Clinical Biochemistry
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Clinical Biochemistry explores the biochemical principles and techniques applied in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of disease. The course covers the analysis of body fluids, the function and dysfunction of organs at the molecular level, and the interpretation of laboratory results in a clinical context. Topics include the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids; electrolyte and acid-base balance; enzymology; and the molecular basis of common diseases such as diabetes, kidney disorders, and cardiovascular conditions. Emphasis is placed on quality control, laboratory management, and the integration of biochemical data with patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Chemistry Theory Analysis Correlation 5th Edition by Lawrence A. Kaplan
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
56 Chapters
996 Verified Questions
996 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1327 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Laboratory Principles and Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26462
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory containers should be selected to store an organic hydrocarbon solvent?
A)borosilicate glass
B)polyethylene
C)polycarbonate
D)polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
Answer: A
Q2) A material that is used to absorb and remove water from the air is known as a:
A)teratogen
B)desiccant
C)carcinogen
D)reference material
Answer: B
Q3) Sodium azide is used in small amounts as a preservative in laboratory reagents.What is the safety concern associated with sodium azide?
A)it can become explosive
B)it can become volatile
C)it is an environmental hazard
D)it acts as a strong acid
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Spectral Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26463
Sample Questions
Q1) The wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is:
1)directly proportional to the energy of a photon
2)inversely proportional to the energy of a photon
3)directly proportional to the frequency of a photon
4)inversely proportional to the frequency of a photon
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 4
D)2, 3
Answer: B
Q2) If a glucose standard has an absorbance of 0.480, and an unknown has an absorbance of 0.120, which of the following best describes the unknown's glucose concentration?
A)one fourth the standard concentration
B)equal to the standard concentration
C)four times the standard concentration
D)not enough data to calculate
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry:
Theory, Practice, and Instrumentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26464
Sample Questions
Q1) Chromatographic methods may be characterized according to:
A)the physical state of the mobile phase
B)the physical apparatus associated with the stationary phase
C)the mechanism of separation
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The advantage of reporting column chromatography results in terms of capacity factor is that capacity factor does not vary with:
A)mobile phase flow rate
B)chromatography column dimensions
C)sample volume injected
D)any of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Chromatographic attractive forces involving molecules that have a permanent dipole are known as:
A)dispersive (van der Waals) forces
B)dipolar forces
C)hydrogen bonding forces
D)dielectric forces
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Chromatographic Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26465
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are required characteristics of the carrier gas used in gas chromatography?
A)It must be chemically and chromatographically inert.
B)It must be pure and dry.
C)It must be matched with the appropriate gas-chromatographic detector.
D)All of the above
Q2) What is meant by the phrase isocratic analysis in liquid chromatography?
A)chromatographic analysis in which the mobile phase composition constantly changes during the chromatographic analysis
B)chromatographic analysis in which the mobile phase composition remains constant during the chromatographic analysis
C)chromatographic analysis in which the temperature of the stationary phase constantly changes during the chromatographic analysis
D)chromatographic analysis in which the temperature of the stationary phase remains constant during the chromatographic analysis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Laboratory Analysis of Hemoglobin Variants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26466
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered the most powerful analytical tool in the laboratory analysis of hemoglobin variants?
A)electrophoresis
B)high-pressure liquid chromatography
C)radial immunodiffusion
D)densitometry
Q2) Consider the separation of Hb 1, Hb 2, and Hb 3 by cation-exchange HPLC.The initial mobile phase pH causes Hb 1 to have the greatest positive charge, Hb 2 to have minimal positive charge, and Hb 3 to be neutral.Predict the order of elution from the stationary phase as the chromatographic run continues from the initial mobile phase to mobile phases with increasing concentrations of cations.(first to elute to last to elute)
A)Hb 1, Hb 2, Hb 3
B)Hb 1, Hb 3, Hb 2
C)Hb 2, Hb 1, Hb 3
D)Hb 3, Hb 2, Hb 1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Electrophoresis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26467
Sample Questions
Q1) When considering the factors that influence the mobility of macromolecules, the relaxation effect would tend to ________ electrophoretic mobility, because there is a momentary ________.
A)lower, formation of a double layer of charge about the macromolecule
B)increase, neutralization of charge around the macromolecule
C)lower, electrical field that acts in the opposite direction to the applied field
D)increase, enhanced electrical field that acts in the same direction as the applied field
Q2) Considering only the effect of time on electrophoretic separation, the separation of bands ________ with time, and diffusion of bands _______ with time.
A)increases, increases
B)increases, decreases
C)decreases, increases
D)decreases, decreases
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
8
Chapter 7: Immunological Reactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26468
Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the precipitation curve shown in Figure 7-5 in your textbook, which phase could result in reporting falsely low results?
A)the antibody excess phase
B)the antigen-antibody equivalence phase
C)the antigen excess phase
D)none of the above; all phases would result in accurate laboratory analysis
Q2) Is the following statement true or false? If false, identify the part of the statement that causes it to be false.
Kappa and lambda light chains differ in the amino-acid sequence of their constant regions.A given antibody always has two identical kappa light chains or two identical lambda light chains.An antibody molecule can never have both a kappa and a lambda chain.
A)true
B)false, light chains have the same amino-acid sequence in their constant regions
C)false, a given antibody can have different kappa or lambda light chains in the same molecule
D)false, an antibody can have both a kappa and lambda light chain in the same molecule
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Immunochemical Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26469
Sample Questions
Q1) Often when performing immunoassays, it is important to know the titer of the antibody.The titer defines:
A)the amount of specific antibody present
B)the affinity of the antibody for the antigen being measured
C)the avidity of the antibody for the antigen being measured
D)the specificity of the antibody for the antigen being measured
Q2) In competitive indicator-labeled immunoassays, the label is typically placed on the ________ in the reagent and is used to measure ________ in the patient sample.
A)antigen, antigen
B)antigen, antibody
C)antibody, antigen
D)antibody, antibody
Q3) Which one of the following sample conditions would be acceptable in complement fixation testing?
A)a hemolyzed sample
B)a lipemic sample
C)plasma collected in EDTA
D)plasma collected in heparin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Principles for Competitive-Binding Assays
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26470
Sample Questions
Q1) In a competitive-binding heterogeneous assay, the captive phase involves:
A)the removal of endogenous binding proteins that interfere with the immunoassay
B)the binding of the labeled reactant in the assay
C)the capture of free, unlabeled ligands from the patient sample for use in the assay of free ligand alone
D)the initial step in the assay where the antibody binds with the ligand
Q2) The use of avidin-biotin systems in ELISA serve to:
A)improve the time requirements of the assay
B)overcome diminished antibody capturing capacity in the assay
C)improve the fluorogenic nature of the assay
D)overcome the need for sample extraction prior to performing the assay
Q3) What is the purpose of the "label" used in competitive-binding assays?
A)to aid the technologist in knowing which reagents have been added to the assay
B)to aid the technologist in knowing which patient samples have been added to the assay
C)to aid in assay detection and quantification
D)to aid in the identification of free ligand and ligand bound to endogenous protein
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Laboratory Approaches to Serology Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26471
Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunoglobulin is primarily associated with allergic reactions?
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgA
D)IgE
Q2) Suppose a serum VDRL gave a positive result, and CSF showed 8 nucleated cells/mm³.What follow up test should be used in the laboratory diagnosis of neurosyphilis if the CSF VDRL tested positive, and what follow-up test should be used in the laboratory diagnosis of neurosyphilis if the CSF VDRL tested negative?
A)T.pallidum particle agglutination test, no follow-up testing is required
B)fluorescent treponemal antibody test, no follow-up testing is required
C)no follow-up testing is required, T.pallidum particle agglutination test
D)no follow-up testing is required, fluorescent treponemal antibody test
Q3) Laboratory detection of T.pallidum can occur by:
A)direct detection by typical microscopic examination
B)direct isolation by culture under standard laboratory conditions
C)serological testing
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Measurement of Colligative Properties
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26472
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose for calculating an osmolal gap?
A)This serves as a quality-control measure of osmolality measurement.
B)This serves as an indication of abnormal concentrations of unmeasured substances in the blood stream.
C)This is the method utilized to calibrate the osmometer.
D)This removes the need for direct measurement of osmolality.
Q2) The two methods used in the clinical laboratory to determine osmolality are:
A)osmotic pressure and boiling point
B)boiling point and freezing point
C)vapor pressure and osmotic pressure
D)freezing point and vapor pressure
Q3) Determine the calculated osmolality given the following data: sodium = 135 mEq/L; glucose = 95 mg/dL; BUN = 10 mg/dL.
A)240 mOsm/kg
B)279 mOsm/kg
C)375 mOsm/kg
D)480 mOsm/kg
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Electrochemistry: Principles and Measurement
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26473
Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide and ammonia electrodes are identical in that they utilize the same ______ and are different in that they utilize different ______.
A)pH electrode for measurement, gas-selective membranes
B)pH electrode for measurement, ionophores
C)gas-selective membranes, reference electrodes for quantification
D)gas-selective membranes, filling solutions around the electrode
Q2) Which of the following may result in errant sodium results being reported by the laboratory when using a glass ion-selective electrode?
A)standards used for calibration and sample for analysis are not analyzed at the same temperature
B)electrode fouling by serum, plasma, or whole blood
C)analysis of highly acidic urine samples
D)all of the above
Q3) In the coulometric titration of chloride, the titration end-point is measured in terms of the:
A)time required to complete the titration
B)amount of product (silver chloride) formed
C)amount of silver ion produced at the anode
D)number of electrons detected at the cathode
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 14
Chapter 13: Molecular Diagnostics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26474
Sample Questions
Q1) The mutation-detection technique designed to amplify only one of the alleles present at the locus of interest by the use of primers that are substantially mismatched at one allele but have sufficient complementarity to anneal to and amplify the other allele is known as:
A)PCR-mediated site-directed mutagenesis (PSM) technique
B)amplification refractory mutation system (ARMS) technique
C)allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization (ASO or dot blot) technique
D)reverse dot blot technique
Q2) The mutation-detection technique that incorporates a set of immobilized DNA probes for different sequence variants to which PCR amplified DNA is added is known as:
A)PCR-mediated site-directed mutagenesis (PSM) technique
B)amplification refractory mutation system (ARMS) technique
C)allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization (ASO or dot blot) technique
D)reverse dot blot technique
Q3) ____________ forms the basis for almost all types of DNA detection methods.
A)denaturation
B)hybridization
C)restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
D)amplification
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26475
Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the administration of a single dose of a hypothetical drug by different routes, which of the following gives the correct order of attaining peak concentration of the drug in the blood stream?
A)intramuscular, oral, intravenous
B)oral, intravenous, intramuscular
C)intravenous, intramuscular, oral
D)intramuscular, intravenous, oral
Q2) Kinetic processes related to the fate of a drug in the body, where the rate of change of drug concentration is independent of the concentration of a particular drug, is known as:
A)zero-order kinetics
B)first-order kinetics
C)Michaelis-Menten kinetics
D)compartmental kinetics
Q3) Which of the following statements are true regarding drug half-life?
A)Doubling the dose of a drug will reduce the half-life by one half.
B)Half-life is equal to the time required to change the drug blood level by 50%.
C)Doubling the dose of a drug will double the half-life.
D)both b and c
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 16
Chapter 15: Clinical Enzymology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26476
Sample Questions
Q1) An enzyme activity of 50 IU/L is equal to _____ nK/L.
A)3.0
B)16.7
C)416
D)835
Q2) A convenient method for assaying enzyme activity is based on measuring the conversion between the oxidized and reduced forms of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD/NADH).Which form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide has a unique wavelength of absorption, and what is the wavelength at which is unique absorption is at its maximum?
A)oxidized, 260 nm
B)oxidized, 340 nm
C)reduced, 260 nm
D)reduced, 340 nm
Q3) Which type of enzyme inhibitor is associated with an increased Km in order to maintain maximal velocity?
A)competitive inhibitor
B)noncompetitive inhibitor
C)uncompetitive inhibitor
D)allosteric inhibitor
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Protein Isoforms: Isoenzymes and Isoforms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26477
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the basic difference between isoenzymes and isoforms?
A)Isoenzymes originate at the gene level, and isoforms originate from the posttranslational modification of the enzyme.
B)Isoforms originate at the gene level, and isoenzymes originate from the posttranslational modification of the enzyme.
C)Isoenzymes are homodimers, and isoforms are heterodimers.
D)Isoenzymes are heteropolymers, and isoforms are homopolymers.
Q2) What is the order of electrophoretic migration of the CK-MM isoforms?
A)CK-MM , CK-MM , CK-MM
B)CK-MM , CK-MM , CK-MM
C)CK-MM , CK-MM , CK-MM
D)CK-MM , CK-MM , CK-MM
Q3) The CK-MB isoenzyme is typically associated with cardiac muscle.In a situation where there is cardiac muscle damage, what is the approximate maximum level that can be attained by CK-MB?
A)approximately 95% of the total CK activity
B)approximately 70% of the total CK activity
C)approximately 40% of the total CK activity
D)approximately 33% of the total CK activity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Interferences in Chemical Analysis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26478
Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose you have a lipemic patient sample for analysis by a colorimetric technique.Which of the following actions should be taken to eliminate the interference caused by the lipemia?
A)Use a sample blank.
B)Dilute the patient sample.
C)Convert the method of analysis to a nephelometric technique.
D)Convert the method of analysis to a fluorometric technique.
Q2) The most common source of interference in spectrophotometric analyses results from:
A)the presence of drugs in the patient sample
B)the presence of unexpected increases of compounds associated with disease processes in the patient sample
C)the presence of hemolysis, icteria, or lipemia in the patient sample
D)the anticoagulant used to collect the patient sample
Q3) It is recommended that spectrophotometric measurements be made in which of the following absorbance ranges?
A)0.100 - 1.100
B)0.200 - 0.500
C)0.500 - 1.500
D)0.100 - 2.000
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Sources and Control of Preanalytical Variation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26479
Sample Questions
Q1) Blood samples for therapeutic drug monitoring that are collected in evacuated tubes with stoppers containing tris-(2-butoxyethyl) phosphate (TBEP) as the plasticizer are subject to which of the following?
A)falsely decreased serum concentrations of monitored drugs due to the plasticizer's ability to displace drugs from transport proteins
B)falsely increased serum concentrations of monitored drugs due to the plasticizer's ability to displace drugs from transport proteins
C)falsely decreased serum concentrations of monitored drugs due to the dilutional effect of plasticizer being released into the blood sample
D)falsely increased serum concentrations of monitored drugs because the plasticizer is measured as part of the drug concentration
Q2) Which of the following is typically used as a measure of the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection?
A)creatinine
B)urea nitrogen
C)calcium
D)protein
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Laboratory Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26480
Sample Questions
Q1) Laboratory procedures are billed to insurance companies or organizations according to which system of coding?
A)Hospital Information System (HIS) coding
B)Diagnosis Related Group (DRG) coding
C)Common Procedure Terminology (CPT) coding
D)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) coding
Q2) A quality-assurance program is designed to:
1)monitor and evaluate the ongoing quality of the total testing process
2)identify and correct problems
3)ensure accurate, reliable, and prompt reporting of results
4)ensure adequacy and competency of the staff
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 3, 4
Q3) A full-time equivalent (FTE) works how many hours per year?
A)1010 hours
B)1040 hours
C)2020 hours
D)2080 hours
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Laboratory Automation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26481
Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ is defined as the maximum number of samples or tests that can be processed in an hour.
A)Throughput
B)Dwell time
C)Stat testing
D)Test repertoire
Q2) A/An ____________ is an instrument that performs the same test simultaneously on all samples.
A)random-access analyzer
B)batch analyzer
C)automated clinical chemistry analyzer
D)none of the above
Q3) If less carryover is permitted by an instrument, the number of samples that are processed per hour will ______________.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)remain the same
D)none of the above, because carryover has no effect on sample processing
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: Point-Of-Care Near-Patient Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26482
Sample Questions
Q1) Tests performed by clinicians on their own patients, using samples that are so fragile it is impractical to send them to a central laboratory, are ____________.
A)waived
B)provider-performed microscopy
C)moderate-complexity
D)high-complexity
Q2) Which of the following is considered a benefit to the clinical laboratory with point-of-care testing?
A)less trauma for the patient
B)financial savings
C)decreased preanalytical errors such as incorrect patient ID and delay in transportation
D)improved convenience
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a CLIA '88 Provider-Performed Microscopy test?
A)urine sediment examination
B)fecal leukocyte examination
C)trichomonas
D)fern testing
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Laboratory Information Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26483
Sample Questions
Q1) When considering bar codes, what characters make up a Code 39?
1)uppercase alphabets
2)lowercase alphabets
3)numbers
4)special symbols
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a patient demographic?
A)patient sex
B)referring physician
C)age or birthdate
D)All of the above are part of patient demographics.
Q3) What bar code is normally used for the labeling of blood products?
A)Code 128
B)Code 139
C)Code 39
D)Code ISBT-128
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 24
Chapter 23: Laboratory Statistics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26484
Sample Questions
Q1) The F-test is considered a measure of ______ between two sets of data, and the t-test is considered a measure of ______ between two sets of data.______ is/are considered as a parametric comparison.
A)accuracy, precision, the F-test
B)precision, accuracy, both tests
C)accuracy, precision, both tests
D)precision, accuracy, the t-test
Q2) The two more useful measures of variation in the distribution of data are the variance and standard deviation.Which of the following best explains why standard deviation is the more commonly reported measure of variation?
A)Standard deviation is easier to calculate than variance.
B)Standard deviation provides information on how close together or far apart values are in the sample of data, whereas variance does not provide this information.
C)The units for standard deviation are the same as sample data, whereas the units for variance differ from that of the sample data.
D)Variance is primarily based on the highest and lowest value of the sample data, whereas standard deviation is based on all sample data.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Reference Intervals and Clinical Decision Limits
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26485
Sample Questions
Q1) The process of separating reference intervals based on criteria such as age, sex, and race, as well as statistical analysis showing significant differences between these subclasses, is known as:
A)partitioning
B)transference
C)diagnostic specificity
D)diagnostic sensitivity
Q2) Which of the following best describes the analysis of samples to establish reference intervals for a new laboratory method?
A)Analyze all samples at once, using the same lot of reagent.
B)Have the same technologist analyze the sample to ensure method consistency.
C)Analyze samples without control materials, since results are not reported to the patient.
D)Analyze samples over a period of several days, with several technologists performing the assay with different lots of reagent.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Quality Control for the Clinical Chemistry Laboratory
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26486
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms utilized by clinical laboratories will help detect misidentification of an individual patient specimen?
A)quality-control procedures
B)autoverification
C)comparison with reference intervals
D)delta checks
Q2) A field method is:
A)the most commonly used method.
B)the scientifically most accurate method.
C)a method that can be used for qualitative screening only.
D)a method that has demonstrated similar but slightly less accuracy than a definitive method.
Q3) A definitive method is:
A)the most commonly used method.
B)the scientifically most accurate method.
C)a method that can be used for qualitative screening only.
D)a method that has demonstrated similar but slightly less accuracy than a reference method.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Evaluation of Methods
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26487
Sample Questions
Q1) A method that falls in the six Sigma region of the Medical Decision Chart indicates that the relationship between the performance of the method and quality control is such that:
A)one to two quality-control measures per run are required.
B)two to three quality-control measures per run are required.
C)three to four quality-control measures per run are required.
D)four to six quality-control measures per run are required.
Q2) When considering application characteristics, emphasis may be placed on ______ for pediatric applications, on ______ for stat applications, and on ______ for high-volume screenings.
A)sample size, turnaround time and interrupt features, sample throughput rate
B)turnaround time and interrupt features, sample throughput rate, sample size
C)sample throughput rate, sample size, turnaround time and interrupt features,
D)turnaround time and interrupt features, sample size, sample throughput rate
Q3) Which of the following factors can contribute to random analytical errors?
A)instability of the instrument
B)variability in handling techniques such as pipetting
C)variations in the reagents and calibrators
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 28
Chapter 27: Classification and Description of Proteins, Lipids, and Carbohydrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26488
Sample Questions
Q1) Pyranoses are formed from monosaccharides with a/an ______, and furanoses are formed from monosaccharides with a/an ______.
A)aldehyde function at carbon-1, ketone function at carbon-2
B)ketone function at carbon-1, aldehyde function at carbon-2
C)aldehyde function at carbon-2, ketone function at carbon-1
D)ketone function at carbon-2, aldehyde function at carbon-1
Q2) The spatial arrangement of a linear chain of amino acids from which folding results in specific three-dimensional patterns such as the beta-pleated sheet and the alpha helix is known as a protein's _____ structure.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q3) The order or sequence of amino acids in a protein as determined by genetic code is known as a protein's _____ structure.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Page 29
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Physiology and Pathophysiology of Body Water and Electrolytes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26489
Sample Questions
Q1) Which electrolyte is most significantly affected by hemolysis?
A)sodium
B)potassium
C)chloride
D)bicarbonate
Q2) A normal serum osmolality is:
A)150 - 350 mOsm/kg
B)247 - 263 mOsm/kg
C)285 - 298 mOsm/kg
D)325 - 348 mOsm/kg
Q3) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) are released into the bloodstream from the ______ and are used clinically to evaluate the possibility of
A)heart, congestive heart failure
B)brain, hydrocephalus
C)heart, myocardial infarction
D)brain, congestive heart failure
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Acid-Base Control and Acid-Base Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26490
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following normal reference intervals is incorrect for an arterial blood sample?
A)pH = 7.35 - 7.45
B)pCO = 24 - 28 mmHg
C)HCO = 22 - 26 mmol/L
D)TCO = 23 - 27 mmol/L
Q2) An increased total CO , normal pCO , and increased pH is most correctly classified as:
A)uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
B)compensated metabolic alkalosis
C)uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
D)compensated respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Calculate the pH of a blood sample that has a total CO of 26.1 mmol/L and a pCO of 40.5 mm Hg.
A)7.31
B)7.39
C)7.47
D)7.52
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Renal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26491
Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is the major cation found in extracellular fluid, and therefore regulation of this is the critical factor in the maintenance of body fluid volume.
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Phosphorus
Q2) Normal urine output is approximately _____________ per day.
A)500 mL
B)1000 mL
C)1500 mL
D)2500 mL
Q3) When the human body needs to conserve water, as in dehydration, the concentration mechanism operates maximally, and the urine osmolality will change to about ______.When there is excess water in the body, urine flow ______, and the diluting mechanism can change urine osmolality to approximately ______.
A)50 mOsm/kg, decreases, 1200 mOsm/kg
B)1200 mOsm/kg, increases, 50 mOsm/kg
C)1200 mOsm/kg, decreases, 1200 mOsm/kg
D)50 mOsm/kg, increases, 1200 mOsm/kg
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 32
Chapter 31: Liver Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26492
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the cause for liver disease indicated by the laboratory data provided below.
AST - slightly above the upper reference limit (URL)
ALT - slightly above URL
AST/ALT ratio - less than 1
GGT - three times URL
ALP - normal
A)acute viral hepatitis
B)drug-induced hepatitis
C)cirrhosis
D)autoimmune liver disease
Q2) Laboratory findings can be useful in following the progression of chronic hepatitis to cirrhosis.As this occurs, the platelet count will ______, the prothrombin time will ______, albumin will ______, and ALP will ______.
A)decrease, increase, decrease, increase
B)decrease, decrease, increase, increase
C)increase, decrease, increase, decrease
D)increase, increase, decrease, decrease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 32: Diagnosis of Viral Hepatitis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26493
Sample Questions
Q1) The combination of test results of the hepatitis B virus serological markers can be used to:
1)identify carrier status.
2)identify vaccination status.
3)differentiate the stage of an active infection.
4)estimate the clinical outcome of the disease.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) What would be the laboratory interpretation of the following laboratory data for a hepatitis B serology profile?
HBsAg - negative
AHBcT - positive
AHBs - positive
A)susceptible
B)immune due to natural infection
C)immune due to vaccination
D)acutely infected
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 33: Bone Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26494
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a biochemical marker of bone formation?
A)serum osteocalcin
B)serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
C)serum tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase
D)serum procollagen I extension peptides
Q2) Primary hyperparathyroidism:
1)causes an increased serum phosphorus.
2)causes an increased serum calcium.
3)is usually discovered in adulthood.
4)is predominantly seen in postmenopausal women.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome will show which of the following laboratory observations?
A)They all show an abnormal serum calcitonin concentration deficiency.
B)They all show an abnormal serum calcitonin concentration excess.
C)They all show an abnormal serum alkaline phosphatase deficiency.
D)They all show an abnormal serum alkaline phosphatase excess.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 34: The Pancreas: Function and Chemical Pathology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26495
Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve fibers in pancreatic tissue stimulate production of:
A)vasoactive intestinal peptide
B)somatostatin
C)enkephalin-related peptides
D)all of the above
Q2) Excess production of ______ produces Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, whereas excess production of ______ produces the syndrome of watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria.
A)gastrin, vasoactive intestinal peptide
B)vasoactive intestinal peptide, gastrin
C)gastrin, somatostatin
D)vasoactive intestinal peptide, somatostatin
Q3) A 45-year-old patient presents with hyperglycemia, weight loss, and a peculiar skin rash.This distinctive combination of symptoms is consistent with _______________.
A)insulinoma
B)glucagonoma
C)somatostatinoma
D)PPoma
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26496
Sample Questions
Q1) What analyte is measured in a lactose tolerance test?
A)lactose
B)lactase
C)D-xylose
D)glucose
Q2) Which of the following explains an increased prothrombin time in patients with malabsorption syndrome?
A)decreased intestinal absorption of thrombin
B)decreased intestinal absorption of vitamin K
C)decreased intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
D)decreased intestinal absorption of electrolytes
Q3) The following statements are true of what major intestinal hormone?
1)It has 22 amino acids.
2)It is produced by the upper small intestine.
3)Its stimulating factor is a high-fat meal and duodenal acidification.
4)Its function is to stimulate motility of the small intestine.
A)glucagon
B)motilin
C)gastrin
D)secretin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Cardiac and Muscle Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26497
Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would cTnI be elevated?
A)acute skeletal muscle injury following marathon racing
B)chronic myopathy of Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C)myocardial infarction
D)all of the above
Q2) The troponin complex is a set of three proteins that participate in the regulation of muscle contraction.Troponin ______ functions as the tropomyosin-binding component, troponin ______ functions as the inhibitory component, and troponin ______ functions as the calcium-binding component.
A)C, I ,T
B)I, T, C
C)C, T, I
D)T, I, C
Q3) The most common cause of cardiac ischemia is:
A)severe anemia
B)coronary atherosclerosis
C)hypotension
D)coronary vasospasm
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Coronary Artery Disease: Lipid Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26498
Sample Questions
Q1) During fasting, the blood glucose concentration is expected to ______, insulin concentration is expected to ______, and hepatic VLDL triglyceride synthesis is expected to ______.
A)increase, decrease, decrease
B)decrease, decrease, decrease
C)increase, increase, increase
D)decrease, increase, increase
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-determining step of endogenous cholesterol synthesis?
A)acyl CoA:cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT)
B)lecithin:cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
C)3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase
D)Cholesteryl ester transferase (CEsT)
Q3) Which of the following lipoprotein profiles would be indicative of the laboratory presentation of Tangier disease?
A)increased VLDL, increased LDL, increased HDL
B)absent VLDL, increased LDL, normal HDL
C)normal VLDL, absent LDL, normal HDL
D)normal VLDL, normal LDL, absent HDL
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 39
Chapter 38: Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26499
Sample Questions
Q1) In Cushing's syndrome, cortisol levels are increased.As a result, glucose levels are ______ in Cushing's syndrome because of the affect of cortisol on _____.
A)increased, glycolysis
B)increased, glycogenesis
C)decreased, glycogenolysis
D)increased, gluconeogenesis
Q2) In addition to hyperglycemia, which of the following are typical laboratory indicators of diabetes mellitus?
1)glucosuria
2)polyuria
3)hyperinsulinemia
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)2, 3
D)1, 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Iron and Porphyrin Metabolism
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26500
Sample Questions
Q1) Percent saturation is a useful expression that relates:
A)iron to ferritin
B)iron to transferrin
C)iron to hemosiderin
D)iron to total iron stores
Q2) Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is somewhat of a misnomer.This form of protoporphyrin that is found elevated in the erythrocyte in certain disorders is actually bound to ________ instead of being free in the erythrocyte.
A)calcium
B)magnesium
C)albumin
D)zinc
Q3) Which of the following is/are true of hepcidin?
A)It controls the flow of iron out of the intestinal cells by inhibiting iron release.
B)High levels promote release of iron into the circulation.
C)Low levels restrict the release of iron from intestinal cells into the circulation.
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Hemoglobin
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26501
Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen binds directly to which component of hemoglobin?
A)the four pyrrole nitrogens in the core of protoporphyrin
B)the ferrous iron in the core of protoporphyrin
C)the ferric iron in the core of protoporphyrin
D)2,3-BPG bound in the central cavity of the hemoglobin tetramer
Q2) The reaction of iron in hemoglobin binding to oxygen is known as a/an _________ reaction.
A)oxidation
B)reduction
C)oxygenation
D)complexation
Q3) Which of the following provides the primary advantage of Hb F for the developing fetus?
A)Hb F has a higher oxygen affinity than Hb A.
B)Hb F has a lower oxygen affinity than Hb A.
C)Hb F is resistant to oxidation to methemoglobin.
D)Hb F is resistant to alkali denaturation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 41: Human Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26502
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors is most important to consider when selecting the most useful protein for the laboratory assessment of nutritional supplementation?
A)concentration of the protein
B)size of the protein
C)half-life of the protein
D)degree of protein saturation
Q2) All of the following laboratory observations are associated with a hypermetabolic state except:
A)hyperglycemia
B)hypertriglyceridemia
C)increased C-reactive protein
D)increased urine urea nitrogen
Q3) Which one of the lipid-soluble vitamins is not considered to be an essential vitamin in adults?
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin D
C)vitamin E
D)vitamin K
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
43
Chapter 42: Trace Metals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26503
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following essential trace elements is important for the function of xanthine oxidase activity and for uric acid production?
A)molybdenum
B)manganese
C)chromium
D)selenium
Q2) Metallothionein binds copper, zinc and cadmium.Which of the following sequences relates the strength of the interaction between metallothionein and these metals? (answer format: the most firmly bound metal listed first and least firmly bound metal listed last)
A)cadmium, copper, zinc
B)zinc, cadmium, copper
C)copper, zinc, cadmium
D)None of the above; all metals bind equally.
Q3) The most common food source of mercury is:
A)beef
B)milk
C)fish
D)poultry
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 44
Chapter 43: Vitamins
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26504
Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin A toxicity:
A)can occur as a result of overmedication with vitamin supplements.
B)can result from the use of topical retinoids for acne.
C)can cause dry skin, bone pain, fatigue, and renal disorders.
D)all of the above
Q2) The need for laboratory evaluation of vitamin E status may be indicated by which of the following diets?
A)a diet high in vegetable oils
B)a diet high in fresh, green vegetables
C)a diet high in unsaturated fats
D)a diet low in unsaturated fats
Q3) Which vitamin is known chemically as pyridoxine?
A)vitamin B
B)vitamin B
C)vitamin B
D)vitamin B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Pregnancy and Fetal Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26505
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clotting factors are increased during pregnancy?
1)VII
2)VIII
3)IX
4)XII
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) Suppose an amniotic fluid sample is contaminated with blood.Which of the following steps should be taken by the laboratory to provide an accurate assessment of fetal lung maturity?
A)Determine the lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio by chromatography.
B)Determine the phosphatidylglycerol level by chromatography.
C)Determine the surfactant-to-albumin ratio by fluorescence polarization assay.
D)Either a or c would provide an accurate assessment of fetal lung maturity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: The Newborn
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26506
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following series of hormones have low or undetectable blood levels in the newborn and have no known role in normal neonatal physiology?
A)prolactin, FSH, and LH
B)insulin and cortisol
C)growth hormone and ACTH
D)TRH, TSH, T
Q2) Late (>72 hours) neonatal hypocalcemia arises from which of the following?
1)neonatal hypoparathyroidism
2)high phosphate intake
3)phototherapy
4)hypoalbuminemia
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
Q3) Which tests will identify both neonatal primary and secondary hypothyroidism?
A)TSH
B)free T<sub>4</sub>
C)total T<sub>3</sub>
D)total T<sub>4</sub>
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47
Chapter 46: Extravascular Biological Fluids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26507
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the measurement of uric acid in synovial fluid considered to be of no diagnostic value in gout?
A)Uric acid is not found in synovial fluid.
B)Uric acid exists as crystals in synovial fluid and cannot be quantified.
C)Uric acid in synovial fluid is approximately the same as in serum.
D)Uric acid is not important in the diagnosis of gout.
Q2) The following diseases are associated with what classification of synovial fluid? Gout
Pseudogout
Rheumatoid arthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
A)noninflammatory
B)inflammatory
C)septic
D)hemorrhagic
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 47: Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26508
Sample Questions
Q1) The following data obtained on a spinal fluid analysis provide laboratory evidence of which of the following clinical states?
CSF carcinoembryonic antigen - elevated
CSF -glucuronidase - elevated IgG index - decreased
A)stroke
B)hemorrhage
C)coma
D)CNS tumor
Q2) Which of the following occurs in Alzheimer's disease?
A)a large decrease in choline acetyltransferase activity, along with degeneration of neurons using acetylcholine
B)a degeneration of cholinergic neurons in the basal ganglia
C)dysfunction of GABA-ergic systems
D)dopaminergic neuron dysfunction
Q3) The normal ratio of serum protein to CSF protein is ________________.
A)150:1
B)200:1
C)250:1
D)300:1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: General Endocrinology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26509
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of steroid hormones?
1)They interact with their target cells by binding to specific receptors located in both the intracellular cytoplasmic and nuclear fractions of the cells.
2)They enter the cell primarily through diffusion.
3)Transport proteins are necessary to carry steroids from the organ of synthesis, through the blood stream, to their site of action.
4)They utilize the second messenger signaling system.
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) An elevated serum cortisol and an elevated serum cortisol following a low-dose and a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test provide laboratory evidence of which clinical situation?
A)Cushing's disease
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)ectopic ACTH-producing tumor
D)pituitary adenoma
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 49: Thyroid
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26510
Sample Questions
Q1) The T resin uptake test is used to measure:
A)total T
B)free T
C)thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)
D)TSH
Q2) When free thyroxine cannot be measured directly, the free thyroxine index (FT I) may be calculated by using which measured laboratory data?
A)TSH and T resin uptake
B)T and T resin uptake
C)TSH and T
D)T and T resin uptake
Q3) Which amino acid residue of thyroglobulin is responsible for binding iodine in the formation of thyroid hormones?
A)tyrosine
B)phenylalanine
C)histidine
D)guanidine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 50: The Gonads
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26511
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory test results of a semen analysis is associated with impaired fertility?
A)25 million/mL total sperm count
B)sperm motility of 45%
C)oval morphology of 55%
D)semen volume 0.7 mL
Q2) In the postmenopausal state, there is a 10- to15-fold increase in circulating ______, a 4- to 5-fold increase in ___ __, and a more than 90% decrease in circulating
A)FSH, LH, estradiol
B)LH, FSH, estradiol
C)estradiol, LH, FSH
D)estradiol, FSH, LH
Q3) All patients with elevated _______________ in association with amenorrhea and/or galactorrhea require radiological imaging of the pituitary.
A)FSH
B)LH
C)estradiol
D)prolactin
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 52
Chapter 51: Adrenal Hormones and Hypertension
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26512
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions results from excess cortisol production?
A)Cushing's syndrome
B)primary hyperaldosteronism
C)Conn's syndrome
D)pheochromocytoma
Q2) When is cortisol usually at its lowest concentration in the circulation?
A)4:00 pm
B)Midnight
C)4:00 am
D)8:00 am
Q3) Primary autonomous hypersecretion of aldosterone by the zona glomerulosa is mainly caused by:
A)Conn's syndrome
B)idiopathic hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
C)Addison's disease
D)both a and b
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 53
Chapter 52: Diseases of Genetic Origin
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26513
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of genes?
1)Genes usually exist in multiple variant forms.
2)Genes consist of intervening, noncoding DNA sequences.
3)Genes consist of intervening, coding sequences.
4)Only 1% of the human genome is noncoding DNA that is used to make mRNAs and proteins.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) What chromosome abnormality occurs in Turner Syndrome?
A)Trisomy 18
B)Trisomy 21
C)45,X
D)47,XXY
Q3) Which of the following is a type of prenatal genetic test?
A)chorionic villus sampling
B)percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
C)amniocentesis
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 54
Chapter 53: Neoplasia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26514
Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer has been described as a multistage genetic process.Put the following stages in the correct order.
1)growing of mutant cells
2)chromosome breakdown and rearrangement
3)DNA damage
4)gene replication
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)3, 2, 4, 1
C)1, 4, 2, 3
D)3, 1, 4, 2
Q2) During which phase of cancer does the transformed cell actually develop into a cancer, but the cancer remains in the original site?
A)dissemination
B)invasion
C)induction
D)in situ
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55
Chapter 54: Laboratory Evaluation of the Transplant
Recipient
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26515
Sample Questions
Q1) Once a patient progresses to brain death, frequent monitoring of which of the following is/are essential for the successful maintenance of healthy organs?
A)serum electrolytes
B)blood gas
C)blood pH
D)all of the above
Q2) Which group of drugs has the longest half-life and therefore has a lower monitoring frequency?
A)cyclosporine
B)tacrolimus
C)sirolimus
D)everolimus
Q3) A recipient's preformed antibodies against what HLA class are responsible for immunological destruction of the allograft once implanted and can signal the cellular immune system to induce additional tissue destruction?
A)I
B)II
C)both a and b
D)neither a or b
Page 56
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 55: Toxicology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26516
Sample Questions
Q1) Hemodialysis or hemoperfusion may be effective in removing water-soluble toxins that have which of the following characteristics?
1)high molecular weight
2)low volume of distribution
3)low protein binding
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 3
C)1, 3
D)1, 2
Q2) Cocaine has what window of detection?
A)1 to 6 hours
B)<72 hours
C)<12 to 24 hours
D)2 to 5 days
Q3) Which of the following individuals would have the highest metabolism of a drug based strictly on age?
A)a newborn
B)a 20-year-old
C)a 60-year-old
D)an 80-year-old
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 57
Chapter 56: Addiction and Substance Abuse
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26517
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would best help a physician determine that a patient is escalating a dose of prescribed medication?
A)a single qualitative drug screen
B)a single quantitative drug screen
C)quantitative drug screens over a period of time
D)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of a craving for a drug?
1)Cravings are always chronic.
2)Cravings can be caused by environmental triggers.
3)Cravings can be caused by psychological states that evoke the urge.
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)2, 3
Q3) Which of the following situations could produce withdrawal symptoms?
A)chronic regular use of narcotics for pain
B)chronic regular use of sedatives for anxiety
C)chronic regular use of sedatives for insomnia
D)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58