Cancer Biology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Cancer Biology explores the cellular and molecular basis of cancer development, progression, and metastasis. The course covers the hallmarks of cancer, including oncogene activation, tumor suppressor gene inactivation, genome instability, tumor microenvironment, and cell signaling pathways involved in malignant transformation. Students will examine mechanisms of tumor initiation, progression, and the molecular basis of therapeutics, including targeted therapies and immunotherapy. The course also addresses cancer epidemiology, genetics, diagnostics, and recent advances in cancer research, providing a comprehensive understanding of cancer as a complex, multifactorial disease.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pK of the weak base NH is 9.25.When present in lysosomes,a subcellular organelle-ammonia-is almost totally protonated.Which of the pH values listed below is most likely to be that of the lysosome lumen?
A)1
B)5
C)8
D)14
Answer: B
Q2) A reaction with a positive G value can be made energetically favorable by increasing the:
A) G°´.
B)starting concentration of products.
C)starting concentration of reactants.
D)The first two answers are correct.
Answer: C
Q3) Phosphoglucomutase converts glucose 1-phosphate,the product of the reaction catalyzed by glycogen phosphorylase,into glucose 6-phosphate.The K q for this reaction is 19 under standard conditions.What is the G°´ for the reaction?
Answer: 1.741 kcal/mol, G°´ = 2.3RT log K q, G°´ = 2.3 (1.987)(298)log K q
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Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) To see if your polymerase chain reaction was successful and it amplified the right sequence of interest,you electrophorese the products from the reaction on an agarose gel.After staining the gel you find there are two bands of different sizes.Which one of the following is a possible explanation for these results?
A)The PCR induced a frame shift mutation into the DNA sequence.
B)RNA polymerase copied the DNA into two copies of RNA.
C)The primers annealed to two different templates.
D)a and b
Answer: C
Q2) A mutation in one gene that counteracts the effects of a mutation in another gene is known as a
A)temperature-sensitive mutation.
B)recessive mutation.
C)conditional mutation.
D)suppressor mutation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) You are studying an oligopeptide composed of eight amino acids.The four amino acids nearest the C terminus are nonpolar.The two amino acids nearest the N terminus are charged.The middle two amino acids are polar.Which amino acid is likely to be labeled as number 2?
A)threonine
B)phenylalanine
C)glutamine
D)lysine
Answer: D
Q2) Gel filtration chromatography separates proteins on the basis of their: A)charge. B)mass.
C)affinity for a ligand.
D)mass and charge.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Q1) You are studying lamins and use an antibody method to follow their expression and subcellular localization at the electron microscope level.What process would you use to find these proteins in the bacteria E.coli?
Q2) Characteristics of transformed cells can include all of the following EXCEPT: A)aneuploidy.
B)ability to differentiate into different cell types.
C)tight junctions.
D)presence of integrated viral genes.
Q3) The purpose of treating tissue from an embryonic chick with trypsin and EDTA when generating a primary cell culture is to:
A) break down proteins present in the serum so the cells can use the amino acids for energy.
B) cleave any cell surface proteins so you can grow the chick cells as a suspension culture for Difficulty: Easy use in an experiment.
C) break the protein protein interactions that hold cells together in a tissue.
D) prevent cell senescence.
Q4) How does the wavelength of the light used to illuminate a specimen affect the ability to resolve objects within the specimen?
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Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Q1) Which of the following are enzymes that play a key role in the base excision repair of nucleotide mismatches and damaged bases?
A)glycosamines
B)glycosidases
C)glycosylases
D)none of the above
Q2) When the CAU anticodon of a tRNA was modified to UAC,the anticodon for tRNA ,valine aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase recognized the altered tRNA and added valine rather than methionine to it.When the converse modification was made,the altered tRNA containing a CAU anticodon (rather than UAC)was recognized and activated by methionine aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.What do these data suggest about the mechanism by which aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases recognize their cognate tRNAs?
Q3) The genetic code is said to be "degenerate" because:
A)amino acid sequences are always read in the 3' 5' direction of the mRNA.
B)amino acids are encoded only by DNA sequences found in introns.
C)a particular amino acid can be specified by more than one codon.
D)tryptophan is the first amino acid in all polypeptide chains.
Q4) Which parts of the newly synthesized mRNA molecule do not transmit information for the synthesis of protein?
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Q1) Peripheral proteins bound to the exoplasmic face of the plasma membrane can also bind to:
A)cytoskeletal proteins.
B)proteins of the ECM.
C)the hydrophobic core of the phospholipid bilayer.
D)proteins of the outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q2) Porins
A)are peripheral membrane proteins.
B)contain no hydrophobic amino acid residues.
C)have many hydrophobic -helical regions.
D)allow small hydrophilic molecules to pass through a membrane.
Q3) An investigator wants to use FRAP to quantify the lateral movement of a specific plasma membrane protein,but to do so this investigator must first:
A)focus a laser on one region of the cell surface.
B)measure the intensity of the fluorescence of the cell surface.
C)label the cell with a fluorescent reagent that binds specifically to the cell surface.
D)add detergents to make the cell surface more fluid.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the plasma membrane in all cells?
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the proposed mechanism discussed in this chapter for the origin of gene families.
Q2) DNA that is transcriptionally active
A)is more susceptible to DNase I digestion.
B)is tightly packed into a solenoid arrangement.
C)contains nonacetylated histones.
D)is more condensed than nontranscribed DNA.
Q3) The karyotype for any particular species is characterized by
A)the number of metaphase chromosomes.
B)the size and shape of the metaphase chromosomes.
C)the banding pattern of the metaphase chromosomes.
D)all of the above
Q4) Short micro RNAs (miRNAs)
A)code for proteins.
B)are common in bacteria but not eukaryotes.
C)are involved in regulation of gene expression.
D)have no known function.
Q5) Describe the two major pathways for transposition of mobile elements.
Q6) Describe how modification of histone tails can control chromatin condensation.
Q7) Give a functional definition of a gene.
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct order of binding of general transcription factors to initiate transcription at RNA polymerase II promoters?
A)TFIID,TFIIB,Pol II,TFIIH
B)PolII,TFIID,TFIIB,TFIIH
C)TFIIB,PolII,TFIIH,TFIID
D)TFIID,TFIIH,TFIIB,PolII
Q2) Describe the similarities and differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic RNA polymerases.
Q3) What is the function of TFIIH in the transcription initiation complex?
A)binding to the TATA box
B)unwinding the DNA duplex
C)catalyzing the synthesis of RNA
D)all of the above
Q4) Which of the following is not a structural motif found in a DNA-binding domain?
A)homeodomain
B)zinc-finger
C)helix-loop-helix
D)random-coil acidic domain
Q5) Describe the structure and function of a zinc-finger motif.
Q6) Describe the functional properties of TFIID and TFIIH.
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Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Q1) Components of the spliceosome include
A)a pre-mRNA
B)proteins that react immunologically with the sera of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus.
C)U1 snRNA,which interacts with the 5´ splice site in pre-mRNA.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following are NOT found within the nucleus?
A)Cajal bodies
B)histone locus bodies
C)nucleoli
D)P-bodies
Q3) How is the 5´ cap added to nascent RNAs?
Q4) You are using a variety of techniques to study how the RISC complex differs between siRNAs and miRNAs and have found that what distinguishes an RISC complex containing an siRNA from one containing an miRNA is that:
A)the miRNA base-pairs perfectly with its target mRNA.
B)the siRNA base-pairs perfectly with its target mRNA.
C)the miRNA-RISC complex inhibits transcription.
D)the siRNA-RISC complex blocks translation.
Q5) How do researchers visualize the cellular locations of specific RNA molecules?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small
Molecules
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Q1) The magnitude of the membrane electrical potential is calculated by:
A)the Nernst equation.
B)the Michaelis-Menten equation.
C)the Faraday equation.
D)the Bose-Einstein equation.
Q2) What is the basic structural organization of an ABC superfamily transport protein?
Q3) Which statement describes the mode of action of the ABCB1 transporter (the first eukaryotic ABC transporter to be recognized)?
A)During transport,the ligand binding site is alternately exposed to the exoplasmic and the cytoplasmic side of the membrane.
B)During transport,a conserved aspartate residue is phosphorylated.
C)This class of pumps transports only H ions.
D)This transporter acts as a chloride channel.
Q4) Calculate the G for the movement of Na from inside a typical mammalian cell to outside.
Q5) What evidence suggests that all of the P-class ion pumps evolved from a common ancestor even though they now transport different ions?
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Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Q1) Which stages of photosynthesis can occur only in the light and which can also occur in the dark?
Q2) Plants use _____ to transport sucrose to all regions of the organism.
A)the xylem
B)the phloem
C)mesophyll cells
D)root cells
Q3) In chloroplasts,light absorption,electron transport,and ATP synthesis all occur:
A)in the stroma.
B)in the thylakoid lumen.
C)in or on the thylakoid membrane.
D)in or on the inner membrane.
Q4) _____ is a lipid soluble molecule that acts to shuttle electrons within the mitochondrial inner membrane.
A)Cytochrome c
B)NADH
C)CoQ
D)FADH
Q5) Which components of PSII are responsible for producing the proton-motive force?
Page 13
Q6) What is the function of the malate-aspartate shuttle?
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Q1) In a cell-free protein synthesis system utilizing microsomes from fragmented ER,under which condition could you determine if the new protein was imported into the microsome?
A)Ribosomes and mRNA are incubated with microsomes,then a protease is added and the results are analyzed.
B)Ribosomes and mRNA are incubated with microsomes,then a protease and detergent are added and the results are analyzed.
C)Ribosomes and mRNA are incubated with protease,then microsomes are added and the results are analyzed.
D)Ribosomes and mRNA are incubated with microsomes,then detergent is added and the results are analyzed.
Q2) Protein sequences for targeting to mitochondria or chloroplasts are located at:
A)the C-terminus of the precursor protein.
B)amino acid position 173 in most mitochondrial and chloroplast proteins.
C)the N-terminus of the precursor protein.
D)the second and third answers are correct
Q3) In the absence of targeting information,what is the default location of proteins synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes?
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Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Q1) The discovery of green fluorescent protein (GFP)has greatly facilitated living cell experiments because:
A)GFP is green.
B)GFP requires a jellyfish-specific cofactor.
C)GFP sequences may be readily fused to those of other proteins.
D)wild-type GFP folding is adapted to normal seawater temperatures,15-25 °C.
Q2) Soluble and membrane proteins advance through the Golgi complex by:
A)cisternal progression.
B)stable continuities between Golgi cisterna.
C)transient continuities between Golgi cisterna.
D)vesicular transport.
Q3) How are different coat proteins recruited to different sites within the cell?
Q4) How can the direction in which vesicles move in a VSV G-based,cell-free system for transport between Golgi compartments be distinguished?
Q5) The presence of clathrin mediates vesicular transport:
A)from ER to cis-Golgi.
B)trans-Golgi to endosome.
C)nuclear membrane to endosome.
D)plasma membrane to trans-Golgi.
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Q1) Cholera toxin can make you sick through overactivation of a G s pathway even if your body stops making the ligand associated with activation of the pathway.Knowing this,which of the following CANNOT be true about cholera toxin?
A)It chemically modifies the G s protein.
B)Cholera toxin activates a ligand-activated G protein-coupled receptor.
C)It prevents hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP.
D)It leads to continuous activation of adenylyl cyclase.
Q2) How does the body respond to decreases in blood glucose levels below about 5 mM?
Q3) Which of the following statements about adenylyl cyclase stimulation/inhibition in adipose cells is TRUE?
A)Prostaglandin E1 stimulates adenylyl cyclase.
B)Glucagon inhibits adenylyl cyclase.
C)Epinephrine stimulates adenylyl cyclase.
D)Glucagon inhibits adenylyl cyclase and epinephrine stimulates adenylyl cyclase.
Q4) What experimental approach was used to identify functional domains of G protein-coupled receptors?
Q5) Summarize the steps in the cycling of GTPase switch proteins from active to inactive states.
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Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Q1) By what mechanism does PI-3 phosphate promote activation of protein kinase B (PKB)?
A)recruiting PKB to the plasma membrane
B)recruiting the activating kinase PDK1 to the plasma membrane
C)releasing inhibition of the catalytic site by the PH domain
D)the first and second answers are correct
E)all of the above
Q2) A loss-of-function mutation in which of the following would inhibit TGF signaling?
A)I-Smad
B)R-Smad
C)Ski
D)SnoN
E)all of the above
Q3) Compare and contrast the mechanisms by which SHP1 and SOCS proteins modulate erythropoietin signaling.
Q4) How can multiple MAP kinase pathways be segregated when they share a common component?
Q5) Describe the experimental approach used to determine the order of events in a signaling pathway.
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Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Q1) Which of the following properties is not shared by all myosins?
A)the ability to bind ATP
B)the ability to form dimers
C)the ability to bind actin
D)the presence of a head domain
Q2) The elastic Brownian ratchet model has been proposed to explain:
A)membrane extension.
B)focal adhesion formation.
C)cell-body translocation.
D)gel-sol transitions.
Q3) What cellular components cause some actin filaments to form bundles and others to form networks?
Q4) Many actin cross-linking proteins contain:
A)an ATP-binding cleft.
B)a head domain.
C)a CH domain.
D)only one actin-binding site.
Q5) How do actin filaments appear when viewed by negative stain electron microscopy?
Q6) How are actin-binding proteins involved in gel-sol transitions?
Q7) Describe the functional properties of the head,neck,and tail domains of myosin. Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II: Microtubules
and Intermediate Filaments
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Q1) The primary cilium:
A)is nonmotile because it lacks the "central pair" of microtubules.
B)is relatively susceptible to microtubule destabilizing drugs like colchicine.
C)has no known role in humans.
D)none of the above
Q2) What are the effects of colchicine and taxol on cells?
Q3) In the mitotic spindle,astral microtubules function to:
A)connect the spindle poles.
B)attach chromosomes to the spindle.
C)carry out cytokinesis.
D)anchor the spindle poles to the plasma membrane.
Q4) What effect will addition of AMP-PNP have on axonal transport?
Q5) A microtubule protofilament is formed by the:
A)lateral association of only -tubulin subunits.
B)head-to-tail association of only -tubulin subunits.
C)lateral association of tubulin dimers.
D)head-to-tail association of tubulin dimers.
Q6) What role do astral microtubules play in spindle elongation?
Q7) In most cells,where do all microtubules originate?
Q8) Why would neuronal vesicles probably contain both kinesin and cytosolic dynein? Page 20
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Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Q1) What is START? How does nutritional status determine whether S.cerevisiae cells will pass START?
Q2) How does the presence of unreplicated DNA prevent entry into mitosis?
Q3) You perform an experiment where you prevent Cdc20 from binding to APC
In a cell line that usually completes the cell cycle in 60 minutes.Your experiment prevents Cdc20 from binding to APC for 120 minutes,and then you fix and stain the DNA,securin,separase and cohesin proteins.Which of the following would NOT be found in the observed cell?
A)The cell would contain condensed chromosomes aligned at the metaphase plate.
B)Cohesins will be localized around the sister chromatids.
C)Securin would be bound to separase (appear to co-localize).
D)The DNA will be decondensed because the cell is in interphase.
Q4) How do chromosome movements differ between meiosis I and meiosis II? Is spindle composition the basis for this distinction?
Q5) Describe the experiment that demonstrated that phosphorylation of nuclear lamins is required for nuclear envelope breakdown during mitosis.
Q6) How does p53 function as a tumor-suppressor protein?
Q7) What is the difference between a kinetochore and a centromere?
Q8) Compare cohesin function during mitosis and meiosis.
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Q1) Cadherin cellular adhesion molecules promote:
A)collagen binding.
B)multiadhesive matrix protein binding.
C)cell-specific homophilic interactions.
D)all of the above
Q2) What is the function of plasmodesmata in plants?
Q3) Dystroglycan is a large glycoprotein that binds to dystrophin in muscle cells.It is also present in other cells and can also bind to:
A)laminin.
B)the virus that causes Lassa fever.
C)the bacterium that causes leprosy.
D)all of the above
Q4) Which of the following is the term used to describe a thin,sheet-like meshwork of extracellular matrix components that can be found in epithelial cells?
A)basal lamina
B)basement membrane
C)gap junction
D)cell wall
Q5) What is a polarized epithelial cell?
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Q1) Examination of a cell's structure reveals condensed chromatin,a shrunken cytoplasm,but unfragmented DNA and a lack of blebbing.If this cell has been triggered to undergo apoptosis by an extrinsic factor,which of the following events has NOT likely happened yet?
A)activation of a TNF- receptor
B)recruitment of TRADD
C)recruitment of FADD
D)activation of caspases
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the stem cells located in the epithelial lining of the small intestine?
A)They express -catenin.
B)Lgr5 encodes an R-spondin receptor.
C)The Lgr5 gene is induced by Wnt signaling.
D)They are located in pits called crypts.
Q3) Which of the following forms a dimer that gets displaced from the surface of the mitochondria by EGL-1?
A)CED-3
B)CED-4
C)CED-9
D)CED-8
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) Where are voltage-gated Na channels concentrated?
A)spaced uniformly along the axon membrane
B)clustered at the nodes of Ranvier
C)clustered at the axon terminus
D)embedded within the myelin sheath
Q2) How does opening and closing of voltage-gated cation channels occur?
Q3) Which of the following represents a correct structure-function relationship for neurons?
A)cell body - sends signal to another cell
B)axon - contains the nucleus of the cell
C)dendrite - forms synapses with other neurons
D)axon termini - receive incoming signals
Q4) Acetylcholine receptor loss is observed in people with:
A)schizophrenia.
B)drug addiction.
C)myasthenia gravis.
D)all of the above
Q5) How do researchers measure ion movements through single channels?
Q6) Why do chili peppers seem hot?
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Q7) How are neurotransmitters packaged at synaptic endings for quantal release?
Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) During the early stages of B cell differentiation,heavy chains are complexed with:
A) light chains.
B) light chains
C)surrogate light chains.
D)none of the above
Q2) During B-cell development,antibody production switches from membrane-bound IgM to secreted antibody production.How does this switch occur?
Q3) Activated CD4 T cells recognize an antigen-experienced B cell by means of:
A)the class I MHC-peptide complexes displayed by the B cell.
B)the class II MHC-peptide complexes displayed by the B cell.
C)both the class I and class II MHC-peptide complexes displayed by the B cells.
D)none of the above
Q4) Some Toll-like receptor proteins recognize and destroy CpG-containing bacterial DNA.How do these receptors differentiate between host DNA and DNA from invading bacteria?
Q5) Why has the live-attenuated polio vaccine been recently discontinued?
Q6) Explain why Bence-Jones proteins are different for different B-cell tumors from different patients but identical when isolated from a single tumor.
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following proteins involved in angiogenesis is paired correctly with its function?
A)HIF - tyrosine kinase
B)VEGF - receives a secreted signal to induce blood vessel growth
C)oxygen sensor - transcription factor
D)VEGF receptor - tyrosine kinase
Q2) Ras is a:
A)growth factor. B)kinase.
C)phosphatase.
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is(are)a tumor suppressor gene?
A)APC
B)ras
C)Rb
D)APC and Rb
Q4) Name the six fundamental properties of malignant tumors.Which of these properties are amenable to study in a cell culture model of cancer?
Q5) What is the multi-hit model of cancer? What data support this model?
Q6) How can DNA microarrays be used to detect gene amplifications in cancer cells?
Page 27
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