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This course provides an introduction to fundamental chemical concepts with an emphasis on their application in allied health fields. Topics include atomic and molecular structure, chemical reactions, solutions, acids and bases, and basic organic and biochemistry. Students will explore how these chemical principles underpin physiological processes, pharmacology, and laboratory techniques commonly encountered in healthcare professions. The course is designed to build a strong foundation in chemistry for students pursuing nursing, medical technology, physical therapy, and other allied health careers.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 7th Edition by John E. McMurry
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many quarts are contained in 450.mL?
A)0.426 quart
B)2.10 quarts
C)426 quarts
D)475 quarts
E)0.475 quarts
Answer: E
Q2) What is the total length of two pieces of tubing which measure 4.5 cm and 3.222 cm?
Express the answer to the correct number of significant figures.
A)3.722 cm
B)4.722 cm
C)7.722 cm
D)7.7 cm
E)8 cm
Answer: D
Q3) Is 25 kilometers per liter good gas mileage for a VW Rabbit diesel? Hint: How do we measure mileage in the English system?
Answer: It's good: 59 miles/gal.
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Q1) Magnesium is an example of a(an)
A)alkali metal.
B)alkaline earth.
C)halogen.
D)noble gas.
E)transition metal.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following elements is a noble gas?
A)Cl
B)H
C)N
D)Ne
E)O
Answer: D
Q3) The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to:
A)atomic number - mass number
B)mass number - atomic number
C)the atomic number
D)the mass number
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the formula for the ionic compound formed between lithium and bromide?
A)LiB
B)LiBr
C)Li<sub>2</sub>Br
D)LiBr<sub>2</sub>
E)Li<sup>+</sup>Br<sup>-</sup>
Answer: B
Q2) Main group elements that are non-metals usually ________ one or more electrons to form ________,which have a ________ charge.
A)lose; anions; negative
B)lose; cations; negative
C)lose; cations; positive
D)gain; cations; positive
E)gain; anions; negative
Answer: E
Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?
Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.
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Q1) A chemical bond formed when two atoms share one pair of electrons is a ________ bond; it is best described as ________.
A)double; covalent
B)double; ionic
C)single; covalent
D)single; ionic
E)triple; covalent
Q2) A bond where the electrons are shared unequally is called a(an)________ bond.
A)polar covalent
B)coordinate covalent
C)nonpolar covalent
D)ionic
E)none of the above
Q3) If SiCl<sub>4</sub> is named as a covalent compound,what would it be called?
A)silicon chloride
B)chlorosilicate
C)silicon tetrachloride
D)sulfur chloride
E)sulfur tetrachloride
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Q1) The element chlorine is very reactive as a(an)________ agent because it readily ________ electrons to form the chloride ion.
A)oxidizing; loses
B)oxidizing; gains
C)reducing; loses
D)reducing; gains
E)none of the above
Q2) When a solution of iron(III)nitrate is mixed with a solution of sodium hydroxide,a rust colored precipitate forms.This precipitate is probably A)iron (III)nitrate.
B)sodium hydroxide.
C)sodium nitrate.
D)iron (III)hydroxide.
E)none of the above
Q3) What are the spectator ions in the reaction between KOH and HNO<sub>3</sub>?
A)K<sup>+</sup> and H<sup>+</sup>
B)H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup> and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)H<sup>+</sup>and NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
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Q1) How many grams of C will be consumed when 5.00 grams of Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> react according to the balanced reaction shown? Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4 </sub>+ 2 C Na<sub>2</sub>S + 2 CO<sub>2</sub>
A)0.038 g
B)0.211 g
C)0.844 g
D)1.69 g
E)17.1 g
Q2) The balanced equation given below means: CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
A)One mole of methane reacts with two moles of oxygen to produce one mole of carbon dioxide and 2 moles of water.
B)One gram of methane reacts with two grams of oxygen to produce one gram of carbon dioxide and two grams of water.
C)One molecule of methane reacts with two molecules of oxygen to produce one molecule of carbon dioxide and two molecules of water.
D)A,B and C are correct.
E)A and C are correct.
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Q1) In the reaction A + B AB,which of the following will not increase the rate?
A)adding A
B)adding B
C)increasing the temperature
D)decreasing the temperature
E)adding a catalyst
Q2) All of the statements regarding the symbol G are true except
A)it refers to the free energy of the reaction.
B)it allows us to predict the spontaneity of a reaction.
C)it allows us to identify an exothermic reaction.
D)it allows us to identify an endergonic reaction.
E)it describes the effect of both enthalpy and entropy on a reaction.
Q3) The scientific principle which explains the observation that the amount of heat transfer accompanying a change in one direction is numerically equal but opposite in sign to the amount of heat transfer in the opposite direction is
A)the Law of Conservation of Energy.
B)the Law of Conservation of Mass.
C)the Law of Conservation of Mass and Energy.
D)the Law of Definite Proportions.
E)Avogadro's Law.

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Q1) Which represents the largest pressure?
A)one atmosphere
B)five pounds per square inch
C)one millimeter of mercury
D)five mm Hg
E)one hundred pascals
Q2) Which transformation is sublimation?
A)liquid solid
B)liquid gas
C)solid liquid
D)solid gas
E)gas liquid
Q3) A 65 mL sample of argon gas has a temperature of 325°C.What will the temperature be in °C when the volume of the gas is decreased to 25 mL at constant pressure?
A)65°C
B)125°C
C)-43°C
D)1280°C
E)641°C
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Q1) The exothermic step in the dissolution of NaCl in water is
A)the separation of the ions in the salt.
B)the separation of the water molecules.
C)solvation (hydration)of the ions from the salt.
D)separation of the ions in the salt and the separation of the water molecules.
Q2) How much NaCl is present in 25.0 mL of a 12.0% (w/v)solution?
A)3.00 g
B)4.00 g
C)6.00 g
D)12.0 g
E)48.0 g
Q3) What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 48.0 g of NaOH in enough water to make 1.50 L of solution?
A)0.0313 M
B)0.556 M
C)0.800 M
D)1.28 M
E)32.0 M
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Q1) How many mL of 0.360 M HNO<sub>3</sub> are needed to neutralize a 22.5 mL sample of 0.240 M KOH?
A)5.40 mL
B)15.0 mL
C)22.5 mL
D)33.8 mL
E)62.5 mL
Q2) Which of the following is a diprotic acid?
A)acetic acid
B)hydrochloric acid
C)phosphoric acid
D)sulfuric acid
E)nitric acid
Q3) If the [H<sup>+</sup>] of a water sample is 1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M,the [OH<sup>-</sup>] is
A)1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M.
B)1 × 10<sup>-14</sup> M.
C)1 × 10<sup>4</sup> M.
D)1 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M.
E)none of the above
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Q1) This question has three parts:
a.Explain the difference between natural radioactive isotopes and artificial radioactive isotopes.
b.How are these two types of isotopes related to the terms spontaneous decay and artificial transmutation?
c.Give an example of an element that has natural radioactive isotopes and one that has artificial radioactive isotopes.
Q2) List and discuss two criteria used to choose appropriate radioisotopes for use as tracers in medical imaging procedures.
Q3) Discuss the harmful effects of ionizing radiation on the human body,including the factors affecting the degree of harm and the protective measures that can be used to minimize exposure.
Q4) The emission of a particle from an unstable nucleus is called A)mutation.
B)nuclear decay.
C)fission.
D)fusion.
E)translocation.
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Q1) In straight-chain alkanes,the carbon atoms on each end of the molecule always form bonds with ________ atoms of hydrogen; the carbons within the molecule always form bonds with ________ hydrogen atoms.
A)4; 4
B)4; 2
C)3; 3
D)3; 2
E)2; 2
Q2) All of the families below include functional groups which contain oxygen except A)carboxylic acids.
B)alkyl halides. C)esters.
D)ethers.
E)ketones.
Q3) Explain the term "functional group." How do organic chemists use the functional group concept?
Q4) Describe the unique characteristics of carbon that make it the basis of such a large number of organic compounds.
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct description of the difference between a saturated and an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
A)Saturated hydrocarbons are essentially water insoluble while unsaturated hydrocarbons are water soluble.
B)Unsaturated hydrocarbons are flammable but saturated hydrocarbons are not.
C)Saturated hydrocarbons do not contain multiple bonds between carbons but unsaturated hydrocarbons do contain multiple bonds.
D)Saturated hydrocarbons are composed of carbon and hydrogen but unsaturated hydrocarbons include atoms other than carbon and hydrogen.
Q2) Ethylene and acetylene are the common names for the molecules ________ and ________,respectively.
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> and C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
B)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> and C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
C)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> and C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> and C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> and C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a thiol is oxidized the product is A)an aldehyde.
B)a ketone.
C)sulfuric acid.
D)a disulfide.
E)an alkene
Q2) Which compound has the lowest boiling point?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> D)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub> E)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Which property of thiols makes them useful as additives to natural gas?
A)flammability
B)solubility
C)odor
D)color
E)disinfectant
Q4) Describe and explain the change in water solubility of straight-chain primary alcohols as molar mass increases.
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Q1) All of the following compounds are amines except A)amphetamine.
B)histamine.
C)aniline.
D)aspirin.
E)caffeine.
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of alkaloids except A)bitter tasting.
B)physiologically active.
C)basic.
D)toxic to humans in high doses.
E)pleasant smelling.
Q3) All of the following are nitrogen-containing compounds found in living organisms except A)nucleotides.
B)proteins.
C)neurotransmitters.
D)carbohydrates.
E)alkaloids.
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Q1) The correct name for CH<sub>3</sub>CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)CH<sub>2</sub>COCH<sub>3</sub> is
A)2-methyl-4-pentanone.
B)4-methyl-2-pentanone.
C)2-methyl-4-butanone.
D)4-methyl-2-butanone.
E)isobutyl acetone.
Q2) The carbonyl group is
A)a general term for any functional group involving a carbon-oxygen bond.
B)found only in aldehydes and ketones.
C)a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
D)a functional group with a 6-membered ring where at least one atom is oxygen.
E)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
Q3) What is the product of oxidation of 2-butanone?
A)butanal
B)2-butanol
C)butanoic acid
D)1-butanol
E)no reaction
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Q1) The solubility of compounds containing the carboxylic acid group can be increased by reaction with
A)sulfuric acid.
B)nitric acid.
C)sodium hydroxide.
D)water.
E)benzoic acid.
Q2) One requirement for the reactants in the formation of polyester is that each molecule contain
A)at least one carbon-carbon double bond.
B)one aromatic ring.
C)at least two functional groups that can form ester linkages.
D)an amine group somewhere on the carbon skeleton.
E)none of these
Q3) Reaction of butanoic acid with ethanol produces
A)butyl ethanoate.
B)ethyl butanoate.
C)butyl ethanamide.
D)ethyl butanamide.
E)butyl ethyl ester.
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Q1) The pH at which the positive and negative charges of an amino acid balance each other is called the
A)isoelectric point.
B)isobaric point.
C)isobestic point.
D)isotonic point.
E)isomer point.
Q2) All of the following can denature proteins without hydrolysis except A)heat.
B)mechanical stress.
C)enzyme treatment.
D)lowering of pH.
E)heavy metal ions.
Q3) Proteins are least soluble in water at A)their isoelectric point.
B)low pH.
C)neutral pH.
D)high pH.
E)both high and low pH.
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Q1) Substances the bind to an enzyme and increase its activity are called
A)negative regulators.
B)positive regulators.
C)allosteric regulators.
D)neutral regulators.
Q2) When an enzyme is saturated it
A)has been completely consumed,and that reaction cannot occur again until new enzymes are produced.
B)is in high concentration relative to the substrate,and the reaction rate is directly proportional to substrate concentration.
C)is in low concentration relative to the substrate,and the reaction rate is directly proportional to enzyme concentration.
D)is in low concentration relative to the substrate,and the reaction rate approaches its maximum.
E)none of the above
Q3) Explain the term specificity as it applies to enzyme activity.
Q4) Explain the term feedback as a mechanism for control of biochemical reactions.
Q5) Explain how an allosteric enzyme is regulated.
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Q1) Which of the following is common to the structures of NAD<sup>+</sup>,and FAD?
A)nicotinic acid
B)nicotinamide
C)ATP
D)ADP
E)AMP
Q2) Photosynthesis is an ________ process because the free energy of the products is ________ the free energy of the reactants.
A)endergonic; greater than B)exergonic; greater than C)endergonic; less than D)exergonic; less than E)equilibrium; the same as
Q3) The common molecule produced from all foods at the second stage of catabolism is
A)ADP.
B)acetyl-SCoA.
C)glucose.
D)citric acid.
E)carbon dioxide.
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Q1) All of the following are functions of modified carbohydrate molecules except
A)as chitin they act as a structural component of lobster shells.
B)as heparin they form a fibrous network in blood clots.
C)as a component of hemoglobin they transport oxygen.
D)as a receptor molecule on cell surfaces they assist in the functioning of the immune system.
E)as a component of cartilage they provide support to joints.
Q2) ________ of glucose leads to gluconic acid.
A)Oxidation
B)Reduction
C)Isomerization
D)Glycosidation
E)Esterification
Q3) Which of the following statements comparing amylopectin and glycogen is false?
A)Both serve as energy storage molecules.
B)Both are polymers of -D-glucose.
C)Glycogen molecules are generally larger than amylopectin molecules.
D)Glycogen is more highly branched than amylopectin.
E)none of the above
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Q1) Which of the following is not used as an energy source in metabolism?
A)ATP
B)UTP
C)UTC
D)GTP
E)More than one choice is correct.
Q2) Which of the following carbohydrates can also be used as fuel in glycolysis?
A)glucose
B)glucose and fructose
C)fructose and galactose
D)galactose,fructose,and mannose
E)fructose
Q3) The process of making glucose from noncarbohydrates is known as A)glycolysis.
B)glycogenolysis.
C)gluconeogenesis.
D)glycogenesis.
E)lipogenesis.
Q4) Classify each pathway of carbohydrate metabolism as anabolic or catabolic.Justify your choice in each case.
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Q1) Which choice is an example of a material that is transported across cell membranes by active transport?
A)cholesterol
B)K<sup>+</sup>
C)glucose
D)oxygen
E)carbon dioxide
Q2) Phospholipids differ from fats and oils by having
A)one of the fatty acid ester linkages replaced by a phosphate ester linkage.
B)one of the fatty acid ester linkages replaced by an amine group.
C)cyclic ester structures instead of the three-carbon backbone.
D)a molecule of glucose bonded to the three-carbon backbone.
E)a molecule of galactose bonded to the three-carbon backbone.
Q3) Describe the similarities and differences between soaps and emulsifying agents.
Q4) Which substance will not be transported into a cell by simple diffusion?
A)CO<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)estrogen
D)cortisone
E)epinephrine

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Q1) The complete metabolism of one molecule of stearic acid,a fatty acid with 18 atoms of carbon,would produce ________ molecules of acetyl-SCoA.
A)8
B)9
C)10
D)16
E)18
Q2) The hormones ________ and ________ control the release of energy from stored triacylglycerol.
A)insulin; cortisone
B)adrenalin; glucagon
C)norepinephrine; cortisone
D)insulin; glucagon
E)adrenalin; norepinephrine
Q3) Where in the cell does beta-oxidation of fatty acids occur?
A)cell wall
B)cytosol
C)nucleus
D)mitochondria
E)liposome
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Q1) This question has three parts:
a.Describe the similarities and differences of purines and pyrimidines.
b.List the specific bases in each category that are important in nucleic acids.
c.Describe their interactions in DNA and RNA.
Q2) Explain the term base pairing and its relationship to replication of DNA.
Q3) Chromatin is
A)nuclear material composed of DNA and histones.
B)the portion of a chromosome that codes for a specific trait.
C)a protein found on the surface of a cell.
D)the fluid part of a cell that surrounds the organelles.
E)a component of cell membranes.
Q4) The backbone of a nucleic acid molecule consists of
A)alternating sugar and phosphate groups linked by phosphate ester bonds.
B)alternating sugar and nitrogen base groups linked by amide bonds.
C)alternating nitrogen bases and phosphate groups linked by amide bonds and strengthened by hydrogen bonds.
D)sugar molecules bonded from the #3 carbon of one molecule to the #5 carbon of the other by glycosidic linkages.
E)complementary bases joined by hydrogen bonds.
Q5) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about DNA fingerprinting is false?
A)The percent of the differences in DNA between people is great (99.9%).
B)Small DNA samples can be used through a process called PCR.
C)Everyone has different DNA,except identical twins.
D)DNA can be extracted from almost any biological sample.
E)All of these statements are correct.
Q2) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.
Q3) Chemicals that cause mutations are called A)mutagens.
B)mutation.
C)genetic inhibitor.
D)genetic modifier.
E)genetic activator.
Q4) A genetic map is a(an)
A)complex of DNA and histones formed in a cell nucleus before cell division.
B)segment of DNA that directs synthesis of a specific peptide or protein.
C)list of locations of markers that relate to inheritable traits.
D)set of identical copies of DNA segments from a single ancestor.
E)ordered list of the nucleotides in a segment of DNA.
Q5) Discuss the importance of telomeres in cell death and in cancer.
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Q1) All of the carbon backbones from amino acids end up as intermediates in the
A)citric acid cycle
B)urea cycle
C) -oxidation sequence
D)both A and C
E)none of the above
Q2) The enzyme that removes an amine group from an amino acid and moves it to -ketoglutarate is classified as a A)ligase.
B)phosphatase.
C)transaminase.
D)dehydrogenase.
E)kinase.
Q3) Explain the difference between ketogenic and glucogenic amino acids.Identify the amino acids in each category.
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Q1) neurotransmitter
A)an example of a polypeptide hormone
B)a site on a cell that interacts with some external chemical messenger in order to enable a response to occur
C)an example of an amino acid hormone
D)a chemical messenger that is produced in the nervous system
E)a chemical messenger that is produced in the endocrine system and indirectly regulates biochemical processes
F)a substance introduced from outside the body that alters some body function
G)a molecule within a cell that is released in response to the interaction of a hormone or neurotransmitter with a receptor outside the cell
H)the intended site of a specific chemical reaction
I)an example of a steroid hormone
Q2) List and briefly describe the chemical sequence of events in the fight-or-flight response to a threatening situation from the binding of epinephrine at the receptor site to readiness for another situation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two components of blood that carry out the protection function are ________ and
A)immunoglobulins; platelets
B)albumins; fibrinogen
C)albumins; red blood cells
D)white blood cells; albumins
E)platelets; red blood cells
Q2) extracellular fluid
A)any substance that is foreign to the body and therefore causes an immune response
B)a protein molecule that identifies foreign substances and mediates certain immune responses
C)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is higher than normal and the pH is lower
D)fluid inside cells
E)fluid outside of cells,such as blood plasma or interstitial fluid
F)an abnormal condition in which the acidity of the blood is lower than normal and the pH is higher
Q3) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
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