types I and II
D) Type III
Q2) What position may have immediate benefits in remediating hypoxemia in patients with ARDS?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Prone
D) Semi-prone
Q3) Which of the following is a complication from surgery that may arise with a patient in intensive care?
A) Pulmonary dysfunction
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Metabolic dysfunction
D) Deep vein thrombosis
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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) Which intervention would be the most appropriate in treating a patient with muscular dystrophy who experiences nocturnal hypoventilation?
A) Vibration of right lower lobe segments
B) Postural drainage before sleep
C) Continuous positive airway pressure
D) Teaching deep breathing, coughing
Q2) How does chest physical therapy differ in neonates and infants compared with children ages 2 years and older in terms of primary goals?
A) CPT in neonates includes improving airway clearance and emphasizes muscles of respiration.
B) CPT in children includes improving airway clearance and improving ventilation and the efficiency of breathing.
C) There are no differences.
D) CPT in children should only include airway clearance.
Q3) How is the diaphragm of a newborn different than that of an adult?
A) The diaphragm of a newborn has fewer type II muscle fibers.
B) The diaphragm of a newborn has fewer type I muscle fibers.
C) The diaphragm of a newborn has more type I muscle fibers.
D) The diaphragm of a newborn has more type III muscle fibers.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) Increases in functional capacity are seen in young elderly patients who demonstrated which of the following variables?
A) Were younger in age
B) Had a shorter length of training
C) Started with a lower VO max before training
D) Had a shorter duration of training sessions
Q2) The limited data available in aging populations may not provide an accurate description of the entire population in this age group because which of the following?
A) The studies are limited to people younger than the age of 65 years.
B) The studies are limited to mainly one sex.
C) The studies are limited to individuals who are healthy.
D) The studies are limited to those who exercise regularly.
Q3) Chest wall stiffness comes with many related factors,which include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a decrease in intervertebral disk height.
B) an increase in medial to lateral chest width.
C) changes in the rib to vertebrae articulations.
D) costal cartilage calcification.
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Q1) Type II of paradoxical breathing characterized by intact upper respiratory muscles.Why does this type of breathing usually require some form of ventilatory support?
A) The abdominals are insufficient to control the pull of the upper respiratory muscles.
B) Decreases in postural control do not allow for proper filling of air space.
C) The abdomen is drawn inward because of weakness and is unable to oppose the pull of the diaphragm.
D) The accessory muscles are not designed to meet the needs of long-term ventilation.
Q2) The primary muscles involved in the soda can model of respiratory and postural control include which group?
A) Pectorals, upper trapezius, abdominals and gluteals
B) Intercostals, scalenes, lower abdominals, and back extensors
C) Diaphragm, scalenes, pectorals, and lower abdominals
D) Back extensors, abdominals, diaphragm, and intercostals
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Q1) What time frame is provided for weaning of patients from mechanical ventilation after heart transplant surgery?
A) 12 to 24 hours
B) 24 to 36 hours
C) 12 to 36 hours
D) 24 to 48 hours
Q2) Psychological issues associated with transplant patients before surgery are limited to which of the following?
A) Stress from unknown waiting time and employment disruption
B) Moving from home to a new location
C) Staying hopeful and realization of terminal disease
D) Stresses are unlimited because each patient's case is different
Q3) What type of medication is often used after transplant surgery for the lung patient to ensure proper function of the lungs?
A) Vitamins and supplements
B) Diuretics
C) Antipsychotics
D) Paralytics
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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) The goal of helping a patient accomplish what he or she wants day with regard to return to function excludes which of the following?
A) Knowledge of symptoms
B) Reliance on a support system
C) Return to prior level of function immediately
D) Goal setting that allows easy achievement
Q2) What is the definition of optimal health or function?
A) How the patient's health and function is related to his or her personal circumstances
B) Completion of a rehabilitation program
C) Limitations of third-party payers
D) Decisions made by the health care team supporting the patient to discontinue treatment
Q3) Which interaction will provide the patient with the optimal outcome when setting up a plan of care?
A) Strategies to help the patient stay motivated
B) Information about living with a chronic condition
C) Review of current pathology
D) Helping the patient to take charge of his or her care
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Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Q1) In a patient with right lower lung pneumonia or atelectasis,which position is recommended to improve oxygenation?
A) Supine
B) Right side-lying
C) Left side-lying
D) Prone
Q2) Which term describes the counting and identifying of technical attachments?
A) Cord count
B) Tube index
C) Foley record
D) Line measurement
Q3) Which occupations account for more than half of the annual prevalence of low back pain among health care personnel?
A) Physicians and laboratory technicians
B) Anesthesiologists and dentists
C) Nurses and therapists
D) Paramedics and ambulance drivers
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Q1) Which location is included in the scope of a respiratory therapist?
A) Hospitals
B) Long-term care
C) Patients' homes
D) All of the above
Q2) Which is most specifically indicated to treat signs of respiratory failure or chronic respiratory failure in patients with severe COPD?
A) BiPAP
B) Nonrebreathing mask
C) Simple mask
D) IPPB
Q3) Which device has become more popular over the past 20 years for supporting patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy and cystic fibrosis?
A) IPPB
B) MDI
C) NMIV
D) CPAP
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Chapter
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Q1) Which term refers to the removal of an artificial airway?
A) Decannulation
B) Intubation
C) Excision
D) Tracheostomy
Q2) Which postoperative complication of tracheostomy can result from incorrect suctioning technique and the presence of a foreign body in the trachea?
A) Crusting
B) Tracheobronchitis
C) Tracheal stenosis
D) Infection at the surgical site
Q3) Which airway device is a speaking valve that allows inspiration only and forces exhalation through the upper airway?
A) Olympic tracheostomy button
B) Passy-Muir valve
C) Montgomery T tube
D) None of the above
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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Q1) Which drug is an anticholinergic with bronchodilatory effects useful in patients with asthma?
A) Ipratropium
B) Carbachol
C) Pilocarpine
D) None of the above
Q2) Which device has been developed to promote successful use of metered-dose inhalers?
A) Spacers
B) Powders
C) Liquefiers
D) Humidifiers
Q3) Which of the following is controlled primarily by the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) Increasing heart rate
B) Increasing ventilation capacity
C) Blood pressure elevation
D) Digestion
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