Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Cardiopulmonary Anatomy and Physiology explores the structural and functional aspects of the heart, lungs, and associated systems involved in oxygen transport and gas exchange. This course examines the detailed anatomy of the cardiac and respiratory systems, cellular and molecular mechanisms of cardiac and pulmonary function, and the integration of these systems in maintaining homeostasis. Students will gain foundational knowledge of cardiovascular and respiratory physiology, including topics such as cardiac cycles, blood flow, pulmonary ventilation, gas transport, and regulation of breathing, providing a critical base for advanced study in health sciences and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Egans Fundamentals of Respiratory Care 9th Edition by Robert M. Kacmarek
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
51 Chapters
3410 Verified Questions
3410 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3406 Page 2
Chapter 1: History of Respiratory Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67608
Sample Questions
Q1) In what year did the respiratory care professional organization Inhalational Therapy Association (ITA) change its name to American Association for Respiratory Care (AARC)?
A)1954
B)1966
C)1975
D)1982
Answer: D
Q2) Who discovered oxygen in 1774 and described it as "dephlogisticated air"?
A)Robert Boyle
B)Jacque Charles
C)Thomas Beddoes
D)Joseph Priestley
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67609
Sample Questions
Q1) Current JCAHO standards for accreditation emphasize which of the following?
A)continual quality improvement
B)therapist-driven protocols
C)license and registration of health care providers
D)health, welfare, and safety of patients using respiratory care equipment
E)development of continuing education programs for health care providers
Answer: A
Q2) The word "credentialing" in general refers to what?
A)recognition of an individual in the profession
B)licensure by a state or national organization
C)successful completion of entry-level board examination
D)voluntary certification by state agency
E)not used in the field of respiratory care
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67610
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's response to an interview question is initially unclear. Which of the following responses on your part would be most appropriate?
A)"Please go on."
B)"You seem to be anxious."
C)"Please explain that to me again."
D)"Yes, I think I understand."
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following components of communication is a method used to transmit messages?
A)sender
B)channel
C)receiver
D)feedback
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 5
Chapter 4: Principles of Infection Control
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67611
Sample Questions
Q1) About how many people die each year in the United States from hospital-acquired infections (HAIs)?
A)5,000
B)25,000
C)90,000
D)250,000
Q2) What is the most common, efficient, and easiest sterilization method?
A)ETO
B)flash sterilization
C)steam sterilization
D)use of hydrochlorofluorcarbon
Q3) Which of the following is considered the primary source of infection in the health care setting?
A)medical equipment
B)humans
C)food and water
D)carpet
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67612
Sample Questions
Q1) A physician specifies an incorrect dose in a prescription for a powerful bronchodilator drug to be given to an asthmatic patient. When the respiratory therapist gives the prescribed dose, the patient suffers a fatal response and dies. Based on the principle of duty, against whom could a suit of negligence be brought?
I.respiratory therapist
II.attending physician
III.dispensing pharmacist
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I, II, and III
D)I and III
Q2) Before making any ethical decision, one should take which of the following actions?
i.Identify the individuals involved.II.Identify what ethical principle(s) apply.III.Identify who should make the decision.IV.Consider the alternatives.
A)II, III, and IV
B)I, II, III, and IV
C)III and IV
D)II and III
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67613
Sample Questions
Q1) What physical principle underlies most fluidic circuitry?
A)Poiseuille's law
B)Bernoulli's principle
C)law of continuity
D)Coanda effect
Q2) Which of the following will occur when a gas undergoes expansion?
IThe pressure of the gas increases.
II.Molecular collisions decrease
III.The gas temperature increases.
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)II
D)I and III
Q3) Which of the following liquids has the lowest surface tension?
A)whole blood
B)ethyl alcohol
C)plasma
D)mercury
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67614
Sample Questions
Q1) In what respiratory care protocol has it been shown that use of a handheld computer helped shorten the patient's stay in the intensive care unit?
A)ventilator initiation
B)ventilator weaning
C)high-flow oxygen therapy
D)airway care and intubation
Q2) In what area are computers used to apply quality assurance measures in respiratory care departments?
A)arterial blood gas analyzers
B)oxygen delivery systems
C)interpreting ECGs
D)equipment cleaning and sterilization
Q3) Who is credited with starting the Internet?
A)two geeks in Seattle
B)the U.S. Department of Defense
C)Microsoft
D)IBM
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67615
Sample Questions
Q1) About how far do the normal adult lungs extend above the clavicles?
A)2 cm
B)3 cm
C)4 cm
D)5 cm
Q2) Which of the following statements describe a normal adult lung?
A)The left lung is bisected by two fissures.
B)The left lung has an upper, a middle, and a lower lobe.
C)The right lung has only an upper and a lower lobe.
D)The right lung has three lobes and two fissures.
Q3) What does the detection of lymphatic channels on standard chest radiographs indicate?
A)abnormally low pressures in the lymphatic channels
B)anastomoses with the pulmonary circulation
C)normal fibrotic changes that occur with aging
D)system that is overwhelmed by excessive fluid
Q4) How would lung perfusion in a "zone 1" area best be described?
A)increased
B)normal or average
C)reduced
Page 10
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: The Cardiovascular System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67616
Sample Questions
Q1) The branches of the left coronary artery DO NOT supply which area of the heart?
A)majority of the interventricular septum
B)majority of the left ventricle
C)majority of the left atrium
D)sinus node
Q2) Given a stroke volume of 40 ml and an end-diastolic volume (EDV) of 70 ml, what is the patient's ejection fraction (EF)?
A)0.57
B)1.75
C)67
D)2800
Q3) The semilunar valves close when which of the following occurs?
A)The pressures in the arteries exceed those in the ventricles.
B)The pressures in the ventricles and arteries become equal.
C)The pressures in the atria exceed those in the ventricles.
D)The pressures in the ventricles exceed those in the atria.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67617
Sample Questions
Q1) In what portion of the lungs does alveolar dead space normally occur?
A)apices
B)bases
C)middle portions of the lungs
D)terminal respiratory units
Q2) Which of the following pressure gradients is responsible for the actual flow of gas into and out of the lungs during breathing?
A)transcanadian pressure gradient (P<sub>pc</sub> - P<sub>ks</sub>)
B)transpulmonary pressure gradient (P<sub>alv</sub> - P<sub>pl</sub>)
C)transrespiratory pressure gradient (P<sub>alv</sub> - P<sub>ao</sub>)
D)transthoracic pressure gradient (P<sub>pl</sub> - P<sub>bs</sub>)
Q3) A normal 150-lb man is breathing at a rate of 17 with a tidal volume of 450 ml. By estimation, what is his approximate alveolar ventilation?
A)7.65 L/min
B)5.10 L/min
C)3.85 L/min
D)2.60 L/min
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Gas Exchange and Transport
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67618
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a whole-body oxygen consumption of 320 ml/min and a measured CaO<sub>2</sub> - C \(\over{V}\) O<sub>2</sub> of 8 ml/dl. What is the cardiac output?
A)3.2 L/min
B)4.0 L/min
C)5.0 L/min
D)7.0 L/min
Q2) If the total hemoglobin content (Hb + HbO<sub>2</sub>) of a sample of blood is 20 g/dl and the oxyhemoglobin (HbO<sub>2</sub>) content is 15 g/dl, what is the HbO<sub>2</sub> saturation?
A)17%
B)50%
C)75%
D)83%
Q3) As the amount of oxygen that dissolves in the plasma increases, what is it directly proportional to?
A)its partial pressure
B)its solubility coefficient
C)minute ventilation
D)temperature
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67619
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypokalemia disturbs cellular function in ALL but one of the following systems. Which one does it NOT affect?
A)gastrointestinal
B)hepatic
C)neuromuscular
D)renal
Q2) What is a characteristic of an acid?
A)absorbs H<sup>+</sup> ions
B)accepts a proton
C)is a proton donor
D)produces OH<sup>-</sup> ions
Q3) What is hypercalcemia most often associated with?
A)hypoparathyroidism
B)kidney failure
C)pancreatitis
D)trauma
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67620
Sample Questions
Q1) Of what use is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for a clinician?
A)It can guide therapeutic decision for critically ill patients.
B)It establishes the baseline values for buffer enhancement treatments.
C)Given H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> values, the pH can be computed.
D)It allows validation of the reported values on a blood gas report.
Q2) [H<sup>+</sup>] can be determined by the use of which factors?
I.HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
II.H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
III.inorganic phosphorus
IV.PaO<sub>2</sub>
A)I, II, and III
B)II and III
C)IV only
D)I and II
Q3) What is the main compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis?
A)excretion of HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)hyperventilation
C)hypoventilation
D)retention of CO<sub>2</sub>
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Regulation of Breathing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67621
Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of the irritant receptors in the lung can result in which of the following?
I.bronchoconstriction
II.coughing
III.narrowing of the glottis
A)I
B)I and III.
C)I, II, and III
D)I and III
Q2) Causes of central neurogenic hyperventilation include which of the following?
I.head trauma
II.inadequate brain blood flow
III.severe brain hypoxia
A)II and III
B)I and II
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67622
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the technical term for secretions from the tracheobronchial tree that have not been contaminated by the mouth?
A)sputum
B)phlegm
C)mucus
D)pus
Q2) What term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?
A)orthopnea
B)platypnea
C)eupnea
D)apnea
Q3) What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
A)90 to 140 mm Hg
B)80 to 100 mm Hg
C)75 to 100 mm Hg
D)60 to 100 mm Hg
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67623
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a cause of leukopenia?
A)chemotherapy
B)bone marrow disease
C)radiation therapy
D)antibiotics
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true about type 1 and type 2 diabetes?
A)Type 1 often occurs initially in childhood.
B)Type 2 is much more common than type 1.
C)Type 1 is most often due to increased caloric intake.
D)Genetics may play a role in both type 1 and type 2.
Q3) What term is used to describe a potassium concentration that is below normal in the blood serum?
A)hypokalemia
B)hyponatremia
C)hypocalcemia
D)hypochloremia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67624
Sample Questions
Q1) What parameter is measured on the vertical axis of the ECG paper?
A)time
B)voltage
C)cardiac contraction rate
D)blood flow
Q2) What condition is often associated with right-axis deviation?
A)cor pulmonale
B)congestive heart failure (CHF)
C)mitral valve prolapse
D)left ventricular hypertrophy
Q3) For which of the following arrhythmias would an electronic pacemaker be indicated?
A)first-degree block
B)sinus tachycardia
C)third-degree block
D)ventricular fibrillation
Q4) An occasional premature ventricular complex (PVC) is not of major concern.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67625
Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a percutaneous needle puncture of the radial artery, you get only a small spurt of blood. Which of the following is the best action at this time?
A)Slowly withdraw the needle until a pulsatile flow fills the syringe.
B)Pull out entirely, use a different angle and then reinsert it.
C)Slowly advance the needle until a pulsatile flow fills the syringe.
D)Repeat the procedure with a fresh blood gas kit.
Q2) Before taking a spot reading with a pulse oximeter, what should you do?
I.Allow sufficient response time.
II.Set the low alarm to 88% to 90%.
III.Confirm adequacy of pulse signal.
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
Q3) Which blood gas analyzer electrode uses a separate reference electrode?
A)O<sub>2</sub>
B)pH
C)Clark
D)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Pulmonary Function Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67626
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a decreased DLCO but a normal DLCO/V<sub>A</sub> ratio. The patient most likely has
A)emphysema
B)pulmonary fibrosis
C)a small lung (low total lung capacity)
D)secondary polycythemia
Q2) Tests of pulmonary mechanics include all of the following except:
A)maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV)
B)functional residual capacity
C)forced expiratory flows (FEFs)
D)forced expiratory volumes (FEVs)
Q3) What is the predicted normal FEV<sub>1</sub> for the average 20-year-old man?
A)3.3 L
B)4.0 L
C)4.7 L
D)5.2 L
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67627
Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following would loculation of pleural fluid NOT be as likely to occur?
A)empyema
B)exudative fluid
C)hemothorax
D)congestive heart failure
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the visualization of air bronchograms on the chest film?
A)They indicate fluid in the pleura.
B)They are caused by air-filled airways surrounded by consolidation.
C)They are the hallmark of alveolar consolidation.
D)They signify air space disease.
Q3) Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause pneumomediastinum?
A)chest trauma
B)esophageal rupture
C)thyroid surgery
D)pericarditis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Nutrition Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67628
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding kwashiorkor?
A)occurs with a long-term loss of protein
B)often causes facial and limb edema
C)child often has a pot belly
D)may occur in combination with marasmus
Q2) Which of the following diseases is/are associated with protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)?
I.asthma
II.emphysema
III.cancer
A)I only
B)I and II only
C)II and III only
D)I, II, and III
Q3) Which of the following pieces of equipment is NOT needed to perform indirect calorimetry?
A)oxygen analyzer
B)Tissot spirometer
C)Douglas bag
D)nitrogen analyzer
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Pulmonary Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67629
Sample Questions
Q1) The chest radiograph is often of little help in the diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia in mechanically ventilated patients in the ICU because these individuals often have other reasons for radiographic abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following represents an example of atypical community-acquired pneumonia?
A)Haemophilus influenzae
B)Legionella pneumophila
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q3) In what type of pneumonia is diarrhea a common symptom?
A)cytomegalovirus
B)Klebsiella
C)pneumococcal
D)staphylococcal
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67630
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following common causes of asthma, which is the least likely to cause exercise-induced asthma?
A)long distance cycling
B)running cross country
C)skiing and snowboarding
D)swimming indoors
Q2) Which of the following signs and symptoms is most closely associated with respiratory failure in a COPD patient?
A)bilateral wheezing
B)changes in mental status
C)dyspnea on exertion
D)excessive sputum production
Q3) What pathophysiologic characteristic of asthma has been most recently emphasized in the description and subsequent treatment of this disease?
A)hyperactivity of the airways
B)hyperinflation of the lung parenchyma
C)inflammation of the airways
D)mucus plugging of the airways
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Interstitial Lung Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67631
Sample Questions
Q1) What symptoms are most common in the patient with interstitial lung disease?
A)exertional dyspnea and nonproductive cough
B)exertional dyspnea and wheezing
C)nonproductive cough and wheezing
D)productive cough and increased sputum production
Q2) What is the life expectancy of a patient diagnosed with progressive idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
A)<2 years
B)<4 years
C)<6 years
D)<7 years
Q3) Patients with simple pneumoconiosis of coal workers are often asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chest radiographs will show hilar lymphadenopathy in most cases of asbestosis.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Pleural Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67632
Sample Questions
Q1) At what point is intrapleural pressure most negative?
A)end exhalation
B)FRC
C)inspiration
D)maximal expiration
Q2) In what age group is a primary spontaneous pneumothorax most commonly seen?
A)under 15 years
B)18 to 25 years
C)35 to 45 years
D)over 60 years
Q3) Most pleural effusions are transudative.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a common clinical finding even with small pleural effusions?
A)air bronchograms
B)arrhythmias
C)dyspnea
D)tachycardia
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67633
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions predispose a patient to venous thromboembolic disease?
I.carcinoma
II.COPD
III.trauma
IV.thrombocytosis
A)I, II, and III
B)I and IV
C)II only
D)I, III, and IV
Q2) At rest, what level does the mean pulmonary artery pressure need to reach before it is considered pulmonary hypertension?
A)>10 mm Hg
B)>15 mm Hg
C)>20 mm Hg
D)>25 mm Hg
Q3) Most pulmonary infarctions occur in the lung apexes.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67634
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about prone-positioning of patients with ARDS?
A)It produces a transient improvement in gas exchange.
B)It dramatically reduces the mortality of patients with ARDS.
C)It does not require experienced staff.
D)It does not improve gas exchange at all.
Q2) The routine use of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) in the treatment of patients with ARDS is not recommended at this time.
A)True B)False
Q3) The mortality rate for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) has remained stable over the past two decades.
A)True B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Lung Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67635
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comments regarding lung cancer is TRUE?
A)The incidence has risen over the past few decades.
B)It is the third leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States.
C)The peak incidence occurred in the mid-1970s.
D)Incidence has increased in women 40 to 58 years of age.
Q2) What minimum size does a lesion in the lung need to be in order to be called a nodule?
A)1 cm
B)2 cm
C)3 cm
D)4 cm
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with local tumor growth in the central airways?
A)large airway obstruction
B)cough
C)hemoptysis
D)fine crackles
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest
Wall
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67636
Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis patients die within 5 years of diagnosis?
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)80%
Q2) Peripheral nerve disorders that cause respiratory muscle dysfunction can be caused by all of the following except:
A)inflammatory processes
B)vascular disorders
C)metabolic imbalances
D)fluid imbalances
Q3) Which of the following is often preceded by a history of upper respiratory or flu-like symptoms?
A)myotonic dystrophy
B)polymyositis
C)Guillain-Barré syndrome
D)amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Disorders of Sleep
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67637
Sample Questions
Q1) How does CPAP improve breathing in the patient with OSA?
A)stimulation of the phrenic nerve
B)pneumatic splinting of the upper airway
C)stimulation of upper airway muscles
D)repositioning of the epiglottis
Q2) Why should the patient with obstructive sleep apnea not use alcohol?
A)Alcohol decreases the arousal threshold.
B)Alcohol increases upper airway muscle tone.
C)Alcohol increases the arousal threshold.
D)Alcohol reduces the cardiovascular compensatory mechanisms.
Q3) Which of the following conditions is not associated with untreated obstructive sleep apnea?
A)systemic hypotension
B)pulmonary hypertension
C)heart failure
D)myocardial infarction
Q4) Oral devices may prove useful for cases of mild OSA.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67638
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors is associated with an increase in the incidence of RDS?
A)maternal heart disease
B)maternal diabetes
C)maternal asthma
D)long labor
Q2) It is not difficult to differentiate death from SIDS from death by intentional suffocation.
A)True B)False
Q3) Ribavirin is recommended primarily for the infant with bronchiolitis who also has other complex morbidities.
A)True B)False
Q4) Normally the PVR/SVR ratio is greater than 1 in the fetus.
A)True B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Airway Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
76 Verified Questions
76 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67639
Sample Questions
Q1) Use of a reservoir device with aerosolized metered-dose inhaler corticosteroid can reduce which of the following, except:
A)amount swallowed and absorbed systemically
B)oral candidiasis
C)incidence of dysphonia
D)Cushing's syndrome
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered part of the assessment of severity of symptoms recommended by the NAEPP and GOLD guidelines to modify level or dosage of corticosteroids?
A)number of exacerbations
B)missed work or school days
C)pulmonary function
D)use of anticholinergics
Q3) When stimulated, which of the following receptors cause bronchoconstriction?
A)M<sub>3</sub>
B)M<sub>2</sub>
C)\(\alpha\)<sub>1</sub>
D)\(\beta\)<sub>2</sub>
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Airway Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67640
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tracheal tube cuff designs are used as alternatives to cuff pressure measurement?
I.Kamen-Wilkinson foam cuff
II.low-residual-volume cuff
III.Lanz pressure-regulated cuff
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) All of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway except:
A)wheezing
B)coma
C)lack of gag reflex
D)inability to cough
Q3) What is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
A)-60 to -80 mm Hg
B)-80 to -100 mm Hg
C)-100 to -120 mm Hg
D)-150 to -200 mm Hg
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67641
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is FALSE about oropharyngeal airways?
A)Incorrect placement can worsen airway obstruction.
B)They all consist of a flange, body, and channel(s).
C)They should only be used by trained personnel.
D)They are contraindicated in children and infants.
Q2) How would you estimate the appropriate length for a nasopharyngeal airway?
A)Subtract twice the diameter of the tube from its length.
B)Measure the distance from the earlobe to the Adam's apple.
C)Apply the estimating formula: length (cm) = 15 + (age ÷ 2).
D)Measure the distance from the earlobe to the tip of the nose.
Q3) During properly performed external chest compression on children under 8 years old or on large toddlers, how much should the sternum be compressed?
A)0.5 to 1.0 inch
B)1.0 to 1.5 inches
C)1.5 to 2.0 inches
D)2.0 to 2.5 inches
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 36
Chapter 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67642
Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of dry gases at flows exceeding 4 L/min can cause which of the following?
I.structural damage
II.heat loss
III.water loss
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) All of the following are potential hazards of using heat-moisture exchangers except:
A)failure of low-pressure alarms to detect disconnection
B)underhydration or impaction of secretions
C)hypoventilation due to increased dead space
D)unintended tracheal lavage from condensate
Q3) What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?
A)decrease airway reactivity to cold
B)maintain normal physiologic conditions
C)deliver drugs to the airway
D)reduce upper airway inflammation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
123 Verified Questions
123 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67643
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patient skills are necessary to ensure effectiveness of drug administration via the aerosol route?
I.ability to keep track of dosing requirements
II.understanding of the methods and goals of therapy
III.ability to recognize undesirable side effects
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following is a common method to measure aerosol particle size?
A)scan
B)gravimetric
C)cascade impaction
D)penetration studies
Q3) Most of the spray generated by the majority of metered-dose inhalers consists of which of the following?
A)active drug
B)propellant
C)surfactant agents
D)water solution
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67644
Sample Questions
Q1) Structural requirements for the central piping systems that are used in hospitals to distribute gases are established by whom?
A)American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
B)Department of Transportation
C)National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
D)Compressed Gas Association (CGA)
Q2) The measured pressure in a gas-filled cylinder is equivalent to which of the following?
A)its filling density divided by the cylinder gas factor
B)gas temperature times its coefficient of expansion
C)gas density divided by the density of air at standard temperature, standard pressure, dry (STPD)
D)the force required to compress its volume within the cylinder
Q3) How can one determine whether a pressure-reducing valve uses multiple stages for pressure reduction?
A)by noting the number of gauges attached to the valve
B)by noting the DISS code
C)by noting the ASSS code
D)by noting the number of pressure relief vents
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 39
Chapter 38: Medical Gas Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67645
Sample Questions
Q1) Directing a cool O<sub>2</sub> mixture to an infant in an Oxy-Hood can result in which of the following?
I.increased O<sub>2 </sub>consumption
II.increased convective heat loss
III.apnea (cessation of breathing)
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) A 52-year-old man is admitted to the hospital emergency department with a primary complaint of severe radiating chest pain and signs of central cyanosis. The attending asks for your advice on selecting a device that provides a moderate FIO<sub>2</sub> for this patient. Which of the following would you recommend?
A)simple O<sub>2</sub> mask at 8 L/min
B)air-entrainment mask at 40% O<sub>2</sub>
C)nasal cannula at 5 L/min
D)nonrebreathing mask at 10 L/min
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 40
Chapter 39: Lung Expansion Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67646
Sample Questions
Q1) An alert and cooperative 28-year-old woman with no prior history of lung disease underwent cesarean section 16 hours earlier. Her x-ray film currently is clear. Which of the following approaches to preventing atelectasis would you recommend for this patient?
A)incentive spirometry
B)PEEP therapy
C)deep breathing exercises
D)intermittent positive-pressure breathing therapy
Q2) Which of the following clinical findings indicate the development of atelectasis?
I.opacified areas on the chest x-ray film
II.inspiratory and expiratory wheezing
III.tachypnea
IV.diminished or bronchial breath sounds
A)I, III, and IV
B)I, II, III, and V
C)I and IV
D)II, III, and IV
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67647
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are goals of bronchial hygiene therapy except:
A)Reverse the underlying disease process.
B)Help mobilize retained secretion.
C)Improve pulmonary gas exchange.
D)Reduce the work of breathing.
Q2) What is the ideal patient position for directed coughing?
A)sitting with one shoulder rotated inward, the head and spine slightly flexed
B)supine, with knees slightly flexed and feet braced
C)prone, with the head and spine slightly flexed
D)supine, with forearms relaxed and feet supported
Q3) Soon after you initiate postural drainage in a Trendelenburg position, the patient develops a vigorous and productive cough. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?
A)Maintain the drainage position while carefully watching the patient.
B)Move the patient to the sitting position until the cough subsides.
C)Stop the treatment at once and report the incident to the nurse.
D)Drop the head of the bed farther and encourage more coughing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67648
Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub> with \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and shunt?
A)increases with \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and decreases with shunt
B)decreases with both \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and shunt
C)increases with both \(\dot { V } / \dot { Q }\) mismatch and shunt
D)it does not change
Q2) A patient with interstitial lung disease who presents with hypoxemia due to diffusion defect would have which of the following clinical signs?
I.fine bibasilar crackles
II.clubbing of the finger nail beds
III.jugular venous distention
IV.increased P2
A)I and II
B)I, III, and IV
C)III and IV
D)I, II, III, and IV
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
43
Chapter 42: Mechanical Ventilators
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67649
Sample Questions
Q1) While observing a patient receiving ventilatory support, you notice that all delivered breaths are initiated or terminated by the machine. Which of the following modes of ventilatory support is in force?
A)intermittent mandatory ventilation
B)partial ventilatory support
C)continuous mandatory ventilation
D)continuous spontaneous ventilation
Q2) Primary drive mechanisms used by modern ventilators include which of the following?
I. compressed gas or reducing valve
II. hydraulic or fluidic compressor
III. electrical motor or compressor
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I, II, and III
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67650
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a normal spontaneous tidal volume?
A)3 to 5 ml/kg
B)5 to 7 ml/kg
C)7 to 9 ml/kg
D)10 to 12 ml/kg
Q2) Inspection of the airway pressure waveform of a patient receiving volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation assist-control with constant flow reveals a large dip or drop in pressure at the beginning of inspiration. Which of the following problems is most likely?
A)The trigger setting is improper.
B)The inspiratory flow is inadequate.
C)The set volume is too large.
D)The pressure limit is too low.
Q3) In which of the following modes does the clinician have the most control over the patient's ventilatory pattern, PaO<sub>2</sub>, PaCO<sub>2</sub>, and acid-base balance?
A)volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation
B)volume-controlled intermittent mandatory ventilation
C)pressure-supported ventilation
D)pressure-controlled inspiratory reserve volume
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 45
Chapter 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67651
Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a lung recruitment strategy, which of the following would cause the therapist to stop?
I.mean blood pressure drops of 80 to 65 mm Hg
II.heart rate increases from 88 to 110/min
III.patient has a run of premature ventricular complexes
A)I only
B)II only
C)III only
D)I, II, and III
Q2) What flow pattern is least optimal for ventilating a patient with cardiovascular instability?
A)accelerating flow pattern
B)square flow pattern
C)decelerating flow pattern
D)constant flow pattern
Q3) In which of the following conditions is PEEP NOT likely to be useful?
A)ARDS
B)pulmonary edema
C)acute lung injury
D)neuromuscular disease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 46
Chapter 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67652
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) in postoperative major abdominal surgery?
A)lower mortality
B)lower intubation rate
C)lower incidence of pneumonia
D)lower rate of sepsis
Q2) Which of the following techniques is NOT useful to avoid claustrophobia in the patient being ventilated by face mask?
A)Allow patient to hold the mask.
B)Increase the inspiratory flow.
C)Use sedation.
D)Use a larger mask.
Q3) Which of the following is a potential risk of overtightening the straps of the mask?
A)absence of an air leak
B)tissue necrosis
C)eye irritation
D)claustrophobia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the
Intensive Care
Unit
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67653
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the value of determining the lower inflection point during measurement of the pressure-volume curve?
A)best tidal volume
B)best PEEP level
C)to determine best airway size
D)to determine type of ventilator inspiratory flow pattern
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a global monitoring index?
A)APACHE
B)APS
C)TISS
D)ATS
Q3) Which of the following parameters is NOT a major factor in determining tissue oxygenation?
A)arterial oxygenation
B)tissue perfusion
C)oxygen uptake
D)R/Q ratio
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 48
Chapter 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67654
Sample Questions
Q1) When is ventilator dependence likely to occur?
I.when ventilatory capacity exceeds demand
II.when arterial hypoxemia is present
III.when the patient is malnourished
IV.when the cardiovascular system is unstable
A)II and IV
B)I, II, and III
C)III and IV
D)II, III, and IV
Q2) All of the following are disadvantages of using the T-tube method for weaning except:
A)more staff time required
B)abrupt transition sometimes difficult
C)high imposed work of breathing
D)lack of alarm systems
Q3) All of the following factors will increase ventilatory demand (workload) except:
A)severe hypoxemia
B)pulmonary infection
C)increased compliance
D)bronchospasm
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67655
Sample Questions
Q1) You notice in the chart of an infant receiving neonatal intensive care the designation "preterm, AGA." Based on this information, what can you correctly conclude?
A)This is an infant whose weight falls between the 10th and 90th percentiles.
B)This is an infant whose weight falls between the 10th and 50th percentiles.
C)This is an infant whose weight falls between the 50th and 90th percentiles.
D)This is an infant whose weight falls between the 10th and 20th percentiles.
Q2) Which of the following is not an inclusion criterion for neonatal ECMO?
A)reversible lung disease
B)gestational age less than 35 weeks
C)pulmonary barotrauma
D)persistent acidosis
Q3) Which of the following is not a common indication for ECMO?
A)persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
B)respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
D)congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50
Chapter 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67656
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following examples of health care represents tertiary prevention?
A)pulmonary rehabilitation
B)mammogram
C)immunization
D)bronchial provocation testing
Q2) Which of the following are broad goals of Healthy People 2010?
I.to reduce mortality by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
II.to eradicate communicable diseases
III.to eliminate health disparities
IV.to increase quality and years of healthy life
A)I and II
B)I, II, and III
C)I, II, III, and IV
D)III and IV
Q3) Teaching physical skills to patients is learning in what domain?
A)cognitive
B)affective
C)psychomotor
D)analytical
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 51
Chapter 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67657
Sample Questions
Q1) The principal objectives of pulmonary rehabilitation include which of the following?
I.control and alleviate the symptoms
II.restore functional capabilities as much as possible
III.improve quality of life
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
Q2) What are the overall goals of rehabilitation?
I.reverse the course or progression of the disease process
II.minimize the disability's impact on the individual or family
III.maximize the functional ability of the individual
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)I and III
D)I, II, and III
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
138 Verified Questions
138 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67658
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following alarm systems is needed for postacute care patients who require only intermittent pressure-limited noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation?
A)high-pressure alarm
B)loss of power alarm
C)low-pressure alarm
D)low-exhaled-volume alarm
Q2) To avoid product failure, transtracheal catheters and their tubing should be replaced every how often?
A)every week
B)every 3 months
C)every month
D)every 6 months
Q3) All of the following are advantages of portable volume-cycled ventilators used in alternative settings except they:
A)can deliver higher volumes at higher pressures
B)provide lower mean pleural pressure for the same peak pressure
C)permit air stacking (multiple consecutive machine breaths)
D)are very responsive to the patient's changing flow demands
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.