Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology explores the structural and functional aspects of the heart, lungs, and associated systems that facilitate oxygen transport and carbon dioxide removal in the human body. This course examines the detailed anatomy of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, including the heart chambers, valves, vessels, airflow passages, and alveolar structures. Students will learn about the physiological mechanisms that govern cardiac conduction, blood flow, gas exchange, ventilation, and circulation, as well as how these systems adapt under various conditions such as exercise and disease. The course underpins clinical practice by connecting normal anatomical and physiological principles to common pathologies, diagnostic procedures, and therapeutic interventions in cardiopulmonary health.
Recommended Textbook
Wilkins Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care 7th Edition by Al Heuer PhD
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preparing for the Patient Encounter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male therapist is discussing a treatment plan with a female patient who is sitting up in bed, dressed in a hospital gown and wearing a full head covering with only her face showing.Her husband is in the room, and from previous encounters it is clear that she defers to him.The most effective way to present this treatment plan would be for the therapist to:
A)Present the patient with a written summary of the plan and ask her to look it over.
B)Ask the woman's husband to step out of the room while the plan is being discussed with the patient.
C)Explain the plan to the patient, maintaining eye contact with her at all times and encouraging her to ask any questions she might have.
D)Explain the plan to the patient and her husband, and encourage both to ask any questions they might have.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Medical History and the Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication between individuals is affected by all of the following factors except:
A)The time of day.
B)The cultural heritage.
C)The religious beliefs.
D)The level of education.
Answer: A
Q2) Who writes the progress notes each day?
A)The physician
B)The physical therapist
C)The nurse
D)Any of the above
Answer: D
Q3) In the physical examination, subjective data gathered are referred to as:
A)Measurements.
B)Symptoms.
C)Variables.
D)Signs.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cardiopulmonary Symptoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is often associated with right heart failure?
A)Organomegaly
B)Hepatomegaly
C)Loud A2 heart sound
D)Shallow breathing
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following definitions is consistent with massive hemoptysis?
A)400 mL in 3 hours
B)400 mL in 12 hours
C)600 mL in 48 hours
D)600 mL in 72 hours
Answer: A
Q3) Breathing at a rate and depth in excess of the body's metabolic need is known as:
A)Hyperventilating.
B)Hyperpnea.
C)Platypnea.
D)Psychogenic dyspnea.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When vital signs are compared with other signs and symptoms to arrive at a conclusion about what is wrong with a patient, this is known as the:
A)review of systems.
B)differential diagnosis.
C)general clinical presentation.
D)objective assessment information.
Q2) What is the most common cause of fever above 102° F?
A)Aspiration pneumonitis
B)Infection
C)Blood transfusion reaction
D)Head injury
Q3) The diastolic blood pressure is a reflection of:
A)the pressure exerted during left ventricular relaxation.
B)the peak pressure exerted during left ventricular contraction.
C)the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.
D)the force exerted against the walls of the arteries as blood flows through them.
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Chapter 5: Fundamentals of Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diaphragm portion of the stethoscope is used to listen for:
A)heart murmurs.
B)pleural friction rubs.
C)low-pitched heart sounds.
D)most lung sounds.
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the production of murmurs?
A)Stenotic AV valves
B)Incompetent AV valves
C)Incompetent semilunar valves
D)All of the above
Q3) What problem is associated with cyanosis of the oral mucosa?
A)Low cardiac output
B)Reduced arterial oxygenation
C)Hyperventilation
D)Hypoventilation
Q4) What clinical disorder will cause a unilateral decrease in thoracic expansion?
A)COPD
B)Lobar pneumonia
C)Acute asthma attack
D)Neuromuscular disease
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Chapter 6: Neurologic Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following anatomic areas is compromised when the patient has dysmetria?
A)Cerebrum
B)Pons
C)Cerebellum
D)Brainstem
Q2) Which of the following diseases is characterized by abnormal deep tendon reflexes due to abnormalities of the neuromuscular junction?
A)Syphilis
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Cerebritis
D)Multiple sclerosis
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the brain?
A)Cerebrum
B)Cranial nerves
C)Brainstem
D)Cerebellum
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Chapter 7: Clinical Laboratory Studies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a formed element found in circulating blood?
A)Sodium
B)Platelets
C)Potassium
D)Bicarbonate
Q2) Which of the following types of white blood cells fights bacterial infection?
A)Basophil
B)Monocyte
C)Neutrophil
D)Lymphocyte
Q3) Which of the following is considered the major cation of the extracellular fluid?
A)Sodium
B)Calcium
C)Chloride
D)Potassium
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Chapter 8: Interpretation of Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal value for CaO ?
A)16-20 vol%
B)12-16 vol%
C)8-12 vol%
D)4-8 vol%
Q2) For the test of collateral circulation in an Allen's Test, "pinking up" of the hand is normal if it occurs within ____ seconds.
A)10 to 15
B)15 to 20
C)20 to 25
D)25 to 30
Q3) Which of the following is a correct representation of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?
A)pK = pH - log (PaCO × 0.03)/ HCO -
B)pK = pH - log HCO - /(PaCO × 0.03)
C)pH = pK + log HCO - /(PaCO × 0.03)
D)-pH = pK - log HCO - /(PaCO × 0.03)
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is more sensitive than the FEV in detecting airway obstruction?
A)FVC
B)FEV1/FVC
C)FEV3
D)FEF25% to 75%
Q2) Which of the following factors has the greatest influence on lung size and predicted PFT values?
A)Gender
B)Height
C)Race
D)Weight
Q3) Which of the following is not a general purpose of performing pulmonary function tests (PFTs)?
A)The functional status of the lungs
B)The diffusion characteristics of the alveolar-capillary membrane
C)How much and how fast gas can be moved into and out of the lungs
D)The specific diagnosis of pulmonary disease
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11
Chapter 10: Chest Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a PA film, what number of posterior ribs visible above the diaphragm indicates a good inspiratory effort?
A)10
B)8
C)6
D)5
Q2) Electrons coming off the cathode in an x-ray machine are focused to hit a small area of the anode called the:
A)tube.
B)target.
C)transformer.
D)focusing plate.
Q3) Which of the following tissues will look radiolucent on a chest radiograph?
A)Blood
B)Bone
C)Lungs
D)Liver
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interpretation of Electrocardiogram Tracings
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the terminology for three of the limb leads-aVR, aVL, and aVF-what does the letter "A" stand for?
A)Atrial
B)Assisted
C)Ambient
D)Augmented
Q2) Which of the following dysrhythmias is associated with the lowest cardiac output?
A)AV block
B)Atrial fibrillation
C)Ventricular flutter
D)Ventricular fibrillation
Q3) Which of the following is a hallmark of a premature ventricular contraction (PVC)?
A)The QRS complex is early but normal in appearance.
B)The QRS complex is wider than normal.
C)There is a P wave in front of the QRS complex.
D)The T wave moves in the same direction as the QRS complex.
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13
Chapter 12: Neonatal and Pediatric Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is part of the biophysical evaluation of a fetus performed by ultrasound?
A)Reactive heart rate
B)Fetal brain development
C)Fetal gastrointestinal function
D)Body size
Q2) What effect does abdominal distention have on respiration?
A)Impedes diaphragm movement
B)Decreases the work of breathing
C)Does not have any impact on respiration
D)Improves expiration and lung stabilization
Q3) What parameter demonstrates the largest difference when capillary blood is compared with arterial blood?
A)PO
B)PCO
C)pH
D)HCO -
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Chapter 13: Older Patient Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following would explain the presence of "clubbing" in the aged?
A)COPD
B)Simple aging process
C)CHF
D)Connective tissue disorders
Q2) An elderly patient who gains more than how many pound(s) in a week may be suffering from CHF?
A)1 lb
B)3 lb
C)5 lb
D)7 lb
Q3) By age 79 years, about what percentage of older patients have hearing impairment?
A)30%
B)40%
C)50%
D)60%
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Chapter 14: Respiratory Monitoring in Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac output will increase to compensate for a decrease in oxygen tension when the PaO falls to below _____ mm Hg.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q2) The highest incidence of postoperative morbidity is associated with which of the following surgery sites?
A)Transsternal
B)Upper abdominal
C)Lower abdominal
D)Thoracoabdominal
Q3) Which of the following is least likely to cause an increase in a patient's tidal volume?
A)Metabolic acidosis
B)Sepsis
C)Metabolic alkalosis
D)Severe neurologic injury
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vascular Pressure Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) During systole, the CVP v waveform is exaggerated and the CVP increases.This most likely is due to:
A)a kink in the tubing.
B)air bubbles in the catheter.
C)an incompetent tricuspid valve.
D)incorrect positioning of the measuring instrument with respect to the right atrium.
Q2) An increase in pulmonary artery systolic pressure is seen in patients with all of the following conditions except:
A)pulmonary embolus.
B)mitral valve stenosis.
C)right ventricular failure.
D)hypoxia and hypoxemia.
Q3) The normal range for pulmonary artery systolic pressure is _____ mm Hg.
A)0 to 10
B)10 to 20
C)20 to 30
D)30 to 40
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Output Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately how much blood can be lost before circulatory function and pressures are affected?
A)5%
B)15%
C)25%
D)35%
Q2) Which of the following best describes preload?
A)The filling volume of the left ventricle.
B)The stretch on the ventricular muscle fibers before contraction.
C)The difference between the end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes.
D)The volume of blood deposited from the right atrium into the right ventricle.
Q3) What effect does spontaneous deep inspiration have on venous return?
A)No effect
B)A dampening effect
C)An enhancing effect
D)An unknown effect
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Chapter 17: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum depth that the standard adult bronchoscope can visualize in some patients?
A)Third-level bronchi
B)Fourth-level bronchi
C)Fifth-level bronchi
D)Sixth-level bronchi
Q2) For what condition is the rigid bronchoscope most likely to be used?
A)Pneumonia
B)Massive hemoptysis
C)Tumor
D)Interstitial lung disease
Q3) What aerosolized medication is administered to most patients before the bronchoscopic procedure is begun?
A)Albuterol
B)Racemic epinephrine
C)Fentanyl
D)Lidolocaine
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19
Chapter 18: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following might indicate poor nutritional status?
A)Low BMI
B)Positive nitrogen balance
C)Positive response to skin antigen testing
D)High serum albumin level
Q2) What is the RQ value of a patient eating a pure carbohydrate diet?
A)0.60
B)0.70
C)0.85
D)1.00
Q3) What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?
A)Calcium
B)Iron
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
Q4) Which of the following is a pulmonary effect of starvation?
A)Increased diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
B)Increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
C)Increased risk of pneumonia
D)Increased functional residual capacity (FRC)
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Sleep and Breathing Assessment
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Q1) A patient has an apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) of 15.What would this be considered?
A)Normal
B)Mild sleep apnea
C)Moderate sleep apnea
D)Severe sleep apnea
Q2) A reduction in air flow of between 4% and 50% of baseline air flow for at least 10 seconds during sleep defines which of the following?
A)Apnea
B)Respiratory effort-related arousal (RERA)
C)Arousal
D)Hypopnea
Q3) What test is used to diagnose sleep disorders?
A)Overnight oximetry
B)Polysomnography
C)Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D)Leg twitch study
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21
Chapter 20: Home Care Patient Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following should be identified by an RT during the initial home care interview of the patient and caregivers?
A)Patient smoking history
B)Current list of medications
C)Pulmonary risk factors
D)All of the above
Q2) Your home care patient has a chronic neuromuscular disease, and ventilation is a concern.Which of the following tests would be most helpful in evaluating this?
A)Chest auscultation
B)Pulse oximetry
C)ETCO
D)Peak flow
Q3) Which of the following should the RT assess during environmental evaluation of the home care patient's living place?
A)The presence of smoke detectors
B)An emergency exit route
C)Sources for triggers of bronchospasm
D)All of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major purpose of the electronic medical record (EMR) includes which of the following?
A)Increase efficiencies in the healthcare system
B)Improve the quality of patient care
C)Increase patient safety
D)All of the above
Q2) The absence of information or the lack of documented recognition of specific problems could result in which one of the following situations?
A)Malpractice
B)Reduction in salary for an RT
C)Reduction in workload
D)Probation status for the clinician at fault
Q3) Which of the following definitions is consistent with negligence?
A)Failure to document a procedure performed on a patient
B)Failure to explain to a patient the purpose of a therapy
C)Failure to obtain a license to practice despite good clinical performance
D)Failure to use a reasonable amount of care that results in injury or damage to another
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