

Chemistry for Health Professions Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course provides a foundational understanding of chemistry concepts essential for students pursuing careers in health professions. Topics include atomic structure, chemical bonding, reactions, solutions, acids and bases, and the role of organic and biochemical molecules in physiological processes. Emphasis is placed on practical applications in healthcare settings, such as drug interactions, metabolic pathways, and diagnostic testing. Students will develop problem-solving and critical thinking skills necessary for interpreting chemical information relevant to patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry The Central Science 12th Edition by Theodore E. Brown
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24 Chapters
3504 Verified Questions
3504 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction: Matter and Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A concise verbal statement or mathematical equation that summarizes a broad variety of observations and experiences is called a(n)__________.
A)law
B)theory
C)hypothesis
D)experiment
E)test
Answer: A
Q2) 1 nanometer = __________ picometers
A)1000
B)0.1
C)0.01
D)1
E)10
Answer: A
Q3) Cu is the symbol for the element __________.
Answer: Copper
Q4) The symbol for the element phosphorus is __________.
Answer: P
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Chapter 2: Atoms, Molecules, and Ions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proper formula for the hydronium ion is __________.
A)H<sup>-</sup>
B)OH<sup>-</sup>
C)N<sup>-3</sup>
D)H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>
E)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
Answer: D
Q2) How many protons does the Br<sup>-</sup> ion possess?
A)34
B)36
C)6
D)8
E)35
Answer: E
Q3) Which element in Group IA is the most electropositive? Answer: francium
Q4) What is the name of an alcohol derived from hexane?
Answer: hexanol
Q5) The formula for potassium sulfide is __________. Answer: K<sub>2</sub>S
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Chapter 3: Stoichiometry: Calculations With Chemical
Formulas and Equations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H<sub>2</sub> is __________. K (s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O (l) KOH (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g)
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Answer: A
Q2) A compound is composed of only C, H, and O. The combustion of a 0.519-g sample of the compound yields 1.24 g of CO<sub>2</sub> and 0.255 g of H<sub>2</sub>O. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O
B)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O
C)CH<sub>3</sub>O
D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Answer: B
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Aqueous Reactions and Solution Stoichiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which compound has the atom with the highest oxidation number?
A)CaS
B)Na<sub>3</sub>N
C)MgSO<sub>3</sub>
D)Al(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
E)NH<sub>4</sub>Cl
Q2) Of the metals below, only __________ will not dissolve in an aqueous solution containing nickel ions. aluminum
Chromium
Barium
Tin
Potassium
A)aluminum
B)chromium
C)barium
D)tin
E)potassium
Q3) Calculate the concentration (M)of arsenic acid (H<sub>3</sub>AsO<sub>4</sub>)in a solution if 25.00 mL of that solution required 35.21 mL of 0.1894 M KOH for neutralization.
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Chapter 5: Thermochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific heat capacity of liquid mercury is 0.14 J/g-K. How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 5.00 g of mercury from 15.0 °C to 36.5 °C?
A)7.7 × 10<sup>2</sup>
B)15
C)36
D)0.0013
E)1.7
Q2) Calculate the kinetic energy in joules of a 150 lb jogger (68.1 kg)traveling at 12.0 mile/hr (5.36 m/s).
A)1.96 × 10<sup>3</sup>
B)365
C)978
D)183
E)68.1
Q3) Coal contains hydrocarbons of high molecular weight as well as compounds containing ________, oxygen, or nitrogen.
Q4) __________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.
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Chapter 6: Electronic Structure of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following configurations depicts an excited carbon atom?
A)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>1</sup>3s<sup>1</sup>
B)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>3</sup>
C)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>1</sup>
D)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>3s<sup>1</sup>
E)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>2</sup>
Q2) Which quantum numbers must be the same for the orbitals that they designate to be degenerate in a many-electron system?
A)n, l, and m<sub>l</sub>
B)n only
C)n, l, m<sub>l</sub>, and m<sub>s</sub>
D)m<sub>s</sub> only
E)n and l only
Q3) The ground state electron configuration for Zn is __________.
A)[Kr]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>
B)[Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>
C)[Ar]4s<sup>1</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>
D)[Ar]3s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>
E)[Kr]3s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>
Q4) The ground state electron configuration of copper is __________.
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Chapter 7: Periodic Properties of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a metal?
A)Ge
B)S
C)Br
D)Pb
E)C
Q2) Oxides of most nonmetals combine with water to form __________.
A)an acid
B)a base
C)water and a salt
D)water
E)hydrogen gas
Q3) Which equation correctly represents the first ionization of calcium?
A)Ca (g) Ca<sup>+</sup> (g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
B)Ca (g) Ca<sup>-</sup> (g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
C)Ca (g)+ e<sup>-</sup> Ca<sup>-</sup> (g)
D)Ca<sup>-</sup> (g) Ca (g)+ e<sup>-</sup>
E)Ca<sup>+</sup> (g)+ e<sup>-</sup> Ca (g)
Q4) Write the balanced equation for the reaction of potassium with water.
Q5) Complete the following : P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Basic Concepts of Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electron configuration of the P<sup>3-</sup> ion is __________.
A)[Ar]3s<sup>2</sup>3<sub>P</sub><sup>6</sup>
B)[Ar]3s<sup>2</sup>3<sub>P</sub><sup>2</sup>
C)[Ne]3s<sup>2</sup>3<sub>P</sub><sup>6</sup>
D)[Ne]3s<sup>2</sup>3<sub>P</sub><sup>2</sup>
E)[Kr]3s<sup>2</sup>3<sub>P</sub><sup>-6</sup>
Q2) Of the atoms below, __________ is the most electropositive.
A)Be
B)Mg
C)Ca
D)Sr
E)Ba
Q3) Bond enthalpy is __________.
A)always positive
B)always negative
C)sometimes positive, sometimes negative
D)always zero
E)unpredictable
Q4) The strength of a covalent bond is measured by its __________.
Q5) Which halogen, bromine or iodine, will form the more polar bond with phosphorus?
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Chapter 9: Molecular Geometry and Bonding Theories
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to MO theory, overlap of two p atomic orbitals produces __________.
A)one MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO
B)one MO and one MO
C)one MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO or one MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO
D)one <sup>+</sup> MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO
E)two MOs, two <sup>+</sup> MOs, one MO, and one <sup>*</sup><sup> </sup>MO
Q2) Molecular Orbital theory correctly predicts paramagnetism of oxygen gas, O<sub>2</sub>. This is because __________.
A)the bond order in O<sub>2</sub> can be shown to be equal to 2.
B)there are more electrons in the bonding orbitals than in the antibonding orbitals.
C)the energy of the <sub>2p</sub> MOs is higher than that of the <sub>2p</sub> MO
D)there are two unpaired electrons in the MO electron configuration of O<sub>2</sub>
E)the O-O bond distance is relatively short
Q3) What are the three bond angles in the trigonal bipyramidal structure?
Q4) Three molecules have similar electron domains, but different molecular shapes. Why?
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Chapter 10: Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deviation from ideal behavior of a gas is most evident at __________ and/or low temperature.
Q2) Which statement about atmospheric pressure is false?
A)As air becomes thinner, its density decreases.
B)Air actually has weight.
C)With an increase in altitude, atmospheric pressure increases as well.
D)The warmer the air, the lower the atmospheric pressure.
E)Atmospheric pressure prevents water in lakes, rivers, and oceans from boiling away.
Q3) A gas mixture of N<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> has a total pressure of 8.00 atm and contains 12.5 mol of gas. If the partial pressure of N<sub>2</sub> is 3.69 atm, how many moles of CO<sub>2</sub> are in the mixture?
A)5.77
B)3.69

Q4) How many molecules are there in 4.00 L of oxygen gas at 500 °C and 50.0 torr?
Q5) Abnormally high blood pressure is called __________.
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Chapter 11: Liquids and Intermolecular Forces
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A)The absolute value of the heat of sublimation is equal to the absolute value of the heat of deposition.
B)The heat of sublimation is equal to the sum of the heat of vaporization and the heat of melting.
C)The heat of sublimation is equal to the sum of the heat of vaporization and the heat of freezing.
D)The absolute value of the heat of sublimation is equal to the absolute value of the sum of the heat of condensation and the heat of freezing.
E)The absolute value of the heat of deposition is equal to sum of the absolute value of the heat of vaporization and the absolute value of the heat of freezing.
Q2) Which statement is true about liquids but not true about solids?
A)They flow and are highly ordered.
B)They are highly ordered and not compressible.
C)They flow and are compressible.
D)They assume both the volume and the shape of their containers.
E)They flow and are not compressible.
Q3) The direct conversion of a solid to a gas is called __________.
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13

Chapter 12: Solids and Modern Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potassium metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure with a unit cell edge length of 5.31 Å. The radius of a potassium atom is __________ Å.
A)1.33
B)1.88
C)2.30
D)2.66
E)5.31
Q2) The unit cell with all sides the same length and all angles equal to 90° that has lattice points only at the corners is called __________.
A)monoclinic
B)body-centered cubic
C)primitive cubic
D)face-centered cubic
E)spherical cubic
Q3) A plasticizer makes a polymer more pliable by reducing the interactions between polymer chains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Semiconductors are less conductive than metals because of __________ gap.
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Chapter 13: Properties of Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a saturated solution of a salt in water, __________.
A)the rate of crystallization > the rate of dissolution
B)the rate of dissolution > the rate of crystallization
C)seed crystal addition may cause massive crystallization
D)the rate of crystallization = the rate of dissolution
E)addition of more water causes massive crystallization
Q2) Calculate the molality of a 25.4% (by mass)aqueous solution of phosphoric acid (H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>).
A)2.59 m
B)3.47 m
C)4.45 m
D)25.4 m
E)The density of the solution is needed to solve the problem.
Q3) A 0.100 m solution of which one of the following solutes will have the lowest vapor pressure?
A)KClO<sub>4</sub>
B)Ca(ClO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
C)Al(ClO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
D)sucrose
E)NaCl
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Chapter 14: Chemical Kinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concentration of S<sub>2</sub>O<sub>8</sub><sup>2-</sup> remaining at 800 s is __________ M.
A)0.046
B)0.076
C)4.00 × 10<sup>-3</sup>
D)0.015
E)0.041
Q2) The rate of disappearance of HBr in the gas phase reaction 2HBr (g) H<sub>2</sub> (g)+ Br<sub>2</sub> (g)
Is 0.301 Ms<sup>-1</sup> at 150°C. The rate of appearance of Br<sub>2</sub> is __________ Ms<sup>-1</sup>.
A)1.66
B)0.151
C)0.0906
D)0.602
E)0.549
Q3) The number of molecules that participate as reactants defines the __________ of the reaction.
Q4) For the reaction aA + Bb cC + dD the rate law is __________.
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Chapter 15: Chemical Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the value for the equilibrium constant is much greater than 1, then the equilibrium mixture contains mostly __________.
Q2) The number obtained by substituting starting reactant and product concentrations into an equilibrium-constant expression is known as the __________.
Q3) If a reaction is endothermic, __________ the reaction temperature results in an increase in K.
Q4) For an exothermic reaction, increasing the reaction temperature results in a(an)__________ in K.
Q5) Le Châtelier's principle states that if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the equilibrium will shift to minimize the disturbance.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The equilibrium-constant expression depends on the __________ of the reaction.
A)stoichiometry
B)mechanism
C)stoichiometry and mechanism
D)the quantities of reactants and products initially present
E)temperature
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Chapter 16: Acid-Base Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 0.15 M aqueous solution of the weak base B at 25.0°C has a pH of 8.88. The value of K<sub>b</sub> for B is __________.
A)3.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
B)1.8 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup>
C)3.9 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup>
D)1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>10</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) Of the following, which is the strongest acid?
A)HClO
B)HClO<sub>3</sub>
C)HClO<sub>2</sub>
D)HClO<sub>4</sub>
E)HIO
Q3) The molar concentration of hydroxide ion in pure water at 25°C is __________.
A)1.00
B)0.00
C)1.0 ×10<sup>-14</sup>
D)1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup>
E)7.00
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Page 18

Chapter 17: Additional Aspects of Aqueous Equilibria
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which salt should the aqueous solubility be most sensitive to pH?
A)Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B)CaF<sub>2</sub>
C)CaCl<sub>2</sub>
D)CaBr<sub>2</sub>
E)CaI<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Calculate the pH of a solution that is 0.210 M in nitrous acid (HNO<sub>2</sub>)and 0.290 M in potassium nitrite (KNO<sub>2</sub>). The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is 4.50 × 10<sup>-4</sup>.
A)3.487
B)3.210
C)13.86
D)10.51
E)4.562
Q3) An assembly of a metal ion and the Lewis bases bonded to it is called a
Q4) Calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.820 grams of sodium acetate and 0.010 moles of acetic acid in 100 ml of water. The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
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Chapter 18: Chemistry of the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a stage in water treatment?
A)coarse filtration
B)aeration
C)chlorination
D)distillation
E)settling
Q2) The contribution of sulfur to acid rain is via the production of __________.
Q3) When dealing with gases, the volume fraction and the mole fraction are the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A chemical bond rupture resulting from the absorption of a photon is called
Q5) Water containing high concentrations of __________ cations is called hard water.
A)Ca<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup>
B)Mg<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup>
C)Na<sup>+</sup>
D)K<sup>+</sup>
E)Ca<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup> or Mg<sup>2</sup><sup>+</sup>
Q6) The primary chemical pollutants that create acid rain are __________ dioxide and __________ oxides.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Chemical Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The value of G° at 25 °C for the oxidation of solid elemental sulfur to gaseous sulfur trioxide, 2S (s, rhombic)+ 3O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2SO<sub>3</sub> (g)
Is __________ kJ/mol.
A)+740.8
B)-370.4
C)+370.4
D)-740.8
E)+185.2
Q2) For the reaction C(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>O(g) CO(g)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)
H° = 131.3 kJ/mol and S° = 127.6 J/K mol at 298 K. At temperatures greater than __________°C this reaction is spontaneous under standard conditions.
A)273
B)325
C)552
D)756
E)1029
Q3) Calculate G° for the autoionization of water at 25°C. K<sub>w</sub> = 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
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Page 21

Chapter 20: Electrochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the cell potential is negative in a voltaic cell the cell reaction will not proceed spontaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The standard cell potential (E°<sub>cell</sub>)for the reaction below is +0.63 V. The cell potential for this reaction is __________ V when [Zn<sup>2+</sup>] = 3.5 M and [Pb<sup>2+</sup>] = 2.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M. Pb<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ Zn (s) Zn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ Pb (s)
A)0.50
B)0.84
C)0.39
D)0.76
E)0.63
Q3) The dependence of cell emf on concentration is expressed in the __________ equation.
Q4) The lithium ion battery has more energy per unit mass than nickel-cadmium batteries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The major product of a hydrogen fuel cell is __________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Nuclear Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the half-life (in min)of this radionuclide?
A)0.024
B)0.022
C)32
D)0.032
E)45
Q2) Carbon-11 decays by __________.
A)alpha emission
B)beta emission
C)positron emission
D)electron capture
E)neutron capture
Q3) Which one of the following can be done to shorten the half-life of the radioactive decay of uranium-238?
A)freeze it
B)heat it
C)convert it to UF<sub>6</sub>
D)oxidize it to the +2 oxidation state
E)none of the above
Q4) The use of radioisotopes in tracing metabolism is possible because __________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Chemistry of the Nonmetals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide is produced
A)in blast furnaces when metal oxides are reduced with CO.
B)by combustion of carbon-containing substances in an excess of oxygen.
C)when carbonates are heated.
D)by fermentation of sugar during the production of ethanol.
E)by all of the above processes.
Q2) In a discussion of oxygen compounds, a disproportionation reaction is __________.
Q3) What is the coefficient of NO<sub>2</sub> when the following disproportionation reaction is balanced? NO<sub>2</sub> (g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O (l) H<sup>+</sup> (aq)+ NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> (aq)+ NO (g)
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)5
E)4
Q4) The reduction of O<sub>2</sub>by sodium hydride produces lye.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is meant by the term "composite"?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Transition Metals and Coordination Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heme unit of myoglobin is bound to the protein via a nitrogen-containing ligand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transition metal ions with empty valence orbitals act as __________.
Q3) The chelate effect is best attributed to considerations of which type?
A)hydration
B)enthalpy
C)entropy
D)hydrogen bonding
E)resonance
Q4) How many isomers exist for the octahedral complex ion
[Co(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>F<sub>2</sub>]<sup>+</sup>?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q5) How can high-spin and low-spin transition metal complexes be distinguished from each other?
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Chapter 24: The Chemistry of Life: Organic and Biological Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A carbon with three or more attached groups will be chiral.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The minimum number of carbons necessary for a hydrocarbon to form a branched structure is __________.
A)4
B)6
C)3
D)9
E)12
Q3) The general formula of an aldehyde is __________.
A)R-O-R'
B)R-CO-R'
C)R-CO-OH
D)R-CHO
E)R-CO-OR'
Q4) In the oxidation of ethanol the intermediate formed is __________.
Q5) The addition of an alkyl halide to an aromatic ring compound is called the __________ reaction.
Q6) In DNA adenine is always paired with __________. Page 26
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