Clinical Dental Hygiene Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Clinical Dental Hygiene is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with in-depth knowledge and hands-on experience in the fundamental practices and principles of dental hygiene within a clinical setting. Emphasizing patient-centered care, the course covers assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of individualized oral health care plans. Students will learn techniques for patient education, infection control, preventive services, periodontal therapy, and the safe and effective use of dental instruments. Integrating theoretical knowledge with practical application, this course prepares students to perform clinical procedures with professionalism and ethical responsibility, ensuring high standards of oral health promotion and disease prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs when individuals with differing strengths and areas of expertise work together as equal partners to achieve better outcomes than each would achieve working alone?
A) Implementation
B) Collaboration
C) Determination
D) Concentration
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a key behavior within the dental hygiene process of care?
A) Observation
B) Diagnosis
C) Communication skills
D) Client care
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23020
Sample Questions
Q1) Human need theory was selected as the conceptual framework for the Dental Hygiene Human Needs Model because human needs transcend age, culture, gender, and nationality.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Answer: A
Q2) How many human needs have been identified in the Dental Hygiene Human Needs Conceptual Model as being related to dental hygiene care?
A) 20
B) 11
C) 14
D) 8
E) Over 30
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23021
Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of nonexperimental research include:
A) making observations between exposures and diseases.
B) ability to conduct studies prospectively.
C) ability to conduct studies retrospectively.
D) both a and c.
E) options a, b, and c.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Evidence alone does not tell practitioners what to do.
B) All evidence is equal on the hierarchy.
C) The number of studies increase as you move up the hierarchy.
D) The clinical relevance of studies decreases as you move up the hierarchy.
E) None of the above are true statements.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23022
Sample Questions
Q1) The individualistic health education approach focuses on which of the following aims: enhances self-help, the community level identifies with people helping people, and the legislative/advocacy approach considers the creation of healthy public policy and programming.
A) Enhances self-help
B) People helping people
C) Community mobilization
D) Health programming
E) Public policy
Q2) Examples of lifestyle behaviors that challenge oral health include the following behaviors except for one. Which is the one exception?
A) Choosing to use tobacco products
B) Frequently consuming alcohol
C) Practicing daily oral hygiene
D) Wearing a mouth guard only during games
E) Piercing the lip and tongue
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6
Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23023
Sample Questions
Q1) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q2) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q3) Oral health and education may not be highly valued when food, shelter, and clothing are not readily available.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Oral health professionals must be aware of their own values and how they affect the choices professionals make in planning and implementing oral health behavioral change programs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Pedagogy is the art and science of teaching _______________.
Q7) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
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Q8) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23024
Sample Questions
Q1) Statement 1: Patients are usually willing to share their ideas and customs with those who express a willingness to understand them. Statement 2: The clinician should assume the presence of cultural differences, and therefore, the clinician needs extensive knowledge of every cultural practice and belief.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q2) Statement 1: Complex societies are homogenous. Statement 2: Immigrants of the first generation share the same culture as the second or third generation of immigrants.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q3) An equitable, culturally sensitive environment is characterized by:
A) the care provider initiating a cultural encounter.
B) reciprocal inquiry between the client and care provider.
C) the client initiating sharing information about his or her cultural beliefs.
D) the care provider tailoring the information to the mindset of the client.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When writing a Philosophy of Practice statement, the dental hygienist should consider the following topics to include except one. What is the one exception?
A) Define career goals and objectives.
B) Highlight your personal life, family, and hobbies.
C) Discuss the ethical considerations of dental hygiene practice.
D) Discuss your commitment to cultural diversity.
Q2) All references cited in a dental hygiene portfolio must be formatted according to the National Library of Medicine Style Guide. It is not necessary to reference sources obtained from the Internet if they are open access.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) The use of music lyrics or poetry to add interest to a portfolio:
A) is always allowed under the fair use guidelines.
B) requires permission from the copyright holder.
C) is not appropriate in a professional portfolio.
D) is exempt from copyright laws.
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Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23026
Sample Questions
Q1) The dental laboratory is a well-ventilated are a. It is where dental work directly performed on the client takes place.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Water used for dental treatment should meet the nationally recognized standards set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for drinking water, which is ____ CFU/mL.
A) <10,000
B) <500
C) <600
D) <200
Q3) This area of the dental office should be kept private because of the exchange of client information.
A) Darkroom
B) Business area
C) Reception
D) Dental laboratory
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infection Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23027
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be part of infection prevention and control personnel health program?
A) An infection control education and training schedule
B) A predetermined number of personal days determined by job title and length of employment
C) A standard color and style for worker uniforms
D) An injury management protocol that allows an injured worker to seek care from the physician of his or her choice
E) None of the above
Q2) If a client is suspected of having clinically active tuberculosis, the dental healthcare provider should first:
A) proceed with treatment as planned.
B) wear a particulate respirator during treatment.
C) defer treatment and refer the client for medical evaluation.
D) treat the client in a tuberculosis isolation room.
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11
Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23028
Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended rate for chest compressions in an adult is _____ per minute.
A) at least 20
B) 50
C) 60
D) 80
E) 100
Q2) What is the recommended rate of rescue for a child who has a pulse but is unresponsive?
A) One breath every 5 to 6 seconds
B) Two breaths every 15 seconds
C) One breath every 30 seconds
D) Two breaths every 5 to 6 seconds
E) One breath every 3 seconds
Q3) A medical consultation should ask the client for very specific information regarding a client's diagnosis and health status. A facsimile machine is inadequate for legal documentation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23029
Sample Questions
Q1) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q2) Which nerve is affected when carpal tunnel syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q3) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Q5) List three chairside preventive measures to reduce the incidence of lumbar joint dysfunction.
Q6) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q7) List three chairside preventive measures to minimize the occurrence of carpal tunnel syndrome.
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23030
Sample Questions
Q1) Collecting a complete health history allows the dental practitioner to:
A) determining the need for oral procedures.
B) assess the client's level of oral and systemic wellness.
C) providing evidence-based treatment procedures.
D) gaining historical information on client health.
Q2) If the client at risk for infective endocarditis comes to the appointment without taking antibiotic prophylaxis according to the prescribed regimen, which of the following is recommended?
A) Dismiss the client and reschedule.
B) Take the antibiotic when the client is seated.
C) Administer the antibiotic by IV infusion.
Q3) According to the American Association of Orthopedic Surgeons (AAOS), antibiotic prophylaxis should be prescribed for the client with a prosthetic joint according to which of the following schedules?
A) Before any dental appointment
B) Only during the first 2 years following joint replacement
C) Only for hip and knee replacements
D) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23031
Sample Questions
Q1) An abnormally elevated heart rate is known as:
A) Bradypnea
B) Bradycardia
C) Tachycardia
D) Hypertension
Q2) The client's blood pressure is in the hypertensive range. All of the following could be attributed to the high blood pressure except:
A) anxiety.
B) recent tobacco use.
C) white coat syndrome.
D) running to the appointment.
E) presyncope.
Q3) If a client's blood pressure is abnormal the first time you take it, you should do which of the following?
A) Inform the dentist.
B) Re-take the blood pressure.
C) Call the client's medical doctor.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23032
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions may result as a consequence of loss of lubrication?
A) Herpes labialis
B) Digestive problems
C) Oropharyngeal candidiasis
D) Taste alteration
Q2) Which of the following conditions will occur as a result of lowered bacterial plaque pH?
A) Recession
B) Aphthous ulcers
C) Dentinal hypersensitivity
D) Herpetic lesions
Q3) What field studies the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs?
A) Pharmacokinetics
B) Pharmacodynamics
C) Pharmacogenomics
D) Pharmacotherapeutics
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Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23033
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nodes serve as secondary lymph nodes for the occipital lymph nodes in the head?
A) Deep cervical lymph nodes
B) Submandibular lymph nodes
C) Auricular lymph nodes
D) Submental lymph nodes
Q2) Regarding oral lesions, which of the following is usually true?
A) Unilateral structures are most likely a normal anatomic structure.
B) The majority of lesions occur as multiple lesions.
C) Benign lesions have well-defined borders.
D) Fixed lesions on both overlying and underlying tissues are benign.
Q3) Which of the following tissue types listed lines the oral cavity?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Oral mucosa
D) Connective tissue
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What facial profile is associated when the maxillary central incisors are upright or retruded, and lateral incisors are tipped labially?
A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Retrognathic with lip incompetence
D) Mesognathic
Q2) Caries may be considered a two stage process. Which two bacteria are implicated in this process?
A) Lactobacillus initiates a lesion, while Streptococcus mutans progresses a lesion.
B) Streptococcus mutans initiates a lesion, while Actinomyces progresses a lesion.
C) Lactobacillus initiates a lesion, while Actinomyces progresses a lesion.
D) Streptococcus mutans initiates a lesion, while Lactobacillus progresses a lesion.
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18
Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acceptable and efficient dental index of an individual need only evaluate a few select teeth. Healthy dental plaque contains aerobic, gram-negative rods and cocci and a few motile organisms.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The second statement is false, and the first statement is true.
Q2) Bacterial plaque as a biofilm is a risk factor for periodontal disease and oral malodor, whereas dental calculus does not cause oral disease.
A) Both parts of the statement are true.
B) Both parts of the statement are false.
C) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false.
D) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true.
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19
Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding xylitol except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Xylitol enhances remineralization.
B) Xylitol inhibits the transfer of bacteria from person to person.
C) Xylitol inhibits future recolonization.
D) Xylitol use is recommended twice daily.
Q2) Select the factors for high caries risk in a child 0 to 4 years old.
A) Visibly adequate salivary flow
B) Sleeps with bottle filled with something other than water
C) Nurses ad lib
D) Appliances present
E) Any between meal snacks containing sugar or cooked starch
F) Recent dental restorations (<2 years)
Q3) All of the following factors are protective factors for children 0 to 5 years of age except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Mother or caregiver who uses xylitol mints or gum 4 to 5 times daily
B) Mother or caregiver who has no more than one carious lesion
C) Residence in a fluoridated water community
D) Dental examination for a child with oral hygiene instruction for the parent
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23037
Sample Questions
Q1) Which probe would be best for assessing furcation involvement?
A) Marquis
B) Nabers
C) Williams
D) UNC 15
Q2) When the junctional epithelium has migrated below the cementoenamel junction (CEJ), but remains above the crest of alveolar bone, what type of defect is present?
A) Furcation
B) Intrabony pocket
C) Gingival dehiscence
D) Suprabony pocket
Q3) Upon examination of the furca, the Nabers probe will go completely through the furcation that is covered by soft tissue. This is classified as what furcation type?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
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Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inflammatory thickening of the blood vessel wall triggered by injured endothelial cells is called a(n):
A) lipoma.
B) fibroma.
C) adenoma.
D) atheroma.
E) carcinoma.
Q2) Preterm birth and low-birthweight babies are associated with which of the following?
A) Bacterial endotoxins associated with periodontitis in the blood that stimulate production of inflammatory mediators that induce labor
B) Convulsions and coma during labor
C) Lack of appropriate periodontal therapy during pregnancy
D) All of the above
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23039
Sample Questions
Q1) In a dental hygiene diagnosis statement, the dental hygienist must avoid which of the following?
A) Cause
B) Signs and symptoms
C) Value judgments
D) None of the above
Q2) Dental diagnoses identify diseases or conditions for which the dentist directs or provides the primary treatment; dental hygiene diagnoses identify unmet human needs (also known as human need deficits) that can be met by dental hygienists within the scope of dental hygiene practice.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The dental hygiene diagnosis is made after which process of care phase?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select three dental hygiene services completed at the Phase IV.
A) Maintenance Therapy continued care visit.
B) Reassess client's continued oral health and adherence to oral self-care recommendations.
C) Complete simple restorative needs.
D) Implement supportive, preventive, and therapeutic maintenance therapy.
E) Review, modify, and reinforce oral self-care as needed.
F) Complete extraction of hopeless teeth.
Q2) A critical strategy for care planning self-care instruction includes considering variables such as client dexterity, skill, and knowledge. Therefore, a parent or guardian should be included when instructing a young child or client with a special need.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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24
Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desirable characteristics of a toothbrush include all of the following except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Easily held and used
B) Smallest size, shape, and weight
C) Inexpensive and durable
D) Flexible, comfortable, effective
E) Adequate strength, rigidity, and weight
Q2) The Fones toothbrushing method employs a circular stroke. It is recommended for young children.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Toothbrushes can be a mode of indirect transmission for pathogenic organisms. Solid rather than hollow designs and toothbrush caps reduce toothbrush contamination.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interproximal devices may be used from both the facial and lingual aspects of the teeth?
A) Toothpicks
B) Toothpick holder
C) Triangular toothpick
D) Rubber tip stimulator
Q2) The benefit of daily interdental cleaning such as flossing is the reduction or prevention of inflammation caused by the immune response to the toxins produced by interdental plaque biofilm. Evidence from a comprehensive systematic review indicated that flossing in addition to toothbrushing reduces gingivitis in comparison with toothbrushing alone.
A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Which of the following describes the proper use of a wooden wedge?
A) Apply the base of the wedge triangle to the gingiva.
B) Force the stimulator into interproximal spaces.
C) Point the tip apically at a 45-degree angle.
Page 26
D) Use an up-and-down motion in the interproximal space.
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incorporation of fluoride ions into enamel crystals is facilitated by the _____ the dentrifice.
A) presence of fluoride ions in
B) neutral pH of
C) acidic pH of
D) basic pH of
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic agents is considered to be an antitartar product?
A) Potassium nitrate
B) Zinc citrate
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Peroxide
Q3) Combined with a low pH level, insoluble materials such as abrasives are:
A) more harmful for the enamel and dentine of the tooth.
B) less harmful for the enamel and dentine of the tooth.
C) more harmful for the gums.
D) less harmful for the gums.
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An operator is seated, scaling the mandibular arch with elbows raised to his or her own shoulder level. Which of the following should be done?
A) Stand up and bend over to the level that will lower the arms below shoulder level.
B) Raise the client's chair higher to improve access.
C) Raise his or her shoulders higher than the elbows.
D) Adjust the client's chair to a lower working height.
Q2) Fulcrums that move further away from the area being scaled may result in:
A) loss of control.
B) diminishing one's ability to scale the area.
C) enhancing access to deep periodontal pockets.
D) diminishing access to interproximal regions.
Q3) The pressure applied during periodontal assessment and treatment varies depending on the purpose of the instrumentation. To explore for calculus deposits, the stroke must have _____ pressure.
A) light
B) light to moderate
C) moderate to firm
D) firm
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive cementum removal during periodontal debridement could result in which of the following?
A) Caries
B) Root surface damage
C) Pulpitis
D) Loss of enamel
E) Dentinal sensitivity
Q2) Power-driven instrumentation produces all of the following modes of action except:
A) cavitation.
B) transduction.
C) mechanical action.
D) acoustic microstreaming.
E) atomization.
Q3) Working end wear of inserts and tips results in which of the following?
A) Frequency adjustment problems
B) Lack of efficiency
C) Limited cavitation
D) Need for decreased power settings
E) Inadequate water flow for cooling
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used specifically for the bone between the roots of a molar?
A) Furcal
B) Interradicular
C) Interseptal
D) Alveolar
Q2) Cervical enamel projections (CEPs) are "droplets" of enamel that form on the surface of the roots of multirooted teeth, generally near the area of a furcation. CEPs are most frequently observed on mandibular molars.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) How many distal root surfaces are there from a facial approach on a maxillary first molar?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following systemic client conditions contraindicate the use of air polishing except:
A) hypoglycemia.
B) emphysema.
C) active tuberculosis.
D) asthma.
Q2) All of the following are recommended during air polishing to increase safety of the procedure except:
A) high-speed evacuation.
B) preprocedural antimicrobial rinse.
C) mint-flavored powder.
D) removal of the client's contact lenses.
Q3) A fluoride polishing paste replenishes the fluoride that is lost from the enamel during mechanical polishing. It is not necessary to provide the client with a professionally applied topical fluoride treatment when a fluoride prophylaxis paste is used.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal Therapy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) NSPT is part of what phase of periodontal care planning?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
E) Phase V
Q2) Research findings indicate that after scaling and root planing, the most predictable outcome is which of the following?
A) Osseous repair
B) Elimination of Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
C) A decrease in the percentage of cocci and nonmotile microbes
D) A reduction in the percentage of motile microbes and spirochetes
E) Elimination of spirochetes.
Q3) Periodontal diagnosis is determined by analyzing disease characteristics including all of the following except:
A) extent.
B) severity.
C) classification.
D) bleeding on probing.
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes a monotherapy?
A) A 2-week study using a CPC rinse with suspended mechanical oral hygiene
B) A 6-month study comparing essential oil and CHG rinse with toothbrushing and flossing
C) Scaling and root planing and local irrigation with chlorhexidine in deep pockets
D) Prescribing antibiotics subsequent to periodontal scaling and root planing
Q2) CHG is the most widely investigated broad spectrum antimicrobial used in oral chemotherapeutics. It is typically used in prescription oral rinses and for professional irrigation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following is the term used to describe the needlelike tip used for professional irrigation?
A) Jet tip
B) Cannula
C) Irrigant
D) Microsphere
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is most important in the emergency management of an avulsed tooth?
A) Handle only by the crown and do not dry the tooth
B) Store in tap water
C) Dental hygienist treatment
D) Dry the tooth
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of pericoronitis?
A) Pericoronitis is spread by physical contact.
B) The most commonly affected teeth are the incisors.
C) Pericoronitis is soft-tissue inflammation associated with a partially erupted tooth.
D) Pericoronitis appears along the lateral aspects of the root and in furcation areas of multirooted teeth.
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) Many home water filtration devices remove fluoride from community water. Well water may contain water from multiple sources with various fluoride concentrations.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) The primary role of probiotics in controlling dental caries is probiotics:
A) kill all S. mutans.
B) kill most Lactobacillus acidophilus.
C) kill both S. mutans and L. acidophilus.
D) can displace cariogenic bacteria with noncariogenic bacteria.
E) displace cariogenic bacteria but do not increase the number of noncariogenic bacteria.
Q3) Teeth are most susceptible to caries the first year after eruption. Young children should not use a fluoridated dentifrice until the age of 2.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23052
Sample Questions
Q1) Sealants are designed to accomplish which of the following?
A) Enhance the strength of enamel
B) Prevent caries on the proximal tooth surfaces
C) Prevent caries primarily on the occlusal surfaces of teeth
D) All of the above
Q2) Safety concerns of curing lights are:
A) the shield should be surface disinfected after use.
B) the operator and patient should never look directly at a curing light when in use.
C) a plastic barrier should be used on the tip.
D) all of the above.
Q3) When placing sealants on the maxillary teeth, the most effective device other than a rubber dam to reduce saliva contamination from the Stensen's duct is (are):
A) cotton rolls.
B) cotton rolls with a holder.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) high volume evacuation (HVE) only.
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Matthews is a 71-year-old African American male who presents to the dental office for his 6-month prophylaxis appointment. Which of the following dietary concerns common to African Americans could contribute to his dental health risk?
A) Foods are heavily spiced
B) No unclean foods are consumed
C) Lactose intolerance
D) Consumes a lot of vegetable proteins
Q2) During the oral assessment of a 46-year-old male client, the dental hygienist notes that the client's gums are swollen, spongy, and bleeding. Which of the following nutrients might be deficient in the client's diet?
A) Vitamin B
B) Folacin
C) Vitamin C
D) Riboflavin
Q3) What is the risk level involved with Martha's BMI?
A) Acceptable range
B) Nutritional risk
C) At risk for obesity/health problems
D) Major health risk
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) The following list identifies the type of chemicals released by the brain when exposed to nicotine except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Beta-endorphin
D) Cyclosporine
E) Vasopressin
F) Acetylcholine
G) Norepinephrine
Q2) The physical aspects of nicotine addiction include reinforcing effects, tolerance, and physical dependence. Nicotine causes the brain to release chemicals such as dopamine, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, vasopressin, serotonin, and beta-endorphins.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 37: Impressions, Study Casts, and Oral Appliances
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23055
Sample Questions
Q1) Disinfecting of impressions:
A) protects the patient from surface bacteria.
B) must be completed after the impression is poured.
C) is done only with impressions for patients with known infectious diseases.
D) is completed after the impression is rinsed with water.
Q2) Removable oral appliances are trays or devices used for a variety of dental procedures; these appliances are used for the delivery of materials and protection and movement of the teeth.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Orthodontic aligners were recommended to remedy her:
A) parafunctional occlusal forces.
B) orthodontic relapse.
C) moderate BOP.
D) recession.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) Rubber dam placement is indicated for all of the following except:
A) moisture control.
B) visibility.
C) client protection.
D) client with severe asthma.
Q2) A Tofflemire retainer and metal matrix band would most likely be used to place what class of restoration?
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
Q3) The process of abrading the surface of an amalgam to reduce the size of the scratches until the surface appears shiny is called:
A) polishing.
B) finishing.
C) cutting.
D) abrading.
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) For dentinal hypersensitivity to occur, all of the following conditions must exist except which one?
A) Dentin must be exposed.
B) A smear layer must cover the opening of the dentinal tubules.
C) Dentinal tubules must be open.
D) Vital pulp must be present.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of teeth observed to have dentinal hypersensitivity except:
A) dentinal tubules open to the oral cavity.
B) large and numerous dentinal tubules.
C) ability of dentinal surface to communicate with vital pulp.
D) intact cementum.
Q3) The transient, well-localized, sharp pain associated with dentinal hypersensitivity is most likely the result of the stimulation of which of the following nerve fibers near the pulp-dentin interface?
A) A-delta fibers
B) A-beta fibers
C) C-fibers
D) A-delta fibers, A-beta fibers, and C-fibers
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23058
Sample Questions
Q1) Two newer developments in anesthetic solutions are buffering agents that decrease the burning or stinging sensation of an acidic solution and a vasodilator to shorten the time of soft tissue anesthesia; however, both types of anesthetic solutions require the mixing of these additives to the cartridge right before use.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) A nerve is polarized or in a resting state when:
A) there exists a change in the ion balance and the nerve membrane becomes more permeable to sodium.
B) the nerve membrane becomes less permeable to sodium.
C) there is a balance between the sodium (Na+) ion on the outside of the nerve membrane and the potassium (K+) ion on the inside of the nerve membrane.
D) sodium (Na+) and calcium (Ca++) ions are in a state of balance within the nerve membrane.
E) sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions are in a state of balance within the nerve membrane.
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Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the proportions of nitrous oxide and oxygen are adjusted to achieve the desired level of analgesia, each adjustment should be at the rate of which of the following?
A) 0.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
B) 0.5 to 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
C) 1 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
D) 1 to 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 1 minute
E) 1.5 L nitrous oxide for at least 30 seconds
Q2) The flowmeters indicate that a client is receiving 4 L of nitrous oxide and 6 L of oxygen. What is the client's tidal volume?
A) 4 L
B) 6 L
C) 10 L
D) 2 L
E) 7 L
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) An impaired client who is unable to hold a toothbrush in the hand would benefit from a(n):
A) universal cuff.
B) irrigation device.
C) powered toothbrush.
D) handle that is wide and bulky.
Q2) In preparing for a wheelchair transfer, the dental hygienist should position herself with her feet adjacent to each other for good balance and keep the knees unbent to protect against back strain. In addition, the operator should twist his or her back while lifting the client out of the wheelchair and into the dental chair.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients with congestive heart failure will report all of the following symptoms except:
A) dyspnea on exertion.
B) shortness of breath on lying supine.
C) cough.
D) pain in the chest.
Q2) The following are risk factors for cardiovascular disease. One of the risk factors is modifiable; the remaining risk factors are nonmodifiable. Which risk factor can be modified by the motivated client?
A) Age
B) Race
C) Gender
D) Oral contraceptives
Q3) The most common type of closed heart surgery is:
A) angioplasty.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) valvular defect repair.
D) both a and b.
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics should be used for individuals with diabetes in which of the following cases?
A) Prophylactically in well controlled individuals
B) To treat oral fungal infections
C) If an infection is present
Q2) The following A C level indicates that a person with diabetes may have greater periodontal inflammation, attachment loss, and bone loss:
A) greater than 8%.
B) less than 80%.
C) greater than 200%.
D) less than 120%.
Q3) What is the most common type of diabetes mellitus?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Prediabetes
Q4) Which type of diabetes involves an absolute deficiency in insulin secretion?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary recommendations for patients with salivary gland dysfunction include less frequent eating/drinking of:
A) high-carbohydrate snacks.
B) diet sodas.
C) caffeinated beverages.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The administration of bisphosphonates as an adjunct treatment of metastasized cancer can lead to which of the following oral lesions?
A) Osteonecrosis
B) Osteoradionecrosis
C) Osteochemonecrosis
D) Osteoimmunonecrosis
Q3) The incidence rate of oral cancer has increased since 1980. Oral cancer screening remains a very important component of dental hygiene care.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission of HIV?
A) A woman becoming infected after sex with her husband
B) A man becoming infected after sex with another man
C) A child becoming infected after a blood transfusion
D) A neonate becoming infected after being fed breast milk from his HIV-infected mother
E) A series of injection drug users becoming infected after sharing the same needle
Q2) Kaposi's sarcoma lesions frequently regress after initiation of an effective HAART regimen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The risk of contracting HIV following percutaneous exposure is most approximately one in:
A) a hundred.
B) a thousand.
C) ten thousand.
D) a million.
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Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about Parkinson's disease except which one?
A) It is a chronic progressive disorder of the motor system.
B) Common onset is in the fourth decade.
C) The incidence is higher among whites than among African Americans.
D) Bradykinesia is common in patients.
E) Patients exhibit a soft, barely audible voice and monotony of speech.
Q2) All of the following are risk factors for cerebrovascular accidents except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Drug abuse
D) Cerebral palsy
E) Cigarette smoking
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes Bell palsy?
A) Facial paralysis caused by a cranial nerve deficit
B) Malformation resulting from an incomplete neural tube formation
C) Uncoordinated ambulation and seizures that lead to frequent falls
D) Developmental disturbance resulting in a distorted facial appearance
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Select three primary factors that are necessary for the development of autoimmunity.
A) Genetic mutations
B) Genetic predisposition
C) Cytokinetic response
D) Infection
E) Trauma
F) Hemorrhage
G) Immunohistoincompatibility
Q2) Regular maintenance intervals of no more than 3 months are recommended for clients with autoimmune disease, because they are not motivated to maintain oral health at home.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23067
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are special precautions taken by the dental hygienist with persons on peritoneal dialysis except which one?
A) Receive medical clearance.
B) Never take blood pressure readings in the dialysis access arm.
C) Consider delaying or modifying therapy if heparin has been administered in the previous 24 hours.
D) Determine need for antibiotic premedication before invasive dental procedures.
Q2) Post-solid organ transplant recipients often experience all of the following conditions except which one?
A) Candidiasis
B) Latent herpetic infections
C) Squamous carcinomas
D) Osteonecrosis of the mandible
Q3) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following dental drugs often contains sulfite preservatives that may cause sensitivity among asthmatics?
A) Chlorhexidine
B) Epinephrine
C) Xylocaine
D) Nitrous oxide
Q2) All bronchodilators are considered long-acting inhaled beta -adrenergic agonists, because they temporarily dilate or relax the muscles surrounding the bronchial tubes that tighten during an asthma attack.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Which of the following terms has been associated with chronic bronchitis?
A) Blue bloater
B) Barrel chest
C) Mantoux skin screening
D) Cavitation
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygienist must determine the need for prophylactic antibiotic premedication based on current guidelines in persons with Down syndrome, because congenital heart disease is common in this population.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:
A) facial expressions.
B) eye contact.
C) nonverbal communication.
D) all of the above.
Q3) _____ is a form of autism that develops in children who initially seem normal; after at least 2 years of normal development, the child exhibits a dramatic loss of vocabulary, language, motor, and social skills.
A) Autistic disorder (classic autism)
B) Childhood disintegrative disorder
C) Rett syndrome
D) Asperger's syndrome
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents with a history of alcoholism. The dental hygienist should consider all of the following except:
A) expect wound healing delay.
B) expect prolonged bleeding for invasive procedures.
C) consult client's primary care physician before invasive therapy.
D) refer client to a treatment facility.
Q2) According to the National Household Survey on Drug Abuse, the age reporting the highest drug use is:
A) 12 to 14.
B) 18 to 25.
C) 20 to 35.
D) 40 to 55.
E) 50 to 59.
Q3) A dental hygienist who suspects the client is under the influence of cocaine or methamphetamine should:
A) refuse to treat client.
B) alert police.
C) call primary care physician for premedication.
D) delay professional oral care for 24 hours after last reported substance use.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the DSM-IV, anorexia nervosa can be subcategorized into two distinct subtypes. Which of the following categories represent one of these subtypes of anorexia?
A) Restricting and excessive exercise
B) Excessive exercise and binge-eating/purge
C) Dieting and restricting
D) Non-purging and otherwise not specified
E) Binge-eating and purging
Q2) Binge eating disorder is characterized by which of following?
A) Restriction following a purge
B) Binging without purging
C) Restricting eating to nighttime only
D) Excessive exercise before a purge
E) Laxative use following a binge
Q3) Parotid gland enlargement may be a sign of regular vomiting. Diminished taste acuity is a sign of binging behavior.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria can metabolize _____ or _____ as a nutrient, causing pregnancy to favor the colonization of anaerobic bacteria in the gingival sulcus.
A) estrogen; progesterone
B) estrogen; testosterone
C) testosterone; human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) progesterone; prolactin
Q2) Educate parents to continue assisting their children on proper brushing and flossing until the child is _____ years old.
A) 1 or 2
B) 3 or 4
C) 5 or 6
D) 7 or 8
Q3) When does the endogenous sex steroid hormone gingival disease occur?
A) As estrogen and progesterone levels rise
B) As estrogen and progesterone levels decrease
C) In infants and children
D) In postmenopausal women
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Page 56
Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence and degree of dysplasia is the most reliable standard for predicting the malignant potential of a lesion in the elderly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following decreases when xerostomia is present in an older patient?
A) Risk for gingivitis
B) Abilities to chew and swallow food
C) Oral microbial levels
D) Risk for oral fungal infections
Q3) The need for dental care for the elderly is expected to greatly increase by the year 2030, primarily because of the large expected increase in the percentage of older adults living in nursing care facilities.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to prevent the loss of a removable dental prosthesis is to ensure it is:
A) stored in a container.
B) wrapped in a tissue and stored in a pocket.
C) placed in a drawer.
D) labeled with a person's name or an identification number.
Q2) Alkaline peroxide cleansers should not be used on dentures that have: A) metal clasps.
B) porcelain teeth.
C) soft-tissue liners.
D) acrylic bases.
Q3) Older adults may consume fewer protein-rich or high-fiber foods because of: A) dislike of their texture.
B) chewing difficulties.
C) lack of appetite.
D) desire to not gain weight.
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) The disturbance or underdevelopment of the bone on the affected side of the fracture is called:
A) ankylosis.
B) malunion.
C) nonunion.
D) osteomyelitis.
Q2) Surgical treatment of a fractured jaw that involves wiring the mandibular and maxillary arches usually lasts _____ week(s).
A) less than 1
B) 1 to 3
C) 4 to 8
D) 9 to 11
Q3) An individual suffering from a fractured jaw and subsequent surgery will experience what percentage loss of body weight?
A) 2%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
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59
Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23076
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antimicrobial agents will help in the maintenance of the implant?
A) Combination of 1% chlorhexidine and 1% thymol
B) Solution of 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate
C) Arestin
D) Fluoride varnish
Q2) All of the following are good to use for the daily cleaning and home care of a dental implant except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Plastic nylon-coated interdental brush
B) Disclosing agents
C) Metal instruments
D) Power toothbrushes
Q3) If a client receives a dental implant and continues to exhibit inadequate oral biofilm control, he or she may be at risk for which one of the following diseases that would jeopardize the implant?
A) Periodontal disease
B) Gingivitis
C) Peri-implantitis
D) Implant gingivitis
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angle's classification is a limited assessment of occlusion in which of the following ways?
A) Angle's classification assesses the position of teeth only.
B) Angle's classification assesses malocclusion in the anteroposterior plane of space; a comprehensive assessment should assess the relationships of teeth in the transverse and vertical plane of space.
C) A comprehensive assessment of the occlusion should determine the relationship of the skeletal components, as well as the dental components of occlusion.
D) All of the above are true of Angle's classification.
Q2) The most ideal relationship of the second molars in a primary dentition is which of the following?
A) Mesial step relationship
B) Distal step relationship
C) Proximal terminal plane relationship
D) Flush terminal plane relationship
Q3) The age of eruption is more important than the sequence of eruption of the permanent teeth.
A) True
B) False
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behavior indicative of an abusive parent includes:
A) hesitating to seek dental treatment for a child's oral injuries.
B) insisting his or her child be seen for an unscheduled appointment immediately after an oral injury has occurred, much to the chagrin of the receptionist who finds no available appointments.
C) providing detailed information about how the oral injury occurred.
D) reporting a story of how the injury occurred that is consistent with the history reported by the injured child.
E) all of the above.
Q2) Dental hygienists are:
A) responsible for proving that child abuse and neglect has occurred.
B) mandated to document disclosures of child maltreatment in the client record.
C) not legally liable for failing to report a suspicious case of child abuse and neglect.
D) responsible for investigating suspected cases of child abuse and neglect first before contacting the child protection service agency.
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Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common factor in preventing the onset of mucositis?
A) Keeping the patient's mouth clean and hydrated
B) Warm baking soda, saline, and water rinses
C) Chlorhexidine
D) Topical corticosteroids
Q2) Frequent hydration with sips of water, saliva substitutes, ice chips, or sugar-free popsicles are all ways to treat which oral complication?
A) Xerostomia
B) Oral candidiasis
C) Mucositis
D) Ulcers
Q3) Appliances with metal clasps need to be soaked in chlorhexidine solution, because sodium hypochlorite corrodes the metal clasps.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) Which of the following items below are needed to develop an effective communication outline for morning huddles?
A) Key motivating issues that need to be reinforced in the office
B) Priority topics that are established as a group each week
C) Problem solving strategies
D) Both a and b
E) Options a, b, and c
Q2) Offices should have a standard format with the same topics for each office meeting so the employees are prepared for the conversation. Meetings should not be planned in advance; instead meetings should be off the cuff topics.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Assisted dental hygiene practice increases production for the practice by:
A) 20%.
B) 30%.
C) 40%.
D) 50%.
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64
Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Q1) Self-awareness may impact one's desires for career choices and job selection, because this knowledge enables one to discover particular interests, abilities, and environments conducive for success.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) A cover letter:
A) should be emailed to a potential employer 1 day before the interview.
B) should be submitted to a potential employer along with a résumé.
C) is an optional tool that may be used to market your job potential.
D) is a dated protocol and is no longer necessary.
E) includes social, personal, and work history.
Q3) Which statement is not true regarding performance evaluation?
A) May be used as an evaluation tool
B) May assist the dental hygienist in improving his or her skills
C) May determine if a raise is awarded
D) Should be performed regularly
E) Should be performed by clients
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) During a staff meeting, the dentist announces that any staff person who attends the state dental society meeting with him and escorts him to the social functions will get a generous bonus. This is an example of which type of sexual harassment?
A) Quid pro quo
B) Hostile environment
C) Gender inequity
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following are recommended risk management strategies for appropriately maintaining client records?
A) Entries should be accurate, concise, and written in black ballpoint pen.
B) Entries should include patient cancellations and late arrivals.
C) Errors can be erased or blacked out if corrections are clearly documented.
D) Both a and b are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are correct.
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