Cardiopulmonary Diagnostics
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Diagnostics is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, methods, and applications of diagnostic procedures used to assess the function and health of the heart and lungs. The course covers a range of non-invasive and invasive techniques such as electrocardiography (ECG), echocardiography, pulmonary function testing, arterial blood gas analysis, and exercise stress testing. Students will learn to interpret diagnostic results, understand clinical indications, and correlate findings with disease states. Emphasis is placed on the technical skills required to perform various tests, patient safety considerations, and the integration of diagnostic information into clinical decision-making for cardiopulmonary disorders.
Recommended Textbook
Wilkins Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care 7th Edition by Al Heuer PhD
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21 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Preparing for the Patient Encounter
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Sample Questions
Q1) In determining the course of treatment for a 20-year-old patient hospitalized for exacerbation of cystic fibrosis, the most effective course of action would be:
A)Formulating a treatment plan based on the therapist's knowledge of the disease and its treatment and then presenting it to the patient.
B)Formulating a treatment plan with the physician and nurse and then presenting it to the patient.
C)Interviewing the patient and strictly following the patient's preferences with regard to treatment.
D)Interviewing the patient to determine his or her preferences for treatment, formulating a treatment plan in collaboration with the nurse and physician based on both patient preferences and the team's knowledge of the disease and its treatment, and presenting it to the patient.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Medical History and the Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be found in the past medical history?
A)Injuries and accidents
B)Surgeries and hospitalizations
C)Associated symptoms and aggravating factors
D)Over-the-counter medications, vitamins, and "home remedies"
Answer: C
Q2) What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting or living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?
A)Blastomycosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Coccidioidomycosis
D)Silicosis
Answer: B
Q3) Modern-day office workers may be exposed to which of the following occupational and environmental diseases?
A)Bagassosis
B)Monday fever
C)Pneumoconiosis
D)Sick building syndrome
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cardiopulmonary Symptoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the presence of nausea and vomiting, a history of cirrhosis of the liver suggests which of the following organs as the source of hematemesis?
A)Kidneys
B)Duodenum
C)Esophagus
D)Liver
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following diseases is one of the most common causes of chronic dyspnea in adults?
A)Asthma
B)Bronchiolitis
C)Cystic fibrosis
D)Congestive heart failure (CHF)
Answer: D
Q3) Snoring is caused by all of the following except:
A)Excessive daytime sleepiness.
B)Obesity.
C)Excessive alcohol consumption.
D)Use of sleeping medications.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reasons has been listed as the number one concern regarding use of the tympanic site for body temperature measurement?
A)Speed
B)Safety
C)Accuracy
D)Cost
Q2) Which of the following is not true about pulse pressure?
A)It normally is between 35 and 40 mm Hg.
B)It is calculated from the 12-lead electrocardiographic printout.
C)It is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
D)The peripheral pulse is difficult to detect when the pulse pressure falls to below 30 mm Hg.
Q3) The normal pulse rate range for adults is _____ beats/min.
A)60 to 100
B)70 to 110
C)80 to 120
D)90 to 160
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Chapter 5: Fundamentals of Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics does not apply to normal tracheal breath sounds?
A)Loud
B)Low pitched
C)High pitched
D)Fairly equal inspiratory and expiratory components
Q2) All of the following are characteristics of breath sounds that should be evaluated whenever chest auscultation is performed except:
A)the breath rate.
B)the pitch (vibration frequency).
C)the amplitude or intensity (loudness).
D)the duration of inspiration versus expiration.
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe drooping of the eyelids?
A)Ptosis
B)Miosis
C)Diplopia
D)Chondrosis
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Chapter 6: Neurologic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following respiratory patterns consists of phases of hyperpnea that regularly alternate with episodes of apnea?
A)Biot breathing
B)Ataxic breathing
C)Apneustic breathing
D)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Q2) The presence of dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the remaining toes during testing of the plantar reflex is known as the:
A)Babinski sign.
B)"Jerk" reflex.
C)Patellar reflex.
D)Quadriceps reflex.
Q3) Where in the nervous system is breathing regulated?
A)Brain cortex
B)Medulla
C)Cerebellum
D)Brainstem
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Chapter 7: Clinical Laboratory Studies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure is performed by a pulmonologist to obtain organisms that may be present deep in the lung in patients with pneumonia?
A)Sputum induction with hypotonic nebulized solution
B)Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)
C)Tracheal intubation with lavage
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following types of white blood cells is responsible for phagocytosis?
A)Basophil
B)Monocyte
C)Neutrophil
D)Lymphocyte
Q3) A patient with a platelet count of about 80,000/mm³ is likely to have what condition?
A)Infection
B)Renal failure
C)Excessive bleeding
D)None of the above, because this is a normal value
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Chapter 8: Interpretation of Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal value for PaO in the adult patient?
A)50-60 mm Hg
B)60-70 mm Hg
C)70-80 mm Hg
D)80-100 mm Hg
Q2) A 17-year-old man is brought into the emergency department.Vitals are as follows: pulse, 100 beats/min; respiratory rate, 4 breaths/min; and blood pressure, 100/65 mm Hg.The patient was at a party, where he was discovered by his friends to be slumped in a chair and unresponsive.ABG results are as follows: pH 7.29, PaCO 68 mm Hg, HCO - 29 mEq/L, BE + 1 mEq/L
The patient's acid-base status is classified as which of the following?
A)Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B)Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
C)Compensated respiratory alkalosis
D)Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Q3) Which of the following is the best indicator of metabolic acid-base status?
A)Plasma HCO -
B)Base excess
C)Standard HCO -
D)T40 HCO -
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total lung capacity (TLC) is a function of all of the following except:
A)age.
B)birth weight.
C)gender.
D)size.
Q2) Which of the following tests is not considered for exercise testing?
A)Stress ECG
B)Ventilatory capacity
C)Anaerobic threshold
D)DLCO
Q3) Which of the following tests is often used preoperatively to evaluate whether the patient may have postoperative complications?
A)ABG analysis
B)IC measurement
C)MVV test
D)PEF test
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11
Chapter 10: Chest Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would suggest that a patient has congestive heart failure (CHF)?
A)Low and flat diaphragm
B)Increased cardiothoracic ratio
C)Tracheal deviation
D)Increased retrosternal air space on a lateral film
Q2) The casting of a white shadow on a film is consistent with which of the following situations?
A)Less exposed film
B)More exposed film
C)More radiolucent film
D)More penetrated film
Q3) A portable film is ordered immediately after a central venous pressure (CVP) catheter is placed via the subclavian vein.Which of the following is the correct placement site for the catheter?
A)1 to 2 cm above the right atrium
B)Between the left and right ventricles
C)At the confluence of the superior vena cava and the right atrium
D)Anywhere in the superior vena cava
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interpretation of Electrocardiogram Tracings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following dysrhythmias is associated with the lowest cardiac output?
A)AV block
B)Atrial fibrillation
C)Ventricular flutter
D)Ventricular fibrillation
Q2) Which of the following is a hallmark of a premature ventricular contraction (PVC)?
A)The QRS complex is early but normal in appearance.
B)The QRS complex is wider than normal.
C)There is a P wave in front of the QRS complex.
D)The T wave moves in the same direction as the QRS complex.
Q3) At what speed does the paper travel through the ECG machine?
A)25 mm/sec
B)30 mm/sec
C)40 mm/sec
D)50 mm/sec
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Chapter 12: Neonatal and Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is indicated by the presence of retractions in the newborn?
A)A compliant chest wall
B)Stiff lungs
C)Reduced airway resistance
D)Heart failure
Q2) What range of gestational weeks is considered term?
A)32 to 36
B)34 to 40
C)37 to 42
D)38 to 44
Q3) Which of the following conditions is a result of a bacterial disease?
A)Asthma
B)Croup
C)Epiglottitis
D)Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS)
Q4) Which of the following is a common cause of hypothermia in an infant?
A)Infection
B)Heart failure
C)Atelectasis
D)Liver disease
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Chapter 13: Older Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What fraction of patients older than 70 years have calcium deposits in their aortic or mitral valves?
A)One-fourth
B)One-third
C)One-half
D)Two-thirds
Q2) Ototoxicity has a damaging effect on which cranial nerve?
A)Fifth cranial nerve
B)Sixth cranial nerve
C)Seventh cranial nerve
D)Eighth cranial nerve
Q3) Which of the following PaO values would be normal for an 80-year-old individual who is breathing room air?
A)60 mm Hg
B)65 mm Hg
C)50 mm Hg
D)85 mm Hg
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15
Chapter 14: Respiratory Monitoring in Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient's mechanical ventilator has a graphic display screen, which of the following waveforms could be used to determine whether there is any leak in the system and the amount of the leak?
A)Flow-time
B)Volume-time
C)Pressure-time
D)Pressure-flow
Q2) Which of the following ventilator changes is most likely to increase the functional reserve capacity (FRC) and reduce the extent of acute lung injury?
A)Increased FIO
B)Increased flow
C)Increased PEEP
D)Decreased inspiratory time
Q3) All the following activities are included in respiratory monitoring except:
A)alarm setting.
B)pulmonary consults.
C)physical examinations.
D)measurements and calculations.
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16
Chapter 15: Vascular Pressure Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CVP can be used to estimate left ventricular filling pressures if there is no left ventricular dysrhythmia and the ejection fraction is greater than:
A)0.20.
B)0.30.
C)0.40.
D)0.50.
Q2) The CVP catheter insertion site that provides both stability after placement and accurate hemodynamic information is the _____ vein.
A)external jugular
B)internal jugular
C)subclavian
D)femoral
Q3) Monitoring of the CVP is indicated when there is a need to assess:
A)the circulating blood volume.
B)the degree of venous return.
C)the right ventricular function.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Output Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle in 1 minute is the definition of: A)afterload.
B)cardiac output.
C)stroke volume.
D)ejection fraction.
Q2) The strength of contraction of the myocardial muscle fibers is related directly to the amount of stretch on the fiber before contraction is a definition of:
A)preload.
B)Starling law.
C)cardiac contractility.
D)ventricular compliance.
Q3) To standardize the measurement of cardiac output in individuals of different sizes, the value for cardiac output is divided by the person's body surface area.The result is known as:
A)cardiac work.
B)the cardiac index.
C)the standardized cardiac output.
D)the cardiac end-systolic volume.
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18
Chapter 17: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary purpose of bronchoscopy in a patient with interstitial lung disease?
A)To perform microscopic assessment of the biopsy sample, which often is diagnostic
B)To stop massive hemoptysis
C)To identify the causative agent
D)To remove excessive secretions
Q2) What complication associated with bronchoscopy is most common?
A)A complication associated with medications used in the procedure
B)Pneumothorax
C)Secondary infection
D)Excessive bleeding
Q3) All of the following would prevent a physician from performing bronchoscopy for a patient except for a/an ______________________.
A)PaO of 45 mm Hg
B)international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.5
C)PaCO of 38 mm Hg
D)current heart rate of 120 beats/min and rhythm of atrial fibrillation.
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19
Chapter 18: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What test is most useful for screening a patient for protein malnutrition?
A)Serum albumin level
B)Triceps skinfold
C)Creatinine-height index
D)BMI
Q2) Of which of the following components should the majority of dietary intake be made up?
A)Fat
B)Carbohydrate
C)Protein
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following might indicate poor nutritional status?
A)Low BMI
B)Positive nitrogen balance
C)Positive response to skin antigen testing
D)High serum albumin level
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Chapter 19: Sleep and Breathing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of sleep is characterized by delta or slow waves?
A)Stage 1 NREM
B)Stage 2 NREM
C)Stage 3 NREM
D)REM
Q2) Which of the following would be most suggestive of a patient who is liable to have SDB?
A)One with a smoking history
B)An obese patient
C)A very tall and thin patient
D)A patient with a history of hypertension
Q3) What is the peak age of incidence for SIDS?
A)Birth to 1 month
B)2 to 4 months
C)4 to 8 months
D)8 months to 1 year
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21
Chapter 20: Home Care Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tools should be provided by the healthcare team for a patient to effectively manage his or her own care?
A)Equipment and training in how to use it
B)A knowledge base about disease and care needs
C)The ability to monitor oneself and knowledge about when to notify members of the team
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the role of the RT in evaluating psychosocial issues with the home care patient?
A)The home care RT should not get involved in psychosocial issues.
B)The home care RT should observe and document any psychosocial issues.
C)Any such issues that are observed should be communicated to the physician.
D)Both b and c are correct.
Q3) The primary tools used to conduct a home care patient assessment include all of the following except a:
A)stethoscope.
B)pulse oximeter.
C)peak flowmeter.
D)bronchoscope.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absence of information or the lack of documented recognition of specific problems could result in which one of the following situations?
A)Malpractice
B)Reduction in salary for an RT
C)Reduction in workload
D)Probation status for the clinician at fault
Q2) Which of the following charting methods has been promoted with implementation of rapid response teams (RRTs)?
A)PIP
B)SOAP
C)SBAR
D)APIE
Q3) All of the following are advantages of the EMR except:
A)lack of standardization among systems.
B)increased storage capacity.
C)information is concurrently available even at remote sites.
D)increased accuracy.
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