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Classical Mechanics is a foundational course that explores the principles governing the motion of objects under the influence of forces. Topics include Newton's laws of motion, conservation of energy and momentum, rotational dynamics, oscillatory motion, and the Lagrangian and Hamiltonian formulations of mechanics. Emphasis is placed on both problem-solving and conceptual understanding, providing students with the tools necessary to analyze a wide range of physical systems, from simple particles to rigid bodies. This course forms the basis for further studies in physics and engineering.
Recommended Textbook Physics for Scientists and Engineers Technology Update 9th Edition Raymond A. Serway
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Q1) John and Linda are arguing about the definition of density.John says the density of an object is proportional to its mass.Linda says the object's mass is proportional to its density and to its volume.Which one,if either,is correct?
A)They are both wrong.
B)John is correct,but Linda is wrong.
C)John is wrong,but Linda is correct.
D)They are both correct.
E)They are free to redefine density as they wish.
Answer: D
Q2) The density of an object is defined as:
A)the volume occupied by each unit of mass.
B)the amount of mass for each unit of volume.
C)the weight of each unit of volume.
D)the amount of the substance that has unit volume and unit mass.
E)the amount of the substance that contains as many particles as 12 grams of the carbon-12 isotope.
Answer: B
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Q1) A juggler throws two balls to the same height so that one is at the halfway point going up when the other is at the halfway point coming down.At that point:
A)Their velocities and accelerations are equal.
B)Their velocities are equal but their accelerations are equal and opposite.
C)Their accelerations are equal but their velocities are equal and opposite.
D)Their velocities and accelerations are both equal and opposite.
E)Their velocities are equal to their accelerations.
Answer: C
Q2) Two children start at one end of a street,the origin,run to the other end,then head back.On the way back Joan is ahead of Mike.Which statement is correct about the distances run and the displacements from the origin?
A)Joan has run a greater distance and her displacement is greater than Mike's.
B)Mike has run a greater distance and his displacement is greater than Joan's.
C)Joan has run a greater distance,but her displacement is less than Mike's.
D)Mike has run a greater distance,but his displacement is less than Joan's.
E)Mike has run a shorter distance,and his displacement is less than Joan's.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what quadrant are both the sine and tangent negative?
A)1st
B)2nd
C)3rd
D)4th
E)This cannot happen.
Answer: D
Q2) The displacement of the tip of the 10 cm long minute hand of a clock between 12:15
A.M.and 12:45 P.M.is:
A)10 cm,90°
B)10 cm,180°
C)10 cm,4 500°
D)20 cm,180°
E)20 cm,540°

Answer: D
Q3) A vector starts at coordinate (3.0,4.0)and ends at coordinate ( 2.0,16.0).What are the magnitude and direction of this vector?
Answer: 13.0 m,113°.
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Q1) The speed of a particle moving in a circle 2.0 m in radius increases at the constant rate of 4.4 m/s<sup>2</sup>.At an instant when the magnitude of the total acceleration is 6.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>,what is the speed of the particle?
A)3.9 m/s
B)2.9 m/s
C)3.5 m/s
D)3.0 m/s
E)1.4 m/s
Q2) A football is thrown upward at a 30.0° angle to the horizontal.To throw a 40.0-m pass,what must be the initial speed of the ball?
Q3) A particle moves at a constant speed in a circular path with a radius of 2.06 cm.If the particle makes four revolutions each second,what is the magnitude of its acceleration?
A)20 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B)18 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C)13 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D)15 m/s<sup>2</sup>
E)24 m/s<sup>2</sup>
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Q1) You have a machine which can accelerate pucks on frictionless ice.Starting from rest,the puck travels a distance x in time t when force F is applied.If force 3F is applied,the distance the puck travels in time t is A)x.
B)(3/2)x.
C)3x.
D)(9/2)x.
E)9x.
Q2) Two experiments are performed.In (A),an 18.0 N force pushes horizontally on a 2.00 kg block that then pushes on a 4.00 kg block.In (B),an 18.0 N force pushes on a 4.00 kg block that then pushes on a 2.00 kg block.Which statement is correct?
A)The acceleration is 3.00 m/s<sup>2</sup> in both (A)and (B).
B)The acceleration is 4.50 m/s<sup>2</sup> in both (A)and (B).
C)The acceleration is 6.00 m/s<sup>2</sup> in both (A)and (B).
D)The acceleration is 9.00 m/s<sup>2</sup> in both (A)and (B).
E)The 2.00 kg block has a 9.00 m/s<sup>2</sup> acceleration.The 4.00 kg block has a 4.50 m/s<sup>2</sup> acceleration.
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Q1) A car enters a level,unbanked semi-circular hairpin turn of 100 m radius at a speed of 28 m/s.The coefficient of friction between the tires and the road is = 0.800.If the car maintains a constant speed of 28 m/s,it will
A)attempt to dig into the road surface.
B)tend to veer toward the center of the semicircle.
C)arrive safely at the end of the semicircle.
D)tend to veer toward the outside of the circle.
E)veer toward the center for the first quarter-circle,then veer toward the outside for the second quarter-circle.
Q2) A boy on board a cruise ship drops a 30.0 gm marble into the ocean.If the resistive force proportionality constant is 0.500 kg/s,what is the terminal speed of the marble in m/s?
A)0.147
B)0.294
C)0.588
D)1.18
E)2.35
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Q1) A 30-kg child sitting 5.0 m from the center of a merry-go-round has a constant speed of 5.0 m/s.While she remains seated in the same spot and travels in a circle,the work the seat performs on her in one complete rotation is
A)0 J.
B)150 J.
C)1 500 J.
D)4 700 J.
E)46 000 J.
Q2) In a contest,two tractors pull two identical blocks of stone the same distance over identical surfaces.However,block A is moving twice as fast as block B when it crosses the finish line.Which statement is correct?
A)Block A has twice as much kinetic energy as block B.
B)Block B has lost twice as much kinetic energy to friction as block A.
C)Block B has lost twice as much kinetic energy as block A.
D)Both blocks have had equal losses of energy to friction.
E)No energy is lost to friction because the ground has no displacement.
Q3) A baseball outfielder throws a baseball of mass 0.15 kg at a speed of 40 m/s and initial angle of 30°.What is the kinetic energy of the baseball at the highest point of the trajectory?
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Q1) A 1.2-kg mass is projected from ground level with a velocity of 30 m/s at some unknown angle above the horizontal.A short time after being projected,the mass barely clears a 16-m tall fence.Disregard air resistance and assume the ground is level.What is the kinetic energy of the mass as it clears the fence?
A)0.35 kJ
B)0.73 kJ
C)0.40 kJ
D)0.68 kJ
E)0.19 kJ
Q2) An astronaut tosses a ball out in space where gravitational forces may be neglected.What will happen to the ball?
A)It will stop as soon as the force the astronaut gave it is used up.
B)It will stop when the energy the astronaut gave it runs out.
C)It will stop after a short time because there is no gravity to keep it moving.
D)It will move in a circle like a boomerang.
E)It will be slowed down very gradually by collisions with molecules in space.
Q3) A simple pendulum,2.0 m in length,is released from rest when the support string is at an angle of 25° from the vertical.What is the speed of the suspended mass at the bottom of the swing?
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Q1) A 6.0-kg object moving 5.0 m/s collides with and sticks to a 2.0-kg object.After the collision the composite object is moving 2.0 m/s in a direction opposite to the initial direction of motion of the 6.0-kg object.Determine the speed of the 2.0-kg object before the collision.
A)15 m/s
B)7.0 m/s
C)8.0 m/s
D)23 m/s
E)11 m/s
Q2) A 1.5-kg playground ball is moving with a velocity of 3.0 m/s directed 30° below the horizontal just before it strikes a horizontal surface.The ball leaves this surface 0.50 s later with a velocity of 2.0 m/s directed 60° above the horizontal.What is the magnitude of the average resultant force on the ball?
A)14 N
B)11 N
C)18 N
D)22 N
E)3.0 N
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Q1) A horizontal disk with a radius of 10 cm rotates about a vertical axis through its center.The disk starts from rest at t = 0 and has a constant angular acceleration of 2.1 rad/s<sup>2</sup>.At what value of t will the radial and tangential components of the linear acceleration of a point on the rim of the disk be equal in magnitude?
A)0.55 s
B)0.63 s
C)0.69 s
D)0.59 s
E)0.47 s
Q2) Particles (mass of each = 0.20 kg)are placed at the 40-cm and 100-cm marks of a meter stick of negligible mass.This rigid body is free to rotate about a frictionless pivot at the 0-cm end.The body is released from rest in the horizontal position.What is the initial angular acceleration of the body?
A)12 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
B)5.9 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
C)8.4 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
D)5.4 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
E)17 rad/s<sup>2</sup>
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Q1) A space station out beyond the solar system is rotating with constant angular velocity.A spaceship heading into the station along a diameter of the station,uses its rockets to brake,and then docks inside the station at its center.When the spaceship docks,the angular momentum of the system consisting of the station and ship
A)is less than the original angular momentum of the station.
B)is the same as the original angular momentum of the station.
C)is greater than the original angular momentum of the station.
D)is less than the original angular momentum of the station,but the angular velocity increases.
E)is greater than the original angular momentum of the station,but the angular velocity decreases.
Q2) When an object is effectively isolated from external torques,like an ice skater twirling on the tip of one skate,the angular momentum of the object
A)can be increased by shifting mass out away from the axis of rotation.
B)can be decreased by shifting mass out away from the axis of rotation.
C)can be increased by shifting mass in toward the axis of rotation.
D)can be decreased by shifting mass in toward the axis of rotation.
E)cannot be changed except by friction at the point of contact.
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Q1) A uniform ladder 15 ft long is leaning against a frictionless wall at an angle of 53° above the horizontal.The weight of the ladder is 30 pounds.A 75-lb boy climbs 6.0-ft up the ladder.What is the magnitude of the friction force exerted on the ladder by the floor?
A)43 lb
B)34 lb
C)38 lb
D)47 lb
E)24 lb
Q2) For safety in climbing,a mountaineer uses a 50-m long nylon rope that is 1.0 cm in diameter.When supporting a 90-kg climber,the rope elongates 1.6 m.Find the Young's modulus for the rope material.
Q3) The four tires of an automobile are inflated to a gauge pressure of 2.0 × 10<sup>5</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup> (29 PSI).Each of the four tires has an area of 0.024 m<sup>2</sup> that is in contact with the ground.Determine the weight of the auto.
Q4) Find the minimum diameter of a steel wire 18 m long that will stretch no more than 9 mm when a load of 380 kg is hung on the lower end.(Y steel = 2.0 × 10<sup>11</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>).
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Q1) A spacecraft (mass = m)orbits a planet (mass = M)in a circular orbit (radius = R).What is the minimum energy required to send this spacecraft to a distant point in space where the gravitational force on the spacecraft by the planet is negligible?
A)GmM/(4R)
B)GmM/R
C)GmM/(2R)
D)GmM/(3R)
E)2GmM/(5R)
Q2) When two solid spheres of the same material and same radius r are in contact,the magnitude of the gravitational force each exerts on the other is directly proportional to A)r.
B)r<sup>2</sup>.
C)r<sup>3</sup>.
D)r<sup>4</sup>.
E)r<sup>6</sup>.
Q3) What is the period of revolution of a planet in circular orbit around a star of 4.0 solar masses if it is at a distance from the star equal to that of the Earth from the Sun?
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Q1) An empty spice bottle has an inner volume of 1.31 × 10 <sup>4</sup> m<sup>3</sup>.It has a mass of 112 g when filled with air,and it displaces 1.63 × 10 <sup>4</sup> m<sup>3</sup> of water when fully submerged.What volume of mercury ( <sub>Hg</sub> = 13.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg/m<sup>3</sup>)must be added to the empty bottle so that it will just submerge?
A)3.75 cm<sup>3</sup>
B)12.0 cm<sup>3</sup>
C)101 cm<sup>3</sup>
D)147 cm<sup>3</sup>
E)237 cm<sup>3</sup>
Q2) An empty spice bottle has an inner volume of 1.31 × 10 <sup>4</sup> m<sup>3</sup>.It has a mass of 112 g when filled with air,and it displaces 1.63 × 10 <sup>4</sup> m<sup>3</sup> of water when fully submerged.What fraction of the total volume of the bottle will be beneath the surface when it is placed in a tank of water?
A)0.69
B)0.81
C)0.85
D)1.00
E)1.46
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Q1) The amplitude of a system moving with simple harmonic motion is doubled.The total energy will then be
A)4 times as large
B)3 times as large
C)2 times as large
D)the same as it was
E)half as much
Q2) The motion of a particle connected to a spring is described by x = 10 sin ( t).At what time (in s)is the potential energy equal to the kinetic energy?
A)0
B)0.25
C)0.50
D)0.79
E)1.0
Q3) An archer pulls her bow string back 0.40 m by exerting a force that increases uniformly from zero to 240 N.What is the equivalent spring constant of the bow,and how much work is done in pulling the bow?
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Q1) A circus performer stretches a tightrope between two towers.He strikes one end of the rope and sends a wave along it toward the other tower.He notes that it takes 0.8 s for the wave to travel the 20 m to the opposite tower.If one meter of the rope has a mass of 0.35 kg,find the tension in the tightrope.
Q2) The wavelength of light visible to the human eye is on the order of 5 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m.If the speed of light in air is 3 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,find the frequency of the lightwave.
A)3 × 10<sup>7</sup> Hz
B)4 × 10<sup>9</sup> Hz
C)5 × 10<sup>11</sup> Hz
D)6 × 10<sup>14</sup> Hz
E)4 × 10<sup>15</sup> Hz
Q3) If y = 0.02 sin (30x 400t)(SI units),the frequency of the wave is
A)30 Hz
B)15/ Hz
C)200/ Hz
D)400 Hz
E)800 Hz
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Q1) A car moving at 36 m/s passes a stationary police car whose siren has a frequency of 500 hz.What is the change in the frequency (in Hz)heard by an observer in the moving car as he passes the police car? (The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. )
A)416
B)208
C)105
D)52
E)552
Q2) A point source emits sound waves with a power output of 100 watts.What is the sound level (in dB)at a distance of 10 m?
A)139
B)119
C)129
D)109
E)10
Q3) An airplane traveling at half the speed of sound emits sound at a frequency of 5 000 Hz.At what frequency does a stationary listener hear the sound as the plane approaches,and after it passes by? Assume the airplane is not flying very high.
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Q1) Two strings are respectively 1.00 m and 2.00 m long.Which of the following wavelengths,in meters,could represent harmonics present on both strings?
A)0.800,0.670,0.500
B)1.33,1.00,0.500
C)2.00,1.00,0.500
D)2.00,1.33,1.00
E)4.00,2.00,1.00
Q2) A string with a fixed frequency vibrator at one end is subjected to varying tensions.When the tension is 20 N,a resonance with 3 antinodes results.What tension would cause a resonance with 2 antinodes in this string?
A)30 N
B)45 N
C)80 N
D)8.9 N
E)13 N
Q3) Find the frequencies of the first three harmonics of a 1.0-m long string which has a mass per unit length of 2.0 × 10 <sup>3</sup> kg/m and a tension of 80 N when both ends are fixed in place.
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Q1) A thermometer registers a change in temperature of 100°F.What change in temperature does this correspond to on the Kelvin Scale?
A)453
B)328
C)180
D)55.6
E)24.5
Q2) An auditorium has a volume of 6 × 10<sup>3</sup> m<sup>3</sup>.How many molecules of air are needed to fill the auditorium at one atmosphere and 0°C?
A)1.6 × 10<sup>29</sup>
B)1.6 × 10<sup>27</sup>
C)1.6 × 10<sup>25</sup>
D)1.6 × 10<sup>23</sup>
E)1.6 × 10<sup>20</sup>
Q3) Suppose the ends of a 30-m long steel beam are rigidly clamped at 0°C to prevent expansion.The beam has a cross-sectional area of 30 cm<sup>2</sup>.What force against the clamps does the beam exert when it is heated to 40°C? ( <sub>Steel</sub> = 1.1 × 10 <sup>5</sup>/°C,Y<sub>steel</sub> = 20 × 10<sup>10</sup> N/m<sup>2</sup>).
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Q1) In which process will the internal energy of the system NOT change?
A)An adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas.
B)An isothermal compression of an ideal gas.
C)An isobaric expansion of an ideal gas.
D)The freezing of a quantity of liquid at its melting point.
E)The evaporation of a quantity of a liquid at its boiling point.
Q2) A 100-g cube of ice is heated from 120°C to +120°C.In which of the following processes is the greatest amount of energy absorbed by this material?
A)warming ice to the melting point
B)melting the ice to become water
C)warming the resulting water
D)vaporizing the water to become steam
E)heating the steam
Q3) We are able to define a mechanical equivalent for heat because
A)some thermal energy can be converted into mechanical energy.
B)mechanical energy can be converted into thermal energy.
C)work can be converted into thermal energy.
D)some thermal energy can be converted into work.
E)all of the above can occur.
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Q1) The air in an automobile engine at 20°C is compressed from an initial pressure of 1.0 atm and a volume of 200 cm<sup>3</sup> to a volume of 20 cm<sup>3</sup>.Find the temperature if the air behaves like an ideal gas ( = 1.4)and the compression is adiabatic.
A)730°C
B)460°C
C)25°C
D)50°C
E)20°C
Q2) When we consider a thin horizontal layer of the atmosphere,of thickness dy,of area
A,with pressure P on the bottom,with an average mass m per molecule,and n<sub>V</sub> molecules per unit volume,the magnitude of the difference of the pressure at the top and bottom of the layer is given by dP = A)mgdy.
B)mgn<sub>V</sub>dy. C)mgAdy.
D)mgn<sub>V</sub>Ady.
E)mgn<sub>V</sub>APdy.
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Q1) A violation of the second law of thermodynamics would occur if
A)a ball lying on the ground started to bounce.
B)transfer of energy by heat moved energy from an object at low temperature to an object at a higher temperature.
C)a motion picture was run backwards through the projector.
D)any of the above occurred.
E)(a)or (b)occurred,but not (c).
Q2) A company that produces pulsed gas heaters claims their efficiency is approximately 90%.If an engine operates between 250°C and 25°C,what is its maximum thermodynamic efficiency?
A)83%
B)65%
C)43%
D)90%
E)56%
Q3) In a nuclear power plant,the reactor produces 500°C steam that is used to power the steam turbines which generate 1 500 MW of electrical power.The cooling tower eliminates the waste heat at 50°C.If the efficiency of the plant were that of a Carnot engine,at what rate would waste heat be vented to the atmosphere?
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Q1) Rubber rods charged by rubbing with cat fur repel each other.Glass rods charged by rubbing with silk repel each other.A rubber rod and a glass rod charged respectively as above attract each other.A possible explanation is that
A)Any two rubber rods charged this way have opposite charges on them.
B)Any two glass rods charged this way have opposite charges on them.
C)A rubber rod and a glass rod charged this way have opposite charges on them.
D)All rubber rods always have an excess of positive charge on them.
E)All glass rods always have an excess of negative charge on them.
Q2) A point charge Q is placed on the x axis at x = 2.0 m.A second point charge, Q,is placed at x = 3.0 m.If Q = 40 C,what is the magnitude of the electrostatic force on a 30- C charge placed at the origin?
A)7.2 N
B)3.9 N
C)1.5 N
D)14 N
E)8.1 N
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Q1) An uncharged spherical conducting shell surrounds a charge q at the center of the shell.Then charge +3q is placed on the outside of the shell.When static equilibrium is reached,the charges on the inner and outer surfaces of the shell are respectively
A)+q, q.
B) q,+q.
C)+q,+2q.
D)+2q,+q.
E)+3q,0.
Q2) Charge of uniform density (40 pC/m<sup>2</sup>)is distributed on a spherical surface (radius = 1.0 cm),and a second concentric spherical surface (radius = 3.0 cm)carries a uniform charge density of 60 pC/m<sup>2</sup>.What is the magnitude of the electric field at a point 4.0 cm from the center of the two surfaces?
A)3.8 N/C
B)4.1 N/C
C)3.5 N/C
D)3.2 N/C
E)0.28 N/C
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Q1) Two identical particles,each with a mass of 2.0 g and a charge of 25 nC,are released simultaneously from rest when the two are 4.0 cm apart.What is the speed of either particle at the instant when the two are separated by 10 cm?
A)7.3 m/s
B)9.8 m/s
C)9.2 m/s
D)6.5 m/s
E)4.6 m/s
Q2) Two particles,each having a mass of 3.0 g and having equal but opposite charges of magnitude 5.0 nC,are released simultaneously from rest when the two are 5.0 cm apart.What is the speed of either particle at the instant when the two are separated by 2.0 cm?
A)2.1 m/s
B)1.5 m/s
C)1.8 m/s
D)2.4 m/s
E)3.2 m/s
Q3) How much electrical charge is needed to raise an isolated metal sphere of radius 1.0 m to a potential of 1.0 × 10<sup>6</sup> V?
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Q1) A 30- F capacitor is charged to an unknown potential V<sub>0</sub> and then connected across an initially uncharged 10- F capacitor.If the final potential difference across the 10- F capacitor is 20 V,determine V<sub>0</sub>.
A)13 V
B)27 V
C)20 V
D)29 V
E)60 V
Q2) Two spheres are made of conducting material.Sphere #2 has twice the radius of Sphere #1.What is the ratio of the capacitance of Sphere #2 to the capacitance of sphere #1?
A)1,since all conducting spheres have the same capacitance.
B)2
C)4
D)8
E)A single sphere has no capacitance since a second concentric spherical shell is necessary to make a spherical capacitor.Thus,none of the answers above is correct.
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Q1) If a mile of 24-gauge copper wire has a resistance of 0.14 k and the resistivity of copper is 1.7 × 10 <sup>8</sup> m,what is the diameter of the wire? (1 mile = 1.6 km)
A)0.40 mm
B)0.50 mm
C)0.63 mm
D)0.80 mm
E)0.25 mm
Q2) A wire (length = 2.0 m,diameter = 1.0 mm)has a resistance of 0.45 .What is the resistivity of the material used to make the wire?
A)5.6 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m
B)1.2 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m
C)1.8 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m
D)2.3 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m
E)7.1 × 10 <sup>7</sup> m
Q3) What is the resistance of 1 000 m of 4-mm diameter copper wire? ( <sub>Cu</sub> = 1.7 × 10<sup>-8</sup> m)
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Q1) How many time constants must elapse if an initially charged capacitor is to discharge 55% of its stored energy through a resistor?
A)0.60
B)0.46
C)0.52
D)0.40
E)1.1
Q2) An initially uncharged 10- F capacitor is charged by a 10-V battery through a resistance R.The capacitor reaches a potential difference of 4 V in a period of 3 s after the charging began.Find the value of R.
Q3) The algebraic sum of the changes of potential around any closed circuit loop is A)zero.
B)maximum.
C)zero only if there are no sources of emf in the loop.
D)maximum if there are no sources of emf in the loop.
E)equal to the sum of the currents in the branches of the loop.
Q4) What is the maximum number of 100-W lightbulbs you can connect in parallel in a 120-V home circuit without tripping the 20-A circuit breaker?
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Q1) A physicist claims that she has found a new particle with a mass 200 000 times the mass of the proton (1.67 × 10 <sup>27</sup> kg)and a charge of 3.20 × 10 <sup>19</sup>
C.If she is correct,such a particle traveling in a circle in a uniform 5.00 T magnetic field at a velocity of 2 500 m/s will have a radius of
A)0.261 m.
B)0.522 m.
C)1.04 m.
D)3.27 m.
E)3.13 × 10<sup>26</sup> m.
Q2) A segment of wire carries a current of 25 A along the x axis from x = 2.0 m to x = 0 and then along the z axis from z = 0 to z = 3.0m.In this region of space,the magnetic field is equal to 40 mT in the positive z direction.What is the magnitude of the force on this segment of wire?
A)1.0 N
B)5.0 N
C)2.0 N
D)3.6 N
E)3.0 N
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Q1) A current-carrying 2.0-cm long segment of wire is inside a long solenoid (radius = 4.0 cm,n = 800 turns/m,current = 50 mA).The wire segment is oriented perpendicularly to the axis of the solenoid.If the current in the wire segment is 12 A,what is the magnitude of the magnetic force on this segment?
A)22 N
B)16 N
C)18 N
D)12 N
E)0 N
Q2) The magnetic field at (+3 m,0,0)is in the negative y direction.
A)1 and 2 are correct.
B)1 and 4 are correct.
C)2 and 3 are correct.
D)3 and 4 are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q3) A long solenoid (n = 80 turns/cm)carries a current of 70 mA.Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid.
Q4) The field at (0,0,1.0 m)is in the positive z direction.
Q5) The field at (0,1.0 m,0)is in the negative y direction.
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Q1) In a demonstration,a 4.00 cm<sup>2</sup> square coil with 10000 turns enters a larger square region with a uniform 1.50 T magnetic field at a speed of 100 m/s.The plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field lines.If the breakdown voltage of air is 4000 V/cm on that day,the largest gap you can have between the two wires connected to the ends of the coil and still get a spark is
A)7.5 × 10 <sup>3</sup> cm.
B)0.015 cm.
C)7.5 cm.
D)13 cm.
E)15 cm.
Q2) A metal blade spins at a constant rate of 5.0 revolutions per second about a pivot through one end of the blade.This rotation occurs in a region where the component of the earth's magnetic field perpendicular to the blade is 30 T.If the blade is 60 cm in length,what is the magnitude of the potential difference between its ends?
A)0.24 mV
B)0.20 mV
C)0.17 mV
D)0.27 mV
E)0.34 mV
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Q1) Find the magnetic energy stored in the air gap between two very large magnetic pole pieces,one North,one South,each with an area of 100 cm<sup>2</sup>.Assume the 0.05 T magnetic field is uniform within the 2-cm gap.
Q2) A series LC circuit contains a 100 mH inductor,a 36.0 mF capacitor and a 12 V battery.The frequency of the electromagnetic oscillations in the circuit is
A)5.73 × 10 <sup>4</sup> Hz.
B)9.55 × 10 <sup>3</sup> Hz.
C)0.442 Hz.
D)2.65 Hz.
E)44.0 Hz.
Q3) When a switch is closed,completing an LR series circuit,the time needed for the current to reach three-quarters its maximum value is ____ time constants.
A)0.500
B)0.693
C)0.725
D)1.33
E)1.39
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Q1) A step-up transformer has an input voltage of 110 V (rms).There are 100 turns on the primary and 1500 on the secondary.What is the output voltage?
A)1 600 V (max)
B)1 650 V (rms)
C)3 260 V (max)
D)165 kV (rms)
E)7.3 V (rms)
Q2) A primary current of 6.0 A exists in an ideal iron-core transformer at a primary voltage of 100 volts.If the current in the secondary is 0.75 A,calculate the output voltage.
A)12.5 V
B)40 V
C)400 V
D)800 V
E)200 V
Q3) A 10.0- resistor,10.0-mH inductor,and 10.0- F capacitor are connected in series with a 10.0-kHz voltage source.The rms current through the circuit is 0.200 A.Find the rms voltage drop across each of the 3 elements.
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Q1) A solar cell has a light-gathering area of 10 cm<sup>2</sup> and produces 0.2 A at 0.8 V (DC)when illuminated with S = 1 000 W/m<sup>2</sup> sunlight.What is the efficiency of the solar cell?
A)16%
B)7%
C)23%
D)4%
E)32%
Q2) A 100-kW radio station emits EM waves in all directions from an antenna on top of a mountain.What is the intensity of the signal at a distance of 10 km?
A)8 × 10 <sup>5</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>
B)8 × 10 <sup>6</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>
C)3 × 10 <sup>3</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>
D)0.8 W/m<sup>2</sup>
E)2.5 × 10 <sup>5</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>
Q3) The sun radiates energy at a rate of 3.86 × 10<sup>26</sup> W.Its radius is 7.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> m.If the distance from the Earth to the sun is 1.5 × 10<sup>11</sup> m,what is the intensity of solar radiation at the top of the Earth's atmosphere?
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Q1) The index of refraction for red light in water is 1.331 and for blue light is 1.340.If a ray of white light enters the water at an angle of incidence of 83.00°,what are the underwater angles of refraction for the blue and red components of the light?
Q2) An experiment to measure the speed of light uses an apparatus similar to Fizeau's.The distance between the light source and the mirror is 10 m,and the wheel has 800 notches.If the wheel rotates at 9000 rev/s when the light from the source is extinguished,what is the experimental value for c (in m/s)?
A)2.94 × 10<sup>8</sup>
B)2.92 × 10<sup>8</sup>
C)2.88 × 10<sup>8</sup>
D)2.98 × 10<sup>8</sup>
E)3.01 × 10<sup>8</sup>
Q3) The laws of refraction and reflection are the same for sound as for light.The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s and in water it is 1510 m/s.If a sound wave approaches a plane water surface at an angle of incidence of 12.0°,what is the angle of refraction?
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Q1) An object 20-cm high is placed 50.0 cm in front of a lens whose focal length is 5.00 cm.Where will the image be located (in cm)?
A)5.13
B)5.56
C)5.72
D)5.93
E)4.55
Q2) Bottles of perfume sometimes have thick glass (n = 1.5)walls which give the impression the volume is larger than it is.Assume a cylindrical bottle has an inner radius of 1.0 cm and an outer radius of 2.0 cm.How thick (in cm)would the wall appear if you could see a mark on the inside surface?
A)0.80
B)0.51
C)0.72
D)80
E)12
Q3) A magnifying glass has a convex lens of focal length 15 cm.At what distance from a postage stamp should you hold this lens to get a magnification of +2.0?
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Q1) When the adjustable mirror on the Michelson interferometer is moved 20 wavelengths,how many fringe pattern shifts would be counted?
A)5
B)10
C)20
D)40
E)80
Q2) A uniform film of oil (n = 1.31)is floating on water.When sunlight in air is incident normally on the film,an observer finds that the reflected light has a brightness maximum at = 450 nm and a brightness minimum at = 600 nm.What is the thickness of the oil film?
Q3) For small angle approximations
A)the angle must be 10° or less
B)the angle must be 10 radians or less
C)the angle must be 1° or less
D)the angle must be 1 radian or less
E)the angle must be 45° or less
Q4) A soap bubble (n = 1.35)is floating in air.If the thickness of the bubble wall is 115 nm,what visible light wavelength is most strongly reflected?
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Q1) A single slit of width a is illuminated by light of wavelength .If a = 4.3 ,the maximum number of dark fringes on a semi-circular screen surrounding the slit is A)2.
B)4.
C)6.
D)8.
E)9.
Q2) A diffraction grating with 4000 lines/cm is illuminated by light from the sun.The solar spectrum is spread out on a white wall across the room.At what angle from the center line does blue light (400 nm)appear? At what angle from the center line does red light (650 nm)appear?
Q3) Light reflected off a plate-glass window (n = 1.5)is found to be completely polarized at angle-of-incidence .Find .
A)56.3°
B)5.7°
C)21.2°
D)18.6°
E)33.7°
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Q1) An astronaut traveling with a speed v = 0.90 c holds a meterstick in his hand.If he measures its length,he will obtain a value of
A)1.0 m
B)2.3 m
C)0.19 m
D)0.43 m
E)0.81 m
Q2) In a color television tube,electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of 20000 volts.With what velocity do the electrons strike the screen?
Q3) Assume a gram of a substance marketed as "Pure Energy" is annihilated by a gram of a second substance "Anti-Pure Energy." How long would the energy released power a city which uses 10<sup>9</sup> watts of power?
A)40 hrs
B)25 hrs
C)50 hrs
D)65 hrs
E)50000 hrs
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Q1) The number of photons per second passing a plane perpendicular to a collimated monochromatic (one frequency)beam of light transporting power P is directly proportional to A)the wavelength of the light.
B)the frequency of the light.
C)the power of the beam.
D)all of the above.
E)only (a)and (c)above.
Q2) A photon whose energy is 8.00 × 10 <sup>15</sup> J is scattered off an electron at a 90° angle.What is the wavelength of the scattered wave?
A)2.73 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
B)2.25 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
C)2.50 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
D)2.40 × 10 <sup>12</sup> m
E)2.48 × 10 <sup>11</sup> m
Q3) The "seeing ability" or resolution of radiation is determined by its wavelength.If an atom is approximately 10 <sup>10</sup> m in diameter,how fast must an electron travel to have a wavelength smaller than the size of an atom?
Q4) What is the energy in eV of a photon of yellow light? = 500 nm.
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Q1) A particle has a total energy that is less than that of a potential barrier.When the particle penetrates the barrier,its wave function is
A)a positive constant.
B)exponentially increasing.
C)oscillatory.
D)exponentially decreasing.
E)none of the above.
Q2) A particle is in the first excited state of a one-dimensional box of length 1.0 m.What is the minimum value of its momentum (in kg m/s)?
A)3.3 × 10 <sup>34</sup>
B)6.6 × 10 <sup>34</sup>
C)9.9 × 10 <sup>34</sup>
D)13 × 10 <sup>34</sup>
E)22 × 10 <sup>34</sup>
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Q1) In a completely filled atomic shell,
A)the intrinsic spin of the electrons does not produce a resultant magnetic moment.
B)the orbital motion of the electrons does not produce a resultant magnetic moment.
C)the atom will be an alkali metal.
D)only (a)and (b)are correct.
E)none of the above are correct.
Q2) A Li<sup>2+</sup> ion undergoes a transition from the n = 4 to the n = 3 state.The energy of the emitted photon is
A)4.5 eV
B)10.2 eV
C)5.95 eV
D)2.6 eV
E)0.66 eV
Q3) The energy difference between the upper and lower levels in a certain laser is 1.9593 eV.What is the wavelength of the light emitted by the laser?
Q4) A hydrogen atom emits a photon of wavelength 657.7 nm.From what energy state to what lower energy state did the electron jump?
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Q1) Assume a diatomic molecule can be considered to be two point masses separated by a distance r.The center of mass of the system is located a distance x from m<sub>1</sub>,equal to A)m<sub>1</sub>r/(m<sub>1</sub> + m<sub>2</sub>) B)m<sub>2</sub>r/(m<sub>1</sub> + m<sub>2</sub>) C)(m<sub>1</sub> + m<sub>2</sub>)r/m<sub>1</sub> D)(m<sub>1</sub> + m<sub>2</sub>)r/m<sub>2</sub> E)r(m<sub>2</sub>/m<sub>1</sub>)
Q2) Solid argon has a density of 1650 kg/m<sup>3</sup>.The atomic weight of argon is 40.0.Assuming each atom occupies a cubical volume,what is the distance between the argon atoms?
Q3) The rotation spectrum of the HCl molecule suggests a photon in the far infrared (around 5.0 × 10 <sup>6</sup> m)can excite the first rotational level.From this data,the moment of inertia of the HCl molecule (in kg m<sup>2</sup>)is
A)2.8 × 10 <sup>48</sup>
B)2.8 × 10 <sup>49</sup>
C)2.8 × 10 <sup>47</sup>
D)2.8 × 10 <sup>46</sup>
E)2.8 × 10 <sup>45</sup>
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Q1) For large mass number nuclei which are stable,the ratio of protons to neutrons is A)equal to 1
B)greater than 1
C)less than 1
D)unrelated to the stability of nuclei
E)almost 2 to 1
Q2) The ratio of the radius of a classical electron (r<sub>e</sub> = k<sub>e</sub>e<sup>2</sup>/m<sub>e</sub>c<sup>2</sup> = 2.8 × 10 <sup>15</sup> m)to the radius of a <sup>4</sup>He nucleus (r = r<sub>0</sub>A<sup>1/3</sup>)is
A)2.0
B)0.68
C)1.5
D)0.92
E)2.4
Q3) The half-life of <sup>131</sup>I is 8 days.On a certain day,the activity of an <sup>131</sup>I sample is 6.4 mCi.What is its activity 40 days later?
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Q1) The theory of nuclear astrophysics is that all the heavy elements like uranium are formed in the interior of massive stars.These stars eventually explode,releasing these elements into space.If we assume that at the time of the explosion there were equal amount of U-235 and U-238,how long ago did the star(s)explode that released the elements that formed our Earth? The present U-235/U-238 ratio is 0.0070.[The half-lives of U-235 and U-238 are 0.7 × 10<sup>9</sup> yr and 4.47 × 10<sup>9</sup> yr.]
Q2) What energy is needed (in MeV)so two deuterium atoms moving together will reach the necessary 10 <sup>14</sup> m for fusion?
A)0.511

Q3) How much kinetic energy must a deuterium ion (charge 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C)have to approach to within 10 <sup>14</sup> m of another deuterium ion? (1 MeV = 1.6 × 10 <sup>13</sup> J)
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Q1) Particles composed of quarks are A)photons.
B)leptons.
C)neutrinos.
D)W and Z bosons.
E)baryons and mesons.
Q2) The three quarks in any baryon must all have different A)baryon number.
B)color charge.
C)electric charge.
D)lepton number.
E)spin.
Q3) A photon with an energy of E = 2.090 0 GeV creates a proton-antiproton pair in which the proton has a kinetic energy of 95.0 MeV.What is the kinetic energy of the antiproton? (m<sub>p</sub>c<sup>2</sup> = 938.3 MeV)
Q4) All particles can be classified into A)Leptons and quarks
B)Hadrons and leptons
C)Baryons and leptons
D)Mesons and Baryons

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