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This course provides an introduction to fundamental concepts of chemistry with an emphasis on applications relevant to careers in allied health fields. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, states of matter, solutions, acids and bases, chemical reactions, and basic organic and biochemistry. The course is designed to help students understand the chemical basis of physiological processes and common health-related scenarios, fostering the ability to make informed decisions in healthcare settings. Laboratory exercises complement the lectures by offering hands-on experience in using chemical principles to analyze and solve real-world problems encountered in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Q1) Which value is closest to the mass of a 2-pound box of laundry detergent?
A)200 g
B)2.0 × 10<sup>-4</sup> cg
C)9 × 10<sup>9</sup> mg
D)1 kg
E)4.5 × 10<sup>3</sup> ng
Answer: D
Q2) Which measurement represents the smallest quantity?
A)2950 ng
B)2.95 × 10<sup>-4</sup> g
C)2.95 × 10<sup>3</sup> g
D)2.95 × 10<sup>-6</sup> kg
E)29.5 mg
Answer: A
Q3) List and describe two differences between pure substances and mixtures.
Answer: 1.The composition of a pure substance is always the same,regardless of the source,but the composition of a mixture can vary.
2.Mixtures can be separated into their components by physical changes;some pure substances can be separated into components by chemical change.
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Q1) Which element is most likely to have chemical properties similar to those of bromine (atomic number 35)?
A)S (atomic number 16)
B)Se (atomic number 34)
C)Kr (atomic number 36)
D)Te (atomic number 52)
E)I (atomic number 53)
Answer: E
Q2) Elements in the Periodic Table are arranged according to A)alphabetical order.
B)atomic number.
C)atomic weight.
D)date of discovery.
E)number of neutrons.
Answer: B
Q3) Give the electron dot structure for an element in Group 7A.
Answer: Any of the following could be a correct structure: 11ea7e31_c15c_997c_9bba_eda4fc36eec1_TB4943_00
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Q1) The formula PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup> means that this ion is composed of
A)one atom of phosphorus,one atom of oxygen,and three extra electrons.
B)four atoms of phosphorus,four atoms or oxygen,and three extra electrons.
C)one atom of phosphorus,four atoms of oxygen,and three electrons have been lost.
D)one atom of phosphorus,four atoms of oxygen,and three extra electrons.
E)four atoms of phosphorus,four atoms of oxygen,and three electrons have been lost.
Answer: D
Q2) The name of Cl<sup>-</sup> is
A)chlorine ion.
B)chloride ion.
C)chlorate ion.
D)chlorite ion.
E)diatomic chlorine.
Answer: B
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Q1) The carbon dioxide molecule is linear.The electronegativities of C and O are 2.5 and 3.5,respectively.Based on these values and on consideration of molecular geometry,the C-O bond is ________ and the molecule is ________.
A)polar;polar
B)nonpolar;nonpolar
C)polar;nonpolar
D)nonpolar;polar
E)none of the above
Q2) The water molecule has a ________ geometry because its central atom has ________ bonds and ________ lone pairs of electrons.
A)bent;two;two
B)linear;two;two
C)pyramidal;three;one
D)tetrahedral;four;zero
E)planar triangular;three;one
Q3) Explain how it is possible for CCl<sub>4</sub> to have polar bonds but be a non-polar molecule.A diagram may be helpful in your answer,but it must be explained.
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Q1) The reaction 2 AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq) 2 KNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ Ag<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(s)is an example of a(an)________ reaction.
A)acid-base
B)oxidation-reduction
C)precipitation
D)combustion
E)none of the above
Q2) The formation of which one of the compounds below will act as the driving force for an acid-base reaction?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)MgCl<sub>2</sub>
C)NaNO<sub>3</sub>
D)KOH
E)all of these
Q3) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: KOH(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> aq)
Q4) Write and balance the following acid-base neutralization reaction: HBr(aq)+ Li<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
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Q1) Determine the number of moles of water produced when one mole of NH<sub>3</sub> reacts according to the balanced reaction shown.
4 NH<sub>3</sub> + 5 O<sub>2 </sub> 4 NO + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)1.00
B)1.25
C)1.50
D)0.67
E)1.33
Q2) The number of grams in 0.350 mol of Na is A)0.350.
B)8.05.
C)11.0.
D)23.0.
E)65.7.
Q3) How much Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> should be weighed out to have 0.650 mol?
A)66.4 g
B)97.6 g
C)107 g
D)133 g
E)165 g
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Q1) Based on the reaction shown,which statement is true?
N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> 2 NO H = 43.2 kcal
A)43.2 kcal are consumed when 1.00 g of N<sub>2</sub> reacts.
B)43.2 kcal are consumed when 1.00 g of O<sub>2</sub> reacts.
C)43.2 kcal are consumed when 1.00 mole of O<sub>2</sub> reacts.
D)43.2 kcal are produced when 1.00 mole of NO is produced.
E)43.2 kcal are consumed when 1.00 g of NO is produced.
Q2) All of the statements regarding the symbol G are true except it
A)refers to the free energy of the reaction.
B)allows us to predict the spontaneity of a reaction.
C)allows us to identify an exothermic reaction.
D)allows us to identify an endergonic reaction.
E)describes the effect of both enthalpy and entropy on a reaction.
Q3) In the reaction A + B AB,which of the following will not increase the rate?
A)adding A
B)adding B
C)increasing the temperature
D)decreasing the temperature
E)adding a catalyst

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Q1) The amount of energy associated with changing a liquid into a gas is called the
A)heat of vaporization.
B)heat of fusion.
C)heat of combustion.
D)joule.
E)calorie.
Q2) When the volume of a gas is plotted against the Celsius temperature while holding pressure and the number of moles constant,the x-intercept will occur at what temperature?
A)0°C
B)-273°C
C)the boiling point of the gas
D)the melting point of the gas
E)100°C
Q3) The vapor pressure of a liquid
A)decreases with increasing temperature.
B)is independent of temperature.
C)is equal to one atmosphere at the normal boiling point.
D)cannot be measured.
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Q1) Which solution will have the highest boiling point?
A)0.050 M KNO<sub>3</sub>
B)0.075 M CaCl<sub>2</sub>
C)0.025 M NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>
D)0.020 M Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
E)0.10 M C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
Q2) After swimming in the ocean for several hours,the swimmers noticed that their fingers appeared to be very wrinkled or shriveled up.This is an indication that seawater is ________ relative to the fluid in cells.
A) isotonic
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)none of these
Q3) Which solution has the greatest osmolarity?
A)0.6 M NaCl
B)0.35 M AlCl<sub>3</sub>
C)0.14 M KF
D)0.2 M CaBr<sub>2</sub>
E)0.10 M KNO<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.
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Q1) Which compound has a very large value of K<sub>a</sub> in aqueous solution?
A)NaCl
B)HNO<sub>3</sub>
C)H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
D)KOH
E)NH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) The normality of a solution prepared by dissolving 25.0 g of Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> in water to make 250.mL solution is ________ N.
A)2.70
B)1.35
C)0.675
D)3.51
E)1.75
Q3) A Brønsted-Lowry base is a substance which
A)produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution.
B)produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution.
C)donates protons to other substances.
D)accepts protons from other substances.
E)accepts hydronium ions from other substances.
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Q1) Which is the best description of a beta particle?
A)charge +2;mass of 4 amu;high penetrating power
B)charge +2;mass of 4 amu;low penetrating power
C)charge -1;mass of 0 amu;medium penetrating power
D)charge -1;mass of 0 amu;high penetrating power
E)charge 0;mass of 0 amu;high penetrating power
Q2) Approximately how old is a fossil that has a little more than 6% of its original radioactivity? The half-life of carbon-14 used in dating artifacts is 5700 years.
A)57,000 years
B)34,200 years
C)20,000 years
D)11,400 years
E)5700 years
Q3) The most important unit for biological doses of radiation is the A)rem.
B)rad.
C)curie.
D)bozon.
E)roentgen.
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Q1) Monochlorination of pentane,C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>,leads to formation of how many different products?
A)3
B)2
C)1
D)4
E)5
Q2) The functional group illustrated by R-OH is an A)alkyl.
B)alcohol.
C)ether.
D)ester.
E)aldehyde.
Q3) Which family of organic compounds does not contain any multiple bonds?
A)alkyl halides
B)alkenes
C)alkynes
D)aldehydes
E)ketones
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Q1) The term used to describe the geometry of a carbon atom involved in a double bond is
A)distorted tetrahedral.
B)linear.
C)perpendicular.
D)tetrahedral.
E)trigonal planar.
Q2) Which phrase most accurately describes the structure common to all aromatic compounds?
A)a six-membered ring with 3 double and 3 single bonds
B)a ring described as 1,3,5-hexatriene
C)identical bonds between all 6 carbon atoms,with 6 electrons moving freely
D)a six-membered ring with easily broken carbon-carbon bonds
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following compounds is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A)acetylene
B)benzene
C)1,3-butadiene
D)ethylene
E)hexane
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Q1) Which molecule is chiral?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>OH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>2</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>
D)CHCl<sub>2</sub>Br
E)CHFClBr
Q2) All of the following are properties of ethers except
A)the molecules are polar,but do not form hydrogen bonds with other ether molecules.
B)low molecular weight ethers are flammable and evaporate easily.
C)ethers dissolve readily in water in all proportions.
D)ethers are relatively unreactive except for flammability.
E)ethers dissolve many organic compounds readily.
Q3) The major product obtained from dehydration of 2-hexanol is
A)1-hexene.
B)2-hexene.
C)3-hexene.
D)2-hexanone.
E)2-hexanal.
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Q1) The reverse reaction of acetal formation is A)oxidation.
B)reduction.
C)hydrolysis.
D)combustion.
E)esterification.
Q2) What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens' test for aldehydes?
A)silver
B)copper
C)gold
D)platinum
E)lead
Q3) Reduction of a ketone produces a(an) A)carboxylic acid.
B)primary alcohol.
C)secondary alcohol. D)tertiary alcohol.
E)aldehyde.
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Q1) Which molecule listed is heterocyclic?
A)aniline
B)phenol
C)pyridine
D)benzoic acid
E)naphthalene
Q2) Amines can be considered organic derivatives of the inorganic compound
A)ammonia.
B)carbon dioxide.
C)sodium hydroxide.
D)water.
E)none of these
Q3) When an amine behaves as a base it ________ a hydrogen ion to form a(an)________ ion.
A)loses;hydronium
B)loses;ammonium
C)loses;hydroxide
D)gains;ammonium
E)gains;hydronium
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Q1) Carboxylic acids generally taste
A)sour.
B)sweet.
C)bitter.
D)salty.
E)spicy.
Q2) An acyl group is a group in which a(n)
A)amine and a carbonyl are bonded to the same carbon atom.
B)hydroxyl and an alkene are bonded to the same carbon atom.
C)alpha carbon is bonded to an alkyl group.
D)alkyl group is bonded to a carbonyl carbon atom.
E)acidic group is bonded to an aromatic group.
Q3) The reactants needed to produce simple polyamides (nylons)are
A)diacids and dialcohols.
B)diacids and diamines.
C)diamines and dialcohols.
D)alkenes and catalysts.
E)diacids and phosphates.
Q4) Predict the products and write the complete reaction between propanoic acid and potassium hydroxide.
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Q1) All of the following are examples of fibrous proteins except A)wool.
B)fingernails.
C)skin.
D)insulin.
E)bones.
Q2) The type of bonding that maintains the secondary structure in a protein is the A)hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl and amino groups of the backbone.
B)covalent bond between the carbonyl and amino groups of the amino acids.
C)hydrogen bonds between two amino acids.
D)disulfide bonds that hold two polypeptide chains together.
E)hydrogen bonds between two amino groups.
Q3) All of the following are conjugated proteins except A)cytochrome oxidase.
B)low-density lipoproteins.
C)myoglobin.
D)collagen.
E)casein.
Q4) Illustrate the backbone of a protein using a planar unit from one Ca carbon to the next Ca.
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Q1) The genetic control strategy of enzyme control is most useful for production of enzymes that
A)act as hydrolases.
B)function for only one specific reaction.
C)are produced as zymogens.
D)require vitamins as cofactors.
E)are needed only at certain stages of development.
Q2) Enzymes that are affected by the binding of an inhibitor are called A)induced enzymes.
B)allosteric enzymes.
C)proenzymes.
D)zymogens.
E)controlled enzymes.
Q3) When there is an increase in temperature it can affect an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by
A)increasing the reaction rate.
B)decreasing the reaction rate.
C)both increasing and decreasing the reaction rate.
D)causing a different substrate to be used.
Q4) Explain the term specificity as it applies to enzyme activity.
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Q1) The conversion of cyclic glucose between the alpha form and the beta form is called A)dimerization.
B)cyclization.
C)mutarotation.
D)polymerization.
E)hydrolysis.
Q2) Starch is produced by ________,and its major function is ________.
A)animals;energy storage
B)animals;as a structural component
C)plants;as a structural component
D)plants;energy storage
E)none of the above
Q3) A hemiacetal linkage consists of a
A)carbon atom bonded to both an -OH and an -OR group.
B)carbonyl group that is also bonded to a hydroxyl group.
C)carbonyl group that is also bonded to an ether linkage.
D)carbon atom bonded to two -OH groups.
E)carbon atom that is bonded to an -OR group and an -NH<sub>2</sub> group.
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Q1) The enzymes of the oxidative phosphorylation system are located in the A)cytosol.
B)nucleus.
C)matrix of the mitochondria.
D)cristae of the mitochondria.
E)endoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) All of the following chemicals are involved in the citric acid cycle except A)acetyl-CoA.
B)isocitrate.
C)succinate.
D)malate.
E)ascorbate.
Q3) All of the following molecules are directly involved in the electron transport chain except A)coenzyme Q. B)ADP.
C)cytochrome c. D)acetyl-CoA.
E)H<sub>2</sub>O.
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Q1) The first step of glycolysis involves ________ to form ________.
A)esterification;glucose-6-phosphate
B)oxidation;glucose -6-phosphate
C)addition;fructose-1,6-diphosphate
D)esterification;glucose-1-phosphate
E)isomerization;fructose-6-phosphate
Q2) Overproduction of insulin causes ________,a state in which the concentration of blood sugar is ________ than normal.
A)hypoglycemia;lower
B)hypoglycemia;higher
C)hyperglycemia;lower
D)hyperglycemia;higher
E)none of the above
Q3) Steps 1-5 of glycolysis are referred to as the "energy investment" portion of the process because these steps
A)consume ATP instead of producing it.
B)generate waste products which cost ATP for disposal.
C)produce NADH which is less energy-rich than ATP.
D)involve several endergonic isomerizations.
E)none of the above
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Q1) All of the following are components of a cell membrane except A)liposomes.
B)integral proteins.
C)peripheral proteins.
D)glycoproteins.
E)cholesterol.
Q2) Glycolipids are similar in structure to sphingomyelins,except that the phosphate group has been replaced by a(an)
A)choline derivative.
B)carbohydrate.
C)fatty acid.
D)amino acid.
E)nucleic acid.
Q3) Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?
A)lauric acid
B)linoleic acid
C)arachidonic acid
D)butyric acid
E)oleic acid
Q4) Sketch a lipid bilayer and identify its hydrophobic and hydrophilic portions.
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Q1) The complete metabolism of one molecule of myristic acid,a fatty acid with 14 atoms of carbon,would require ________ turns of the -oxidation cycle.
A)6
B)7
C)12
D)14
E)16
Q2) The complete metabolism of one molecule of stearic acid,a fatty acid with 18 atoms of carbon,would produce ________ molecules of acetyl-CoA.
A)8
B)9
C)10
D)16
E)18
Q3) Which has greater "energy density," carbohydrates or fats.Explain your answer in terms of molecular structure and net energy production.
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Q1) Complementary sources of protein are
A)single foods that contain all of the essential amino acids.
B)single foods that contain all of the nonessential amino acids.
C)single foods that contain none of the essential amino acids.
D)single foods that contain none of the nonessential amino acids.
E)combinations of foods that provide all of the amino acids,both essential and nonessential.
Q2) In the anabolism of amino acids,________ is the source of the amine group.
A)aspartate
B)urea
C)glutamate
D)arginine
E)phenylalanine
Q3) The first step in amino acid catabolism is A)transamination.
B)decarboxylation.
C)oxidation.
D)esterification.
E)tautomerization.
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Q1) The enzyme involved in catalyzing the 5' phosphate reaction with the 3' hydroxyl group of the incoming base is called
A)DNA ligase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)DNA gyrase.
D)helicase.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which base is normally found in RNA but not in DNA?
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)guanine
D)uracil
E)cytosine
Q3) Which of the following is a nucleoside which would be found in DNA?
A)adenosine triphosphate
B)UMP
C)deoxyguanosine
D)deoxyribose
E)deoxythymidine diphosphate
Q4) Draw the structure for the dCMP nucleotide.Label all parts.
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Q1) Recombinant DNA is the process of
A)inserting a gene from one species into the DNA sequence of another.
B)commingling the DNA strands of two different chromosomes.
C)combining one chromosome from one species with a chromosome from another species.
D)realigning gene sequences to form a new gene.
E)cross breeding two closely related species to produce a hybrid.
Q2) The function of a restriction enzyme is to
A)build up DNA or RNA molecules one nucleotide at a time.
B)break down DNA or RNA into all their component nucleotides.
C)break a DNA molecule between two specific nucleotides.
D)prevent formation of a chemical bond between a specific pair of nucleotides.
E)prevent formation of the sugar-phosphate backbone of nucleic acids.
Q3) Genomics is the study of A)errors in the replication of DNA.
B)diseases whose transmission and occurrence are linked to heredity.
C)the characteristics and functions of complete sets of genes.
D)transference of genetic material from one species to another.
E)the science of using biological materials for economic advantage.
Q4) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.
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Q1) Estrogens are a specific type of steroid whose function is to A)maintain pregnancy.
B)promote development of secondary male sex characteristics.
C)promote development of secondary female sex characteristics.
D)regulate the sodium/potassium balance in cellular fluids.
E)regulate glucose metabolism.
Q2) List and briefly describe the chemical sequence of events in the fight-or-flight response to a threatening situation from the binding of epinephrine at the receptor site to readiness for another situation.
Q3) The receptors on the surfaces of cell membranes are A)lipids.
B)carbohydrates.
C)proteins.
D)nucleic acids.
E)steroids.
Q4) Describe in detail the two ways in which a hormone can deliver its message to a target cell.What characteristics of the hormone determine which mechanism is used?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following characteristics of molecules allows them to dissolve in water except being
A)a gas.
B)a charged particle.
C)a large complex molecule with ionic or polar groups on the surface.
D)hydrophobic on the surface.
E)a small polar covalent molecule.
Q2) Other than water,the major component of plasma is A)blood cells.
B)electrolytes.
C)nutrients.
D)proteins.
E)waste.
Q3) A deficiency in which of the following has been found to cause excessive bleeding?
A)fibrin
B)thrombin
C)vitamin K
D)vitamin E
E)platelets
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