Clinical Audiology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Audiology is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices involved in the assessment and management of hearing and balance disorders. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the auditory and vestibular systems, diagnostic procedures such as pure tone audiometry, speech audiometry, tympanometry, and otoacoustic emissions, as well as various intervention strategies, including hearing aid fitting and auditory rehabilitation. Students will also explore case studies, ethical considerations, and the role of the audiologist within multidisciplinary healthcare teams, preparing them for practical application in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday,
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which audiologist whose work has focused on newborn and pediatric hearing is also called the Mother of Audiology?
Answer: Marion Downs
Q2) When was the AuD first introduced?
Answer: In the 1990s
Q3) A professional who has expertise in providing patient services along with research education and experience is termed a __________________.
Answer: Clinical scholar
Q4) Audiologists are non-physician healthcare professionals who treat hearing loss with techniques other than medicine or surgery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Audiologists are responsible for caring for persons with ____________.
Answer: Hearing loss and related disorders
Q6) In the United States,audiometers started being used in clinical hearing assessment during the 19___s.
Answer: 1920s
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sine waves are also called ____________.
Answer: Pure tones
Q2) The wavelength of a sound wave is defined as the distance between
A)Two successive condensations only
B)Two successive rarefactions only
C)Two successive rarefactions or condensations
D)One rarefaction and the next condensation
Answer: C
Q3) The detection of a sound is influenced by its duration.This is referred to as
Answer: Temporal integration
Q4) An area with a high concentration of air particles is called A)Condensation
B)Rarefaction
C)Vacuum
D)Anechoic chamber
Answer: A
Q5) The time taken to complete one full cycle of movement is called __________.
Answer: Time period
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication between inner hair cells and auditory nerve fibers is by means of a
Answer: Synapse
Q2) Cerumen is produced by the pinna.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The Eustachian tube is normally open.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) State four specific locations of tonotopical organization within the auditory system:
Answer: Cochlea, Auditory Nerve, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus
Q5) The technical term for a hole in the tympanic membrane is:
Answer: Perforation
Page 5
Q6) The main parts of the outer ear are ______ and ________.
Answer: Auricle/Pinna, External ear canal
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q2) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear?
Q3) What are some examples of universal precautions for patient safety?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a typical response mode for a cooperative adult patient?
A)Lifting a finger
B)Raising a hand
C)A head turn response
D)Pushing a response button
Q5) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q6) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.
Q7) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q8) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
Q9) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.
Q10) What is the best setting for hearing testing?
Q11) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________. Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a clinically important air-bone gap?
Q2) Define the term audiometric zero.
Q3) A warble tone is used in sound-field testing with loudspeakers to minimize the chance of
A)A hearing loss.
B)Constructive and destructive interference problems.
C)Bone conduction hearing.
D)A difference in hearing thresholds between the right ear and the left ear.
Q4) Explain what is meant mixed hearing loss.
Q5) Give some examples of hearing loss configuration.
Q6) The audiogram configuration of noise-induced hearing loss is characterized by a notching decrease in hearing sensitivity in the frequency region of:
A)8000 Hz
B)500 Hz
C)250 to 500 Hz
D)4000 Hz
Q7) What is a hearing threshold?
Q8) What three factors do audiologists look for when interpreting audiograms?
Q9) Describe briefly what is meant by vibrotactile response.
Q10) What are some important steps that should precede pure tone audiometry? Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q2) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?
Q3) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q4) What is a spondee word?
Q5) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q8) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Page 11
Q9) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.
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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
Q2) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q3) Minimum interaural attenuation for supra-aural earphones in air-conduction testing is:
A)0 dB
B)40 dB
C)60 dB
D)80 dB
Q4) The most effective masking noise in pure tone hearing testing is:
A)Broadband noise BBN)
B)White noise
C)Speech noise
D)Narrowband noise
Q5) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How is the Weber test performed?
Q7) What criteria are used to determine if AC masking is required?
Page 13
Q8) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
Q9) Describe the occlusion effect.
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Page 14
Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the peak pressure in a tympanogram represent?
A)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the most compliant
B)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the least compliant
C)The maximum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without rupturing
D)The minimum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without collapsing
Q2) Describe two important advantages of electroacoustic auditory measures over behavioral tests like pure tone audiometry.
Q3) The abbreviations TEOAE and DPOAE stand for ______ and ________,respectively.
Q4) What is an indicator of the activation of the acoustic reflex?
A)Contraction of the stapedius muscle
B)Stiffening of the ossicular chain
C)Reduced compliance of the middle ear structures
D)All of the above
Q5) Describe where and how otoacoustic emissions are generated.
Q6) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
Q7) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q8) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
Q9) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time difference between stimulus presentation and measurement of each peak in the ABR waveform is called
A)Absolute latency
B)Interpeak latency
C)Amplitude
D)Wave morphology
Q2) Wave III of the ABR is believed to originate from the ______ part of the brainstem.
Q3) The acronym ABR refers to _______________________________________.
Q4) Early diagnostic speech audiometry procedures were first described in publications during what decade?
A)1950s
B)1960s
C)1970s
D)1980s
Q5) A left ear advantage is normally found on dichotic listening tests.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____.
Q7) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
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Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name three advantages of electroacoustic techniques such as otoacoustic emissions)over pure tone screening when performing hearing screening of preschool and school age children.
Q2) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT
A)NICU stay of more than five days.
B)In utero infections.
C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.
D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.
Q4) There is no role for otoacoustic emissions in screening for hearing loss in adults. A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?
Q6) A balance test that takes into account vestibular sensation,vision,and somatosensory or proprioceptive information is called ________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common factor in the development of middle ear disorders in children is _________________ tube dysfunction.
Q2) Provide two examples of craniofacial abnormalities.
Q3) The term for an infection is the external ear canal is _________________.
Q4) State two different treatment options for otitis media.
Q5) Two general categories of genetically determined hearing loss are autosomal __________________ and autosomal ____________________ .
Q6) Acute and chronic otitis media are equally serious disease processes.
A)True
B)False
Q7) TTS and PTS stand for ________ and __________,respectively.
Q8) Aural atresia in Treacher-Collins syndrome or Goldenhar syndrome is typically associated with:
A)Conductive hearing loss
B)Normal hearing
C)High-frequency sensory hearing loss
D)Severe sensory hearing loss
Q9) A hearing that occurs suddenly without a known etiology is called ________.
Q10) Explain why audiologists should have knowledge about ear diseases and disorders.
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Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q2) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above
True or False
Q3) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults.
Q4) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and ______.
Q5) Children with APD usually have abnormal pure tone hearing thresholds..
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
Q7) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q8) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?
Q9) Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder is usually identified by normal ___________and the absence of an __________. Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of the _____________________ was an important invention in the twentieth century,and led to smaller hearing aids.
Q2) Which of the following are criteria for cochlear implantation in adult patients?
A)Bilateral severe-to-profound sensory hearing loss
B)Post-lingual hearing impairment in the ear to be implanted
C)Minimal benefit from appropriate amplification
D)All of the above
Q3) A conventional behind-the-ear hearing aid is coupled to the ear with an
Q4) What are some common problems with hearing aids?
Q5) Describe the function of the microphone,amplifier,and receiver in a hearing aid.
Q6) FM technology can be used with hearing aids,but not with cochlear implants.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Let's say you are fitting a hearing aid on a young child.How would you instruct the parent about battery safety?
Q8) Battery sizes are _____________________ coded.
Q9) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid. Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing aids are the only management option for adults with hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:
A)Problem localizing the source of sound
B)Risk for academic problems
C)Risk for language impairment
D)All of the above
Q3) An example of a computer-based program for auditory training in adults is
Q4) Which of the following are psychosocial problems associated with hearing loss:
A)Anxiety
B)Anger
C)Self-consciousness
D)All of the above
Q5) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q6) ___________________ counseling is explaining the results of hearing assessment and what should be done next. Page 24
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Page 25
Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly define the term tinnitus.
Q2) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients with tinnitus never experience hyperacusis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Risk factors for false or exaggerated hearing loss include:
A)The potential for financial compensation or gain
B)Sudden apparent hearing loss with no clear diagnosis
C)A history of physical,sexual,or emotional abuse
D)All of the above are risk factors
Q6) Patients who are feigning or faking a hearing loss are sometimes referred to as ________.
Q7) A tinnitus evaluation usually involves measurement of the _______ and the ________ of a patient's tinnitus.
Q8) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Habilitation/rehabilitation of infant hearing loss is:
A)Completed at birth
B)Family centered
C)The responsibility of otolaryngologists
D)Deferred until kindergarten
Q2) An audiology or speech pathology report is a legal document.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.
Q4) Characteristics of effective patient reports are:
A)Simple and clear
B)Accurate
C)Supported by clinical findings
D)All of the above
Q5) The acronym BPPV stands for ____________
Q6) An audiologist who is responsible for meeting the hearing needs of children in a school system is called ______________.
Page 27
Q7) Name a vestibular disorder in which the audiologist is directly involved in rehabilitation.
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