Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a feature of ATP?
A)It is used for short-term energy in the cell.
B)It has 2 phosphoanhydride bonds.
C)It is usually complexed with Ca² .
D)It is a kinetically stable molecule.
Answer: C
Q2) An interaction between 2 subunits of a protein was determined to have a ?G°'= -57.05 kJ/mol.What is the K?q for the reaction at 25°C?
A)10-10
B)1.02
C)1.32
D)10<sup>10</sup>
Answer: D
Q3) By which factor do equilibrium constants change for reactions coupled to ATP hydrolysis?
A)10<sup>2</sup>
B)10<sup>4</sup>
C)10<sup>6</sup>
D)10<sup>8</sup>
Answer: D
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological Functions
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Q1) Which of the following protein terms describes collagen?
A)regulatory
B)transport
C)storage
D)structural
Q2) What is the overall net charge on the peptide Lys-Lys-Ser-Glu at pH 7.0?
A)+2
B)+1
C)-1
D)-2
Q3) Which of the following protein terms describes the lac repressor?
A)regulatory
B)transport
C)storage
D)structural
Q4) What type of bond is formed when 2 cysteine residues react in proteins?
A)thioester bond
B)thioether bond
C)dithiol bond
D)disulfide bond
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which structure accommodates the unique composition of collagen?
A) -pleated sheet
B)triple helix
C)helix-turn-helix motif
D)coiled coil
Q2) Which combination of atoms forms the resonance structure within the "amide plane"?
A)C<sub> </sub>H-NH-CO-C-C<sub> </sub>H
B)C<sub> </sub>H-NH-CO
C)C<sub> </sub>-NH-CO-C<sub> </sub>
D)NH-CO-C<sub> </sub>
Q3) Which statement is correct about the - - motif?
A)The 2 -strands are antiparallel.
B)The peptide segment connecting the -strands usually contains no more than 5 amino acids.
C)The peptide segment connecting the 2 -strands commonly contains proline.
D)The crossover connection itself contains an -helical segment.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following is a chemical feature that is characteristic of carbohydrates?
A)the potential to form no more than 2 hydrogen bonds
B)the existence of 1 or more symmetric centres
C)the ability to exist in ring but not linear structures
D)the capacity to form polymeric structures
Q2) Which of the following pairs of molecules is found in tendons,cartilage,and other connective tissue?
A)heparin and chondroitins
B)chondroitins and keratin sulfate
C)keratin sulfate and dermatan sulfate
D)hyaluronate and keratin sulfate
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of dextrans?
A)They are synthesized from fructose.
B)They are used in research laboratories as a support for ion exchange chromatography.
C)They are repeating units of maltose.
D)The branches may be 1 2,1 3,or 1 4 in various species.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A)progesterone
B)dolichol
C)epinephrine
D)histamine
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of terpenes?
A)components of wool wax
B)made up of isoprene dimers
C)formed from 2 or more 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene molecules
D)trimer units linked head to tail
Q3) Which of the following steroid hormones participate in the control of carbohydrate,protein,and lipid metabolism?
A)progestins
B)androgens
C)estrogens
D)glucocorticoids
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?
A)competitive inhibition by palmitoyl-CoA
B)biotin carboxylase and transcarboxylase subunits
C)biotin carboxyl carrier protein subunits
D)citrate shifting the enzyme toward the active polymer
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of fatty acid elongation?
A)addition of acetyl-CoAs
B)uses both NADH and NADPH
C)requires ATP and biotin
D)uses CoA rather than ACP
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of HDL?
A)High HDL correlates with high risk of cardiovascular disease.
B)HDL has a life span of 5-6 days.
C)Returns cholesterol and cholesterol esters to liver.
D)Accumulates cholesterol esters via LCAT action.
Q4) What is/are the main source(s)of NADPH for fatty acid biosynthesis?
A)TCA cycle
B)oxidative phosphorylation
C)malic enzyme and the pentose phosphate pathway
D)glycolysis
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Flippases are enzymes that flip cellular components.Which of the following best describes their mechanism of action?
A)flipping fatty acids from one position on glycerol to another position
B)flipping glucose from a- to b-glucose
C)flipping amino acids from one position to another in a protein
D)flipping phospholipids across to the other side of a membrane
Q2) Which of the following is a property of integral membrane proteins?
A)They only have hydrophobic surfaces.
B)They have significant lateral mobility.
C)They remain in the membrane when treated with salt solutions.
D)They get exposed to one aqueous surface of the membrane.
Q3) Which of the following are the 2 major phospholipids on the outer leaflet of erythrocytes?
A)phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine
B)phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin
C)phosphatidylethanolamine and sphingomyelin
D)phosphatidylserine and sphingomyelin
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following terms describes the members of the protein kinase C family that are regulated by Ca² ,diacylglycerol,and phosphatidylserine?
A)atypical PKCs
B)conventional PKCs
C)modified PKCs
D)novel PKCs
Q2) Which of the following receptor Cl- channels opens and contributes in part to the effects of ethanol on the brain?
A)glycine
B)aspartate
C)glutamate
D) -aminobutyrate (GABA)
Q3) Which of the following reasons explains why neurotransmitters must be removed from the synaptic cleft?
A)to promote prolonged stimulation of the postsynaptic cell
B)to prevent prolonged stimulation of the presynaptic cell
C)to promote prolonged stimulation of the presynaptic cell
D)to prevent prolonged stimulation of the postsynaptic cell
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of k<sub>c t</sub>/K<sub>m</sub>?
A)It corresponds to a second-order rate constant.
B)It provides an excellent parameter for comparison of the catalytic efficiency of enzymes.
C)It reflects the property of the enzyme when substrate concentration is at saturation.
D)The upper limit for the k<sub>cat</sub>/K<sub>m</sub> value is fixed by the diffusion-controlled limit for reactions,which is 10<sup>9</sup> M ¹ s ¹.
Q2) If an enzyme has a Vm of 15 mM/min,what is the velocity if the substrate is present at ¼ of the K<sub>m</sub>?
A)12 mM/min
B)6 mM/min
C)3.75 mM/min
D)3 mM/min
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a property of coenzymes?
A)They are usually actively involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.
B)They tend to be stable to heat.
C)They are protein components.
D)They can serve as intermediate carriers of functional groups.
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Aspartate proteases display a variety of substrate specificities.Which of the following peptide bonds,however,do they most actively cleave?
A)those on the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids
B)those on the amino side of aromatic amino acids
C)those between 2 small,neutral residues
D)those between 2 hydrophobic amino acid residues
Q2) Which of the following elements is involved in the mechanism of chymotrypsin?
A)deprotonation of an active site Asp residue by His to start the reaction
B)formation of an acyl-enzyme intermediate that must be hydrolyzed to complete the reaction
C)stabilization of the positively charged His by a Gln residue
D)direct deprotonation of water by His to generate a hydroxide ion for initiation of the reaction
Q3) Which of the following will increase the energy level of ES and subsequently the enzyme-catalyzed reaction rate?
A)stabilization of ES by solvation
B)destabilization of ES by strain
C)stabilization of ES by hydrophobic effects
D)destabilization of ES by electrostatic effects
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Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following is the reason why BPG shifts the oxygen saturation curve of Hb to the right?
A)BPG binds to deoxyHb and unloads O at tissues.
B)BPG binds to oxyHb and unloads O at tissues.
C)BPG binds to deoxyHb and unloads O at the lungs.
D)BPG binds to oxyHb and unloads O at the lungs.
Q2) The PDH complex is allosterically activated and inhibited by multiple modes.Which of the following is a correct relation?
A)acetyl-CoA: activation
B)NAD : inhibition
C)NADH: activation
D)CoA-SH: activation
Q3) Which of the following regarding the differences between Hb and Mb is NOT correct?
A)Hb shows sigmoidal,whereas Mb shows hyperbolic oxygen saturation curves.
B)Hb shows cooperativity,whereas Mb does not.
C)Hb binds O more tightly than Mb.
D)Hb-oxygen binding is dependent on physiological changes in pH,whereas Mb-oxygen binding is not.
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) What is the power stroke in muscle contraction associated with?
A)the dissociation of ADP and Pi from the ATPase
B)binding of myosin to actin
C)addition of water for ATP hydrolysis
D)the hydrolysis of ATP
Q2) Which of the following does NOT affect microtubule polymerization and is NOT used in cancer chemotherapy?
A)taxol
B)colchicine
C)vinblastine
D)vincristine
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of microtubules?
A)providing variations and maintenance of cell shape
B)forming the mitotic spindle during cell division
C)unwinding DNA to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA)
D)forming intracellular scaffolds
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following are the final products of aerobic catabolism?
A)pyruvate and H O
B)acetyl-CoA and CO
C)CO and H O
D)pyruvate and acetyl-CoA
Q2) Which of the following enzymes serve as the points of regulation in the case of shared anabolic and catabolic pathways?
A)largest enzymes
B)ATP-producing enzymes
C)NADH utilizing enzymes
D)rate-limiting enzymes
Q3) Which of the following is higher in thioesters than in oxygen esters?
A)electronegativity
B)resonance
C)group transfer potential
D)positive G
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18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes is defective in the rare hereditary galactosemia?
A)galactokinase
B)galactose-1-phosphate uridylyl transferase
C)phosphoglucomutase
D)UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
Q2) What is the net yield of the oxidation of 1 mole of glucose by anaerobic glycolysis?
A)2 moles of pyruvate and 2 moles of ATP
B)2 moles of lactate,2 moles of NADH,and 2 moles of ATP
C)2 moles of pyruvate,2 moles of NADH,and 4 moles of ATP
D)2 moles of lactate and 2 moles of ATP
Q3) What is the net ATP yield per glucose molecule at the end of the glycolytic pathway?
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct for pyruvate carboxylase?
A)It carries out an anaplerotic reaction.
B)It resides in mitochondria of plants,but not animals.
C)It contains covalently bound biotin.
D)It has an absolute allosteric requirement for acetyl-CoA.
Q2) The oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate is not thermodynamically favoured under standard conditions.Why does it occur?
A)It involves substrate-level phosphorylation.
B)Oxaloacetate is used in the next reaction,which has a negative G.
C)It is coupled with ATP hydrolysis.
D)It is coupled with a strong reduction.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of succinyl-CoA synthetase?
A)Succinyl-CoA can be used to drive phosphorylation of GDP or ADP.
B)The enzyme is named for the forward reaction.
C)It provides an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)Succinyl-phosphate is an intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase.
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) In which of the following tissues does thermogenin (UCPI)create a passive proton channel through which protons flow from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix?
A)myelin
B)brown adipose
C)nerve
D)cardiac
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a single-electron carrier?
A)UQH
B)cyt b<sub>L</sub>
C)cyt b<sub>H</sub>
D)cyt c<sub>1</sub>
Q3) NADH is a strong reducing agent.What kind of reduction potential does it possess?
A)large positive value
B)large negative value
C)small positive value
D)small negative value
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Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of chlorophyll?
A)iron-containing porphyrin
B)planar conjugated porphyrin ring
C)delocalized electrons in the aromatic ring
D)photoexcitable electrons
Q2) Which of the following structures is formed in chloroplasts when the thylakoid membrane is organized into paired folds?
A)stroma
B)lamellae
C)porin
D)calcium channel
Q3) Which of the following factors assists in avoiding futile cycling of carbohydrates?
A)CO fixation by Calvin cycle procession in the dark
B)citric acid cycle,glycolysis,and oxidative phosphorylation inactivation during the light
C)inhibition of the enzymes of the Calvin cycle by light reactions
D)the absence of glycolytic and citric acid cycle enzymes in plants
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Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which of these reactions is catalyzed by a transketolase in the pentose phosphate pathway?
A)erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P
B)sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P
C)fructose-6-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P xylulose-5-P + erythrose-4-P
D)glucose-6-P +2 NADP+ + H 0 ribose-5-P +2 NADPH +2 H
Q2) Which enzyme catalyzes bicarbonate "activation" by attachment to the g-phosphate of ATP to form carbonyl phosphate?
A)glucokinase
B)glucose-6-phosphatase
C)PEP carboxykinase
D)pyruvate carboxylase
Q3) Which of the following enzymes is NOT unique to gluconeogenesis?
A)phosphoglucoisomerase
B)glucose-6-phosphatase
C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
D)PEP carboxykinase
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following regarding the activation of a fatty acid to an acyl-CoA is correct?
A)It involves the formation of a high-energy thioester linkage.
B)Activation is accompanied by the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>.
C)An acyl-adenylate intermediate is formed.
D)Hydrolysis of ATP produces AMP and PP<sub>i</sub>,with further hydrolysis of PP<sub>i</sub> to drive the reaction.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of chylomicrons?
A)They are formed in adipose tissue.
B)They contain more phospholipid than triacylglycerol molecules.
C)They transport dietary triacylglycerols through the bloodstream.
D)They are formed in and secreted by the liver.
Q3) Which of the following cellular locations is the site for where fatty acids are condensed with coenzyme A to form acyl-CoA for -oxidation?
A)mitochondrial matrix
B)cytoplasm
C)outer mitochondrial membrane
D)inner mitochondrial membrane
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a part of the degradation pathway of valine,isoleucine,and methionine leading to succinyl-CoA?
A)biotin and ATP
B)acetyl-CoA
C)methylmalonyl-CoA
D)propionyl-CoA
Q2) Which of the following is related to elevated level of homocysteine in the blood?
A)excess folic acid
B)homocystinuria at very low levels
C)lower risk of heart attack and stroke
D)folic acid-dependent conversion of homocysteine to methionine
Q3) Which of the following compounds provides the 6 electrons required by nitrite reductase to reduce NO to NH in higher plants?
A)plastoquinone
B)heme
C)CO
D)ferredoxin
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following are relatively stable acid hydrolysis?
A)pyrimidines
B)purines
C)dipeptides
D)polypeptides
Q2) Which of the following is richly associated with eukaryotic chromosomes?
A)protein
B)ribosome
C)nitrogenous base
D)cytoskeleton
Q3) In addition to the nucleus,what eukaryotic cellular structure also contains DNA?
A)ribosome
B)mitochondrion
C)peroxisome
D)vacuole
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of nucleotide function?
A)TTP in phosphoryl group transfers
B)CTP in phospholipid synthesis
C)UTP in complex carbohydrate synthesis
D)ATP in energy for the cell
26
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Nucleic acid hybridization is a common technique used in molecular biology.Which of the following procedures does NOT use this technique?
A)investigation of evolutionary relationships
B)examination of specific genes against a vast background
C)carrying out specific probe-based isolation of proteins
D)quantifying gene expression
Q2) How do urea and formamide denature dsDNA?
A)by intercalating between base pairs and disrupting van der Waals interactions
B)by forming ionic bonds with the backbone phosphates
C)by competing effectively with the H-bonding between the base pairs
D)by changing the pH to cause hydrolysis
Q3) Which of the following amino acids are rich in histones?
A)alanine and glycine
B)glutamic acid and aspartic acid
C)lysine and arginine
D)lysine and alanine
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Hydrogen is often abstracted from substrates as H ; however,electronegative fluorine cannot be readily eliminated.Which of the following explains how enzyme inhibitors be fashioned to overcome this?
A)by replacing H with F-F at positions where catalysis involves H removal as H
B)by replacing H with F- at positions where catalysis involves H removal as H
C)by replacing H with F+ at positions where catalysis involves H removal as H
D)by replacing H with F at positions where catalysis involves H removal as H
Q2) Which of the following regarding nucleotides is correct?
A)Uridine nucleotide derivatives of carbohydrates are common intermediates in cellular transformation of carbohydrates.
B)The nitrogenous bases serve as energy sources.
C)Many coenzymes are derivatives of amino acids.
D)They are produced only in eukaroytes.
Q3) Which of the following types of bonds is formed in purine biosynthesis when glycine adds to 5-phosphoribosyl- -amine?
A)glycosidic
B)anhydride
C)amine
D)thioester
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Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) What is PCR-based mutagenesis used to create?
A)specifically altered proteins
B)generally modified plasmid vectors
C)mutant bacterial strains
D)mutant DNA libraries
Q2) Which of the following is a property of shuttle vectors?
A)They contain promoters for the expression of the gene.
B)They have origins of replication for 2 different cell types,usually bacteria and yeast.
C)They are capable of incorporating very large DNA fragments.
D)They contain more than 1 antibiotic-resistant gene.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plasmids?
A)They are naturally occurring,circular extrachromosomal DNA.
B)They are able to perpetuate themselves without a host organism.
C)Artificial plasmids can be constructed by restriction endonuclease digestion,insertion,and ligation.
D)An origin of replication must be included in the plasmid to facilitate propagation.
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) BRCA1 protein functions in regulation of the cell cycle in response to DNA damage control,and BRCA2 protein participates in DNA repair by homologous recombination.Which of the following type(s)of cancers can occur as a result of mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes?
A)breast and ovarian
B)uterine
C)prostate
D)lung
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of retroviruses?
A)They use viral DNA as a template.
B)They must replicate through double-stranded DNA.
C)The retroviral RNA is reverse transcribed to dsDNA,which must be inserted into the host genome.
D)Their genome can lie dormant for years as a provirus in the host chromosome.
Q3) What explains why progeny may have new combinations of traits compared to their parents?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)cyclin-dependent protein kinase
C)genetic recombination
D)processivity
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following processes is used by both prokaryotes and differentiated eukaryotic cells when they express a small number of their genes at any given time?
A)transcription
B)translation
C)replication
D)repair
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of rho ( )factor?
A)It winds transcript and template to free nascent RNA.
B)It recognizes and binds U-rich regions of RNA transcripts.
C)Its binding regions must be ribosome free.
D)It advances in the 3' 5' direction to the transcription bubble.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA polymerase II?
A)located in the nucleolus and transcribes the major ribosomal RNA genes
B)located in the nucleoplasm and transcribes the protein-encoding genes through mRNAs
C)transcribes RNA genes associated with tRNA processing
D)transcribes tRNA genes and protein transport genes
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of these steps is required for termination of translation in prokaryotic cells?
A)displacement of EF-G by EF-Tu:aminoacyl-tRNA
B)ternary interaction of the release factor and the termination tRNA with the termination codon
C)interaction of release factors with the termination codon
D)release factor interaction with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence and subsequent dissociation of the 2 ribosomal subunits
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a basic step in protein synthesis?
A)The elongation reaction transfers the peptide chain from the peptidyl-tRNA in the A site to the aminoacyl-tRNA in the P site.
B)The P site is occupied by peptidyl-tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.
C)Binding of mRNA by the small subunit is followed by association of a particular initiator aminoacyl-tRNA that recognizes the first codon.
D)The new,longer peptidyl-tRNA moves from the A site into the P site as the ribosome moves one codon further along the mRNA.
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following specifies the order of assembly for some of the EJC proteins with target mRNAs?
A)UPF3;REF;UPF1;UPF2
B)UPF2;UPF1;REF;UPF3
C)REF;UPF3;UPF2;UPF1
D)UPF1;REF;UPF3;UPF2
Q2) Which of the following is NOT stored in P-bodies?
A)CCR4-NOT
B)DCP1/DCP2
C)repressed mRNAs
D)AREs
Q3) Which of the following levels of translation is NOT repressed by miRNAs?
A)ribosomal assembly
B)elongation
C)termination
D)initiation
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33
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Q1) Which of the following is the primary function of Met-aminopeptidase?
A)to cleave large inactive pro-proteins
B)to remove leader peptides after translocation
C)to remove invariable Met and introduce N-terminal diversity
D)to transfer a Met to the C-terminal end for translocation
Q2) Which of the following describes the functional role of the 19S cap in proteasome?
A)disposal
B)regulatory
C)ubiquitination complex
D)electron transport
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of protein translocation systems?
A)Translocons passively move proteins across the membrane.
B)Proteins to be translocated are made as preproteins containing distal blocks of amino acid sequences that act as sorting signals.
C)Membranes involved in translocation have specific protein receptors exposed on their cytosolic faces.
D)Pre-proteins are maintained in a tightly folded,translocation-competent conformation through interaction with molecular chaperones.
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Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which nucleotides are the principal energy source for protein,phospholipid,and polysaccharide synthesis,respectively?
A)UTP;GTP;CTP
B)GTP;CTP;UTP
C)CTP;UTP;GTP
D)UTP;CTP;GTP
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of energy metabolism in the heart?
A)The preferred fuel is fatty acids.
B)The range of activity is much less than that in muscle (200-fold).
C)It is unusually rich in mitochondria.
D)The heart consumes over 90% of the total oxygen supply during maximal physical exertion.
Q3) Which process do muscle cells preferentially use during anaerobic exercise?
A)carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate
B)oxidization of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
C)decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetaldehyde
D)reduction of pyruvate to lactate
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