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Business Management is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices involved in effectively running an organization. The curriculum covers essential topics such as organizational structure, strategic planning, leadership, human resource management, marketing, operations, and financial decision-making. Through case studies, interactive discussions, and real-world applications, students develop critical thinking, problem-solving, and decision-making skills necessary for success in modern business environments. This course equips learners with the knowledge and tools to understand organizational dynamics, navigate business challenges, and pursue leadership roles in various industries.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 5th Edition by Raymond Noe
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Q1) The concept of "human resource management" implies that employees:
A) are interchangeable.
B) are easily replaceable.
C) are a necessary expense to process work demands.
D) are resources who add economic value to the organization.
E) are secondary to all elements of economic capital like cash and technology.
Answer: D
Q2) Evidence-based HR is defined as the:
A) exclusive use of statistical models for planning, forecasting, and other related HR activities.
B) establishment of overlapping performance goals and desired outcomes during performance management.
C) demonstrating that human resource practices have a positive influence on the company's profits or key stakeholders.
D) process of ensuring that employees' activities and outputs match the organization's goals.
E) organization-wide planned effort to enable employees to learn job-related knowledge, rather than teamwork or communication skills.
Answer: C
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Q1) According to the principles of total quality management:
A) the feedback process should be initiated only after a significant quality improvement.
B) human resource managers have a limited role since the emphasis is on quality alone.
C) only key personnel receive training in quality.
D) errors in a product or service should be prevented before occurrence.
E) internal customers are more valuable than external customers.
Answer: D
Q2) Total quality management proposes that every employee in the organization receive training in quality.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The processing and transmission of digitized HR information is called electronic human resource management.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Susan Clarks,a white female applicant,is refused a job at a state university in favor of a less-qualified minority applicant.She considers suing the state university on charges of reverse discrimination against her,under _____.
A) the Thirteenth Amendment
B) the Fourteenth Amendment
C) the Twenty-Second Amendment
D) the Civil Rights Act of 1866
E) Title VII of CRA of 1964
Answer: B
Q2) Under Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994,employers must reemploy workers who left jobs to fulfill military duties for up to _____ years.
A) five
B) eight
C) eleven
D) seven
E) ten
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following arrangements would qualify as job rotation?
A) A receptionist is required to perform the jobs of file clerk and typist.
B) Training housekeeping staff in front office functions through periods of alternating work arrangements.
C) Members of the production team making decisions regarding how to resolve problems with customers.
D) A manager participating in a meeting while on vacation with his family.
E) A manager directing employees to stop production when quality standards are not met.
Q2) Carl Borden,the manager of an electronics store in California,gives his staff the authority to resolve customer complaints.He lets the staff decide whether to issue refunds or replace merchandise in case of consumer grievances.Which of the following job design techniques does Carl implement in his store?
A) Job sharing
B) Cross training
C) Job rotation
D) Job enrichment
E) Job evaluation
Q3) Outline the steps in a work flow analysis.
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Q1) _____ formally lay out the steps an employee may take to appeal an employer's decision to terminate that employee.
A) Leading indicators
B) Psychological contracts
C) Implicit contracts
D) Due-process policies
E) Employment-at-will contracts
Q2) Which of the following is a process used to determine whether there are any subgroups whose proportion in a given job category within a company is substantially different from their proportion in the relevant labor market?
A) Adverse Treatment Analysis
B) Workforce Utilization Review
C) Subgroup Reconciliation
D) Discrimination Analysis
E) Disparity Analysis
Q3) Image advertising: Besides advertising specific job openings,organizations may advertise themselves as a good place to work in general.Advertising designed to create a generally favorable impression of the organization is
Q4) Outline two personnel policies that are especially relevant to recruitment.
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Q1) An assessment center:
A) is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.
B) conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.
C) uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.
D) is a selection method generally used for unskilled employees.
E) has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.
Q2) A predictive criterion-related validation strategy correlates job incumbents' scores on a test with existing measures of their performance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Employers use application forms for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:
A) they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.
B) they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information.
C) they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standards.
D) they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.
E) they enable organizations to rank applicants.
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Q1) Action learning uses challenging,structured outdoor activities,which include difficult sports.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following documents outlines the type of service needed,the type and number of references needed,and the number of employees to be trained?
A) Request for proposal
B) Articles of incorporation
C) Instructional design
D) Needs assessment form
E) Organization analysis report
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an on-the-job training method?
A) Bumping
B) Benchmarking
C) Apprenticeship
D) Adventure learning
E) Action learning
Q4) Discuss the three elements of a needs assessment process.
Q5) What are the different methods for evaluating training?
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Q1) Organizations establish performance management systems to meet three broad purposes: strategic,administrative,and developmental.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an employee is dismissed on the grounds of poor performance immediately after he/she complained to higher authorities about the bad work ethics of his/her manager,the employee could file a(n):
A) affirmative action lawsuit.
B) unjust dismissal lawsuit.
C) reasonable accommodation lawsuit.
D) discrimination lawsuit.
E) tort-based lawsuit.
Q3) In terms of measuring performance,a major advantage of rankings is that they are often linked to the organization's goals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do behavioral observation scales (BOS)differ from behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)?
Q5) Define types of rating errors,and explain how to minimize them.
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Q1) Protean careers require that employees:
A) look for organizations to provide job security.
B) take responsibility to manage their own careers.
C) be specialized at repetitive tasks.
D) look for organizations for a career ladder to climb to higher positions.
E) focus on holding on to their jobs to avoid being laid off.
Q2) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator,Introverted types (I)gain energy by
A) focusing on inner thoughts
B) focusing on interpersonal relationships
C) gathering facts and details
D) focusing less on facts and more on possibilities
E) trying to be objective in making decisions
Q3) Allowing employees to take a full-time temporary position at another company is known as a(n):
A) transfer.
B) expatriate assignment.
C) sabbatical.
D) externship.
E) lateral move.
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Q1) The availability of outplacement counseling while an employee is being encouraged to leave the organization,promotes a sense of fairness on discharge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Job withdrawal is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation physically,mentally,or emotionally.
A)True B)False
Q3) In the role analysis technique,role occupant refers to:
A) the person who is hiring the employee for a particular role in the organization.
B) the employee who fills a role in the organization.
C) the people who will directly interact with the employee filling a new role in the organization.
D) the people who have written guidelines for a new role in the organization.
E) the employees who are assigned the task to write expectations from a new role in the organization.
Q4) What is job satisfaction? Mention some aspects of job satisfaction.
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Q1) Key jobs have relatively unstable content and are uncommon to many organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true about job-based pay structures?
A) The ambiguous definition of a job's responsibilities can contribute to an attitude that some activities "are not in my job description," at the expense of inflexibility.
B) Their focus on higher pay for higher status can work in favor of efforts of empowerment.
C) They usually reward desired behaviors, particularly in a rapidly changing environment.
D) Organizations may avoid change because it requires repeating the time-consuming process of creating job descriptions and related paperwork.
E) They always encourage innovation and customer service.
Q3) How do employees judge the fairness of a pay structure?
Q4) What are the limitations of using a job-based pay structure?
Q5) Define hourly wage,piecework rate,and salary.
Q6) How does equity theory justify the high pay of CEOs?
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Q1) Stock options have their greatest motivational potential during periods of:
A) high unemployment.
B) downturns in the economy.
C) high economic growth.
D) low inflation.
E) slowdown in the company's growth.
Q2) Linking incentives to the organization's profits or stock price exposes employees to a high degree of risk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a merit pay system?
Q4) Standard hour plans are likely to succeed if:
A) most or all of a salesperson's compensation is in the form of commissions.
B) employers keep labor costs to a minimum.
C) the pay increase is linked to ratings on performance appraisals.
D) employees want the extra money more than they want to work at a pace that feels comfortable.
E) the organization values employee satisfaction and motivation more than profits.
Q5) How can gainsharing be successful as a form of group incentive?
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Q1) Which of the following criteria is an organization required to meet while offering early retirement incentives?
A) Set an age at which retirement benefits stop growing
B) Ask female employees to pay more to defined-benefit plans
C) Should not coerce employees to retire.
D) Ask employees to sign compulsory waiver under ADEA
E) Provide employees not more than 48 hours to make an early retirement decision
Q2) For the average employee,the most common type of insurance offered as benefits is the pension program.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following employer-provided benefits is required by law in the U.S.?
A) Floating holidays
B) Paid vacation leave
C) Unpaid family and medical leave
D) Long-term disability insurance
E) Long-term care insurance
Q4) What are sick leaves? What are the pros and cons of the accumulation of sick leaves year after year?
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Q1) A union steward:
A) influences the way pay and promotions are determined.
B) deducts union dues from employees' paychecks.
C) is the strongest union security arrangement.
D) is employed as an independent contractor.
E) represents employees when they file grievances alleging contract violations.
Q2) What is the minimum percent of employees in a bargaining unit who must sign authorization cards for the NLRB to hold a union representation election?
A) 30 percent
B) 51 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 10 percent
E) 55 percent
Q3) Joining a union,whether recognized by the employer or not,is an activity protected under the NLRA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do unions place a high priority on negotiating contract provisions with an employer? What are the different types of contract provisions?
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Q1) The most important influence on international HRM is the economic system of the country in which a facility is located.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of global organizations?
A) They are rigid.
B) They keep costs of products as high as possible.
C) They use cultural differences as a challenge.
D) Their decisions are decentralized.
E) Their HRM practices do not treat different cultures as equals.
Q3) In the context of Hofstede's dimensions of culture,which of the following is a characteristic of cultures with a long-term orientation?
A) They value achievement, money making, and assertiveness more than anything else.
B) They value saving and persistence.
C) They expect people to think and act as members of a group..
D) They maintain large differences in power.
E) They have a preference for structured situations.
Q4) Explain Hofstede's dimensions of culture.
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Q1) Each employee's and each group's ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions in a learning organization is referred to as:
A) continuous learning.
B) critical thinking.
C) innovation.
D) cognition.
E) groupthink.
Q2) Transaction processing includes the activities required to meet government reporting requirements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Merit pay,gainsharing,and profit sharing are all methods of:
A) including employees in organizational planning.
B) disassociating compensation from performance measures.
C) disseminating organizational learning.
D) increasing employee participation in strategic decision making.
E) linking compensation to performance measures.
Q4) Discuss the concept of occupational intimacy.
Q5) Define HR dashboard.

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